HOW TO USE THE ieltshelpnow.com PRACTICE TESTS
Whether you choose the ieltshelpnow.com Academic practice tests or the General Training Practice Tests, you
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5 sets of question papers (including listening, reading, writing and speaking)
2 answer sheets (for listening and reading)
5 audio recordings for the listening tests
3 audio recordings with the example speaking tests
example essays and examiner's reports
the examiner's reports on the 3 example speaking tests
The 5 sets of question papers, 2 answer sheets, example essays and examiner's reports, and the speaking tests
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If you do not have this already on your computer, it is available on this internet site.
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them at any time after your password has expired. You can listen to them directly on the internet but streaming
problems may make it difficult for you to get a quality listening in this way.
So, to buy first go through the purchase procedure to get access to the download pages. When you get to the
download pages, you can do 2 things:
1. Print the Practice Test question papers, answer papers, examiner's reports and audio scripts and listen to the
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computer so you can print them out or listen to them later in your own time. The procedure for saving them is on
the download page.
We would recommend that you follow the 2nd of these 2 options. When you have saved the 5 Academic tests and
recordings etc. or the 5 General Training tests and recordings etc., you can plan out how you want to do your
practice. Planning how to use the Practice tests is very important for properly preparing for the IELTS exam.
There are 5 practice tests. In the real IELTS test, you would have the following time to do the different parts of
the test:
Listening: Approximately 25 - 30 minutes depending on the length of the recording. People doing the tests only
listen ONCE to the recording.
Reading: 1 hour.
Writing: 1 hour (recommended: 20 minutes for task 1 and 40 minutes for task 2).
Speaking: 11 - 14 minutes depending on the examiner and candidate's performance.
If the first test of ieltshelpnow.com is the first practice test that you have done then we suggest that you take
your time and not worry about the time limits. Just go through the tests slowly so you get used to the layout and
type of questions. After this first practice test or if you have done other practice tests before, then we strongly
recommend that you practice under STRICT EXAM CONDITIONS following the timings above. This will help you
prepare for IELTS in exam conditions. If you give yourself too long then you will get used to having too long to
answer the questions. This will have bad results in the real exam when you will have to follow the exam
conditions.
Read the advice in the free tutorial sections on the different parts of the exam. You can find the free tutorials on
the home page - click on the FREE COURSE TUTORIALS link on the right side of the home page. Read the advice
more than once. Read the advice before you do a practice test and afterwards. Then think about it and what you
did wrong or right. Then, don't do another one straightaway. Wait until the next day.
Don't try and do all the practice tests at once. Give yourself time between the practice tests and their different
sections. If you do them all too quickly, you will become tired and lose concentration and you will lose some of
the benefits of the practice. So, make a plan leading up to the exam with plenty of time to practice the different
parts of the 5 practice tests.
You may be wondering how you can practice the speaking part of the exam. Go to the Academic or General
Training Speaking Test Tutorials. There it is explained how you can practice for this part of the test on your own
or with a friend. The Speaking Tutorials are found on the home page - click on the FREE COURSE TUTORIALS link
on the right side of the home page.
When you have finished the Listening and Reading sections of the practice tests, you can check your answers on
the answer sheets which are on the downloads page which you should save along with the question papers.
Obviously there are no answers for the speaking and writing as everyone produces different answers. Read
through the free tutorials on writing and speaking to see how the best answers are produced. The Writing and
Speaking Tutorials are found on the home page - click on the FREE COURSE TUTORIALS link on the right side of
the home page.
Hopefully following this advice will enable you to properly exploit our practice tests and allow you to prepare for
IELTS in the best possible way.
We at ieltshelpnow.com genuinely hope that our low cost practice tests and free advice will help you to improve
your IELTS score and that this will lead to you achieving your dream! Good luck!
ieltshelpnow.com ACADEMIC MODULE
PRACTICE TEST 1
ACADEMIC LISTENING PRACTICE TEST 1
SECTION 1 Questions 1 - 10
Questions 1 - 5
Complete the form below.
Write NO MORE THAN ONE WORD OR A NUMBER for each answer.
