Bio 40 C final review.pages

1. If a woman is homozygous normal and her husband is heterozygous for a genetically inherited autosomal
recessive disease and they decide to become parents, what is the probability that they will have a healthy
child? ______ out of 4.
2. If two parents are heterozygous for a genetically inherited dominant trait, what is the probability that they
will have a child together who has this trait in his or her phenotype? _______ out of 4.
3. The gene for red-green colorblindness is represented by the symbol ‘c’. The normal allele is represented by
‘C’. An individual with the genotype XC Xc would be a _____________
A. color-blind female
B. normal carrier female
4. In humans, the ABO blood groups are controlled by three alleles (only two of which occur in any one
individual): the alleles for A and B type blood are co-dominant toward each other, and both are dominant to
the allele for O type blood. Two babies in a maternity ward have lost their identity bands, and there is some
confusion about their footprint records. Baby #1 is type A; baby #2 is type B. If you are one of the mothers
and your blood type is O, which one of the following statements applies. Show how you have arrived to the
conclusion.
A. neither baby could be yours
B. the type A baby is yours
C. the type B baby is yours
D. either baby could be yours
5. Mrs. Smith and Mrs. Doe were roommates at Harris Hospital and both had daughters at about the same
time. After Mrs. Smith took Susie home, she became convinced that the babies had been switched. Blood
tests were performed with the following results:
• Mr. and Mrs. Smith were both type AB;
• Mr. and Mrs. Doe were both type A;
• Susie Smith was type A and
• Debbie Doe was type O.
Had a switch occurred? Show the Punnett Squares to support your conclusion. Without Punnett square BO
credit will be given.
6. Red-green color blindness is inherited as a sex-linked recessive. If a color-blind woman marries a man who
has normal vision, what would be the expected phenotypes of their children with reference to this
character? Show the Punnett Squares to support your conclusion. Without Punnett square BO credit will be
given.
7. Red-green color blindness is inherited as a sex-linked recessive. A man and his wife both have normal
color vision, but a daughter has red-green color blindness, a sex-linked recessive trait. The man sues his
wife for divorce on grounds of infidelity. Can genetics provide evidence supporting his case? Show the
Punnett Squares to support your conclusion. Without Punnett square BO credit will be given.
8. Chorionic villi sampling (CVS) has an advantage over amniocentesis because CVS
A. involves removal of fluid only
B. never has any negative side effects
C. yields test results in a few days
D. can be performed during the second week of pregnancy
9. At the end of a full-term of pregnancy, the top of the uterus reaches
A. the top of the pelvic rim
B. the level of the umbilicus (navel)
C. the lower surface of the stomach
D. nearly to the xiphoid process of the sternum
10. If a man with hemophilia marries a woman who does not carry the hemophilia gene, which of the following
concerning their children is probable?
A. All of the sons will be carriers
B. All of the sons will have hemophilia
C. All of the daughters will be carriers D. 1/2 of the sons will have hemophilia and 1/2 will be carriers
11. A mother with blood type B and a father with blood type A have four children. One child is type AB, one is
A, one is B, and one is type O. Which of the following represents the genotypes of the parents? (Hint: this
is an example of codominance).
A. IAi x IBi
B. IAIA x IBi
C. IAi x IBIB
D. IAIA x IBi
12. Which of the following hormones have the greatest direct control over the changes in the uterus?
A. GnRH
B. FSH and LH
C. estrogens and progesterone
D. inhibin and relaxin
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13. The stratum basalis of the uterus _________________
A. is shed during menstruation
B. repeatedly gives rise to a new stratum functionalis after each menstruation
C. contracts during childbirth to help expel the fetus
D. is part of the visceral peritoneum and becomes part of the broad ligament
14. Given these cells:
1. primary spermatocytes
2. secondary spermatocytes
3. Spermatids
4. Spermatogonia
5. sperm cells.
Arrange the cells in the order in which they are produced during spermatogenesis.
A.! 1,2,3,4,5
B.! 2,1,3,5,4
C.! 3,1,2,4,5
D.! 4,1,2,3,5
E.! 5,3,4,1,2
15. The hormone inhibin inhibits the secretion of _____________
A. estrogen
B. FSH
C. GnRH
d. progesterone
16. The corpus luteum secretes __________
A. human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG)
B. estrogen and progesterone
C. hCG and progesterone
D. estrogen and hCG
17. Bone, DNA, RNA, ATP, and cell membranes all have one thing in common. They all contain _____
A. sulfur
B. calcium
C. phosphate
D. magnesium
18. A person having a panic attack is hyperventilating (breathing in and out more air than normal), which is
causing an increase in his blood ________.