PAN ASIAN AIRWAYS
LOST PROPERTY REPORT FORM
Example
Answer
First Name
Kirsty
Surname
Allen
Address
Postcode
(1) ____________________ Windham Road
Richmond
(2) ____________________
Home tel.
020 8927 7651
Mobile tel.
(3) ____________________
Flight Number
(4) ____________________
Seat Number
(5) ____________________
From
New York
To
London Heathrow
Page 1
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Questions 6 - 8
Circle THREE letters A - F.
What items did Kirsty’s bag contain?
A
17 pounds
B
pens
C
her passport
D
a book
E
200 dollars
F
her house keys
Questions 9 and 10
Choose a letter (A - D) that correctly answers questions 9 and 10.
9
10
What has Kirsty done regarding the loss of her credit card?
A
Informed the police but not the credit card company.
B
Informed the credit card company but not the police.
C
Informed both the police and the credit card company.
D
Informed neither the police nor the credit card company.
What must Kirsty do after the call regarding her lost handbag?
A
Call back after 11⁄2 hours.
B
Just wait for a call back.
C
Call back after 11⁄2 hours if she has heard nothing.
D
Call back the next day if she has heard nothing.
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SECTION 2 Questions 11 - 20
Questions 11 - 14
Label the locations on the map below.
(14)
_______________
_______________
_______________
Main
Lecture
Hall
WE ARE
HERE
Car Park
Hall
of
Residence
(11)_______________
__________________
__________________
(12)
____________
____________
____________
Refectory
(13) ______________
__________________
__________________
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Questions 15 - 20
Complete the notes below.
Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS OR A NUMBER for each answer.
Notes on Student Facilities
Students’ Union
Very cheap
Bookshop
Food and drink available
Parties!
Offices - travel, welfare etc.
Open 8am - 12 midnight
Library
Must register
Tours every (15) ____________________ for 2 weeks.
Open 9am - 9pm (later during (16) ____________________)
Refectory
Cheap meals
Lunch 12 noon - 3pm
Dinner (17) __________ - 8.30pm
Types of food favourites
healthy
ethnic
(18) ____________________
vegan
Sports Hall
Must join Athletic Union which -
Discount Card
Costs (20) £_______________
Gives me discounts on all uni. services
lets me use facilities
lets me play for teams
(19) ______________ me all year
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SECTION 3 Questions 21 - 30
Questions 21 - 25
Complete the table below.
Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.
Day of Arrival
Subjects Studying
Monday’s 9am lecture
Monday’s 2pm lecture
Wednesday afternoon sport
selected
Location of Sport
John
Thursday
economics
maths
french
french
maths
(24) _______________________
Jane
(21) _______________________
(22) _______________________
history
music
history
(23) _______________________
volleyball
sports hall
(25) _______________________
Questions 26 - 29
Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS OR A NUMBER for each answer.
26
Students can choose from how many essay titles for their first assignment?
_________________________________________________________________________
27
Where did John travel during the summer?
_________________________________________________________________________
28
What is the word limit for the essays?
_________________________________________________________________________
29
When must the first essay be handed in by?
_________________________________________________________________________
Question 30
Circle the correct letter A - C.
30
Where will John and Jane meet up later that day?
A
B
C
the economics course office
the economics common room
the campus cafeteria
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SECTION 4 Questions 31 - 40
Questions 31 - 34
Choose the correct letters A - C.
31
Japan relies on oil tankers because...
A
B
C
32
Professor Wilson says that oil tankers are...
A
B
C
33
very safe.
quite safe.
quite unsafe.
According to Professor Wilson, the main cause of oil slicks is...
A
B
C
34
the country consists of islands.
the country has no pipeline network.
the country has no natural oil resources.
accidents while loading and unloading oil.
collisions.
deliberate releases of oil.
According to Professor Wilson, slicks are rarely burned off nowadays because...
A
B
C
the oil is refined.
it usually doesn’t work.
it creates too much air pollution.
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Questions 35 - 39
Complete the notes below.
Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS.
Oil exploration clean-up techniques
Techniques
The Containment Boom
Chemical Detergents
The Sponge
Bacteria
Advantages
Cheap and easy
Disadvantages
Only good when there are
(35) ________________
____________________
Good for treating (36) _________ Chemicals remain in the water +
___________________________ kill marine life.
Oil remains permanently in the
The sponge mats turn into
sponge.
(37) _______________________
___________________________
(39) _______________________
Cheap
Easy to administer
Totally (38) _________________
___________________________
Question 40
Complete the notes below.
Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS.
Optional essay question.
Remember to check out the faculty’s notice boards. You will find:
*
*
*
reading lists
essay questions
(40) __________________________________________________
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ACADEMIC READING PRACTICE TEST 1
READING PASSAGE 1
Questions 1 -13
You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 1 – 13 which are based on
Reading Passage 1 below.
THE BIG CATS AT THE SHARJAH BREEDING CENTRE
It is one of the few places where you will be able to spot them all at the same time… the
Arabian wolf, an African cheetah, an Arabian leopard, an oryx, a gazelle. These are just some of
the animals, which, on the brink of extinction, are now getting a new lease of life thanks to the
exemplary work being done at the Breeding Centre for Endangered Arabian Wildlife in Sharjah.
Sharjah is one of the seven emirates that make up the United Arab Emirates. The Breeding
Centre’s expertise and facilities have made it a prime destination for illegally imported animals
confiscated by UAE and Sharjah authorities. In the last four years, more than 900 mammals and
reptiles and 969 birds have arrived at the centre, including 25 North African cheetahs, Houbara
bustard and falcons, lions, a baby Nile crocodile and a Burmese python that was left in a rental car
at the airport.
The 25 cheetahs were all imported illegally into the UAE and were intercepted at the UAE
harbour and airport entry points. They nearly all arrived malnourished, dehydrated and highly
stressed after long voyages stuffed into boxes, crates and suitcases. Now they are bright and full
of energy. The Centre’s efforts have also been rewarded when the first cheetah mating took place
at the end of 2002. Playing matchmaker with these beautiful creatures is no easy task – successful
breeding requires considerable patience and intimate knowledge of each animal’s personality, and
it is the result of intensive and expert management of each animal within the group as well as of the
group as a whole.
Because this group was still young and inexperienced in courtship matters, the keepers had
to make the introductions only after careful planning and management, much like the lead role in
a Jane Austen novel. The female cheetahs were initially intimidated by the presence of the male;
however, as they advance to oestrus, the roles are reversed and the male cheetah becomes too
wary to approach during the female’s most receptive phase of the cycle. It is the responsibility of
the keeper therefore to monitor each individual and to be able to respond to any indication from
the cheetahs that the time is right for introducing a pair. The close bond that invariably develops
between the keeper and the cheetahs enables the keeper to spot even the most subtle signs from
the animals in their care. The trust between keeper and animal has also allowed the opportunity to
study cellular changes in the sexual organs of the females during the hormonal cycles that occur
prior to reproduction.
The Breeding Centre’s cheetahs are also participants in the European breeding programme,
which aims to ensure that the genetic diversity of this endangered species is maintained and
expanded by breeding as many founder animals as possible to introduce new bloodlines into the
captive population. In this way, the group held at the centre plays a very important role in the future
health of the international captive population, as they are potentially all new founders.
Also very important for the Sharjah Breeding Centre is the leopard-breeding programme.
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The Arabian leopard, Panthera pardus nimr, is critically endangered around the world and
particularly in the Arabian peninsula, where it was once found throughout the coastal mountain
ranges. Activities like hunting, trapping and habitat destruction has reduced their range to a few
isolated and fragmented populations in Oman, Yemen and Saudi Arabia.
In the 1980s, a captive breeding programme was established near Muscat with the capture
of three leopards in southwestern Oman. The breeding programme in the UAE was initiated by
the Arabian Leopard Trust and started with the arrival of two mature specimens: a male Arabian
leopard from Yemen and a female on breeding loan from Oman in 1995. The arrival of these two
animals led to the construction of the Breeding Centre in which the leopard has played the role of
flagship species.