A. pH
B. H+
C. partial pressure of CO2
D. partial pressure of CO2 and H+
19. The only way the body can get rid of the huge load of hydrogen ions produced by metabolic reactions that
produce nonvolatile acids is to
A. increase the concentration of bicarbonate ions
B. breathe faster and more deeply
C. excrete the hydrogen ions in the urine
D. increase the concentration of proteins in the plasma
20. Creatinine is produced by the breakdown of creatine phosphate in the skeletal muscles. It is useful for
determining glomerular filtration rate (GFR) because it is ____________
A. filtered and reabsorbed but not secreted
B. filtered and extensively secreted but not reabsorbed
C. filtered but not reabsorbed or secreted
D. secreted but not filtered or reabsorbed
21. In the process of renal autoregulation, when the juxtaglomerular apparatus secretes less vasoconstrictor
substance ______________
A. the afferent arterioles dilate, increasing glomerular filtration rate
B. the efferent arterioles dilate, allowing blood to flow through the kidney faster
C. the loop of Henle reabsorbs more sodium and chloride ions
D. the collecting tubule reabsorbs less water
22. Reabsorption of sodium from the tubules of the nephron establishes an osmotic gradient that causes
_____ to move back into the blood
A. salt
B. water
C. magnesium
D. calcium
23. In fatty acid metabolism, which molecule enters the Krebs cycle?
A. the entire fatty acid
B. ketone bodies
C. acetyl CoA d. NADH
24. Which hormone stimulates gluconeogenesis?
A. aldosterone
B. insulin
C. parathormone
D. cortisol
E. glucagon
25. The electron transport chain __________________
A. involves four classes of carrier molecules
B. is a stepwise release of energy for the generation of ATP
C. consists of specialized molecules located in the cytoplasm
D. requires acetyl CoA and the process of beta oxidation
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26. The function of HDLs (high density lipoproteins) is to ___________
A. transport triglycerides from adipose cells to the liver
B. transport triglycerides from hepatocytes to adipose cells
C. deliver cholesterol in blood to cells throughout the body so they can use it to repair their membranes
and synthesize steroid hormones
D. pick up excess cholesterol from body cells and the blood and return it to the liver
27. Vitamin D deficiency causes __________
A. rickets and osteomalacia
B. night blindness
C. scurvy
D. pernicious anemia
28. Too high a core body temperature can be fatal because it causes ___________________ (Fill - in - blank)
29. An increase in urea in the blood would indicate an increase in the breakdown of ________
A. glucose
B. amino acids
C. fatty acids
D. glycerol
30. Which of the following minerals serves as an antioxidant, prevents chromosome damage, and may play a
role in preventing certain birth defects?
A. zinc
B. magnesium
C. chromium
D. selenium
31. The hormone that causes contraction of the muscles in the wall of the gallbladder and relaxation of the
sphincter of the hepatopancreatic ampulla (sphincter of Oddi) is __________
A. secretin
B. cholecystokinin
C. gastrin
D. enterokinase
32. What stimulates the release of PTH from the parathyroid gland?
A. calcitonin from the anterior pituitary gland
B. TSH from the posterior pituitary gland
C. low levels of glucose in the blood
D. low levels of calcium ion in the blood
33. Weak acids are able to act as chemical buffering systems for the body because they partially dissociate.
A. true
B. false
34. Secretion of gastrin and stimulation of the vagus nerve cause
A. decreased stomach motility, relaxation of the esophageal sphincter, and contraction of the pyloric
sphincter
B. increased secretion of secretin, inhibition of the smooth muscles of the stomach, and contraction of the
pyloric sphincter
C. increased stomach motility, contraction of the esophageal sphincter, and relaxation of the pyloric
sphincter
D. decreased secretion of hydrogen ions, inhibition of pepsin secretion, and relaxation of the esophageal
muscles
35. Carotid artery and aortic baroreceptors are involved in long term adjustment to total body sodium ion
content.
A. true
B. false
36. Solutes, regardless of size, are able to move freely between compartments because water carries them
along the osmotic gradients.
A. true
B. false
37. The major effect of acidosis is the __________ of the nervous system, whereas a major effect of alkalosis
is __________ of the nervous system.
A. depression, hyperexcitability
B. hyperexcitability, depression
38. Because of greatly decreased PO2, traveling to a very high altitude could cause ________. Why?
A. metabolic acidosis
B. respiratory acidosis
C. metabolic alkalosis
D. respiratory alkalosis
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FEEDBACK: Greatly decreased PO2 at very high altitude stimulates the chemoreceptor reflex resulting
in hyperventilation and respiratory alkalosis.
39. Which one of the following chemicals is not an electrolyte?
A. calcium phosphate
B. potassium chloride
C. sodium bicarbonate
D. glucose
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I. Explain what triggers a baby's first breath.
II. Describe the events allowing monospermy.
III. A 30-year-old woman is admitted to the emergency room. Her husband, who rode in the ambulance with
her, said that she had suddenly complained of severe pain in the right iliac region of her abdomen and then
had collapsed. Upon examination, she was shown to have signs of internal hemorrhage and her abdominal
muscles were rigid. Her menstrual history revealed that she had missed her last menstrual period. A
diagnosis of ruptured tubal, or ectopic, pregnancy was made and surgery scheduled. What is an ectopic
pregnancy, and why is it problematic?
IV. A patient's anxiety caused her to develop respiratory alkalosis. The nurse instructs the patient to take some
slow deep breaths. Explain why this would be effective.
V. After traveling from Los Angeles to Denver, Claire finds she is not feeling well and checks into a clinic for
help. The clinic's diagnosis is respiratory alkalosis. What has caused this problem?
VI. Describe the operation of the three major chemical buffers of the body.
VII. Jill and Jane desperately want to have children, and although they have tried for two years, they have not
been successful. Finally each of them consults a physician, and it turns out that Joe suffers from
oligospermia [a low sperm count, however, his semen contains sperms!]. He confides to you that he does
not understand why this would interfere with his ability to have children since he remembers from his
biology class discussion that it takes only one sperm to fertilize an egg. What would you tell him?
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The Final Exam is scheduled by the College. Bio 40 C final exam is scheduled on Tuesday, March 24,
2015. The exam is of 2 h duration, from 4:00 pm to 6:00 pm in SC1102
The final exam is comprehensive. Questions from the endocrine system, lymphatic system,
digestive system, nutrition and metabolism, urinary system, acid base balance, reproductive system
and development and inheritance will be asked to assess your understanding.
The above questions are for you to assess your preparedness - mainly from the chapters which
were not assessed during midterm exams.
I will see you on Tuesday.