Today there are twelve leopards at the Breeding centre, eight of which have been born at
the centre since the first cub in 1998. Once more, the secret to the centre’s success is the close
relationship between animal and keeper. The leopard is usually shy and secretive with people
around, but here they react positively to the presence of their keepers, approaching the fence so
they can be talked to or scratched behind an ear.
The bond is particularly important during breeding season, when keepers decide to
introduce pairs to each other. Male leopards are known to have killed their partners on introduction,
so it is essential for the keeper to understand the leopards’ behaviour to decide when it is safe to
do so. The trust is also important if keepers need to enter dens to check on and monitor the cub’s
growth. Leopard females have been known to kill their cubs if the dens have been disturbed, but
the centre’s leopards are quite comfortable with the staff handling the new generation of cubs.
Source: The Gulf News, UAE
Questions 1- 8
Use the information in the text to match the statements (1 – 8) with the animals
(A – D). Write the appropriate letter (A – D) in boxes 1 – 8 on your answer sheet.
Write:
A
if the statement refers to cheetahs at the Breeding Centre.
B
if the statement refers to leopards at the Breeding Centre.
C
if the statement refers to both cheetahs and leopards at the Breeding Centre.
D
If the statement refers to neither cheetahs nor leopards at the Breeding Centre.
Example
Answer
These animals are endangered
C
1
These animals were smuggled into the UAE.
2
At first these animals did not adapt to life at the Sharjah Breeding Centre
3
These animals are regarded as the most important animal at the Centre.
4
Half of these animals were born at the Breeding centre.
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5
These animals can be dangerous to one another.
6
The role of the keeper is vital in the breeding programme of these animals.
7
The first of these animals at the Breeding Centre were relatively young.
8
It is normally difficult for humans to approach these animals.
Questions 9 – 13
Complete the summary below.
Choose your answers from the box below the summary and write them in boxes
9 – 12 on your answer sheet.
NB
There are more words than spaces, so you will not use them at all.
Example
Answer
The Sharjah Breeding Centre now has a __________ of
animals including birds,…
variety
SUMMARY
The Sharjah Breeding Centre now has a variety of animals including birds, mammals and
(9) __________. As its name suggests, the Centre is primarily involved in breeding and
(10) __________ the numbers of the species housed there whilst still maintaining the (11)
_________ of bloodlines in order to retain genetic health. In spite of problems involving
the complex (12) __________ of the animals, a fair amount of (13) __________ has been
achieved with North African cheetahs and Arabian leopards.
reptiles
variety
behaviour
success
creating
expanding
difficulty
diversity
action
habitat
season
fish
change
working
programme
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READING PASSAGE 2
Questions 14 - 27
You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 14 – 27 which are based on
Reading Passage 2 on the following pages.
INSOMNIA – THE ENEMY OF SLEEP
A
It is not unusual to have sleep troubles from time to time. But, if you feel you do not get enough
sleep or satisfying sleep, you may have insomnia, a sleep disorder. People with insomnia have
one or more of the following: difficulty falling asleep, waking up often during the night and having
trouble going back to sleep, waking up too early in the morning and unrefreshing sleep. Insomnia
is not defined by the number of hours you sleep every night. The amount of sleep a person needs
varies. While most people need between 7 and 8 hours of sleep a night, some people do well with
less, and some need more.
B
Insomnia occurs most frequently in people over age 60, in people with a history of depression, and
in women, especially after menopause. Severe emotional trauma can also cause insomnia with
divorced, widowed and separated people being the most likely to suffer from this sleep disorder.
Stress, anxiety, illness and other sleep disorders such as restless legs syndrome are the most
common causes of insomnia. An irregular work schedule, jet lag or brain damage from a stroke or
Alzeimer’s disease can also cause insomnia as well as excessive use of alcohol or illicit drugs. It
can also accompany a variety of mental illnesses.
C
The mechanism that induces sleep is not known. When it becomes dark, the pineal gland in the
brain secretes a hormone called melatonin, which is thought to induce sleep. Exactly why sleep
is necessary for good health and efficient mental functioning is unknown. We do know that sleep
consists of two very different states: rapid eye movement (REM) sleep and non-REM sleep. In
REM sleep, dreams occur, the eyes move under the closed lids and there is an increase in oxygen
consumption, blood flow and neural activity. REM sleep occurs four or five times during a night.
Beginning periods last about ten to fifteen minutes but the periods get longer as the night goes on.
The periods of REM sleep alternate with longer periods of non-REM sleep, when body functions
slow. Non-REM sleep has four stages. During the deepest stages (3 and 4) it is hard to rouse
a sleeper. As the night goes on, the periods of non-REM sleep become progressively lighter.
Sleep in stages 1 and 2 are felt to be restorative as during this time the body repairs itself utilising
a hormone called somatostatin. Lack of stage 4 sleep is believed to be important in chronically
painful conditions such as fibromyalgia.
D
Healthcare providers diagnose insomnia in several ways. One way is to categorize insomnia
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by how often it occurs. Another way is to identify the insomnia by what is causing the sleep
deprivation. The two main types of insomnia have been described as Primary Insomnia and
Secondary Insomnia. Primary Insomnia is a chronic condition with little apparent association with
stress or a medical problem. The most common form of primary insomnia is psychophysiological
insomnia. Secondary insomnia is caused by symptoms that accompany a medical condition such
as anxiety, depression or pain.
E
Improving one’s sleep hygiene helps improve insomnia in all patients. Relaxing during the hour
before you go to sleep and creating a comfortable environment suited for sleep can be helpful.
Older people who wake up earlier than normal or have trouble falling asleep may need less sleep
than they used to. Changing one’s sleep pattern, either by going to bed later or waking up earlier,
can be effective in dealing with insomnia in older people. Therapy also depends on the cause
and severity of the insomnia. Transient and intermittent insomnia may not require any direct
action since these conditions last only a few days at a time. However, if insomnia interferes with
a person’s daily activities, something should be done. Usually the best method of dealing with
insomnia is by attacking the underlying cause. For example, people who are depressed often have
insomnia and looking at this problem may eliminate it.
F
Not getting enough sleep can make you less productive, irritable and unable to concentrate.
Lack of sleep can make it seem as if you “got up out of the wrong side of the bed.” Early morning
headaches and waking up feeling as if you never went to sleep can result in frustration. Stress
can cause insomnia but insomnia also increases stress. Insomnia can make driving unsafe as
well. Insomnia can result in missed work, which can cause you to become less productive and
miss promotions. It can leave you feeling as if you just can’t get enough done. Insomnia can also
mask serious mental disorders. People with insomnia may think that not getting enough sleep is
their only problem, but the insomnia may actually be one symptom of a larger disorder, such as
depression. Studies show that people with insomnia are four times more likely to be depressed
than people with a healthy sleeping pattern. In addition, lack of sleep can tax the heart and lead to
serious conditions like heart disease. All of these are important problems that can affect every part
of your life.
G
Establishing certain set routines can help insomniacs get better sleep. Examples of these routines
include: going to bed and getting up at the same time every day, avoiding napping, avoiding
caffeine, nicotine, alcohol and eating heavily late in the day, exercising regularly and making your
bedroom comfortable in terms of the bed, noise and temperature. Insomniacs should also only
use their bedroom for sleep so that their bodies associate the room with sleep. Finally, if you can’t
get to sleep, don’t toss and turn all night. Get up and read or do something that is not overly
stimulating until you feel really sleepy again.
Source: 4woman.gov + McKinley Health Centre, Illinois
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Questions 14 - 19
The reading passage on Insomnia has 7 paragraphs (A – G).
From the list of headings below choose the most suitable headings for paragraphs
B – G.
Write the appropriate number (i – xi) in boxes 14 – 19 on your answer sheet.
NB
There are more headings than paragraphs, so you will not use them all.
Example
Answer
Paragraph A
iv
i
The Role of Sleep
ii
Insomnia Medication
iii
Habits to Promote a Good Night’s Sleep
iv
What is Insomnia
v
Complications for Insomniacs
vi
Government Action
vii
Available Treatment for Insomnia
viii
The Causes of Insomnia
ix
Therapy Solutions
x
Types of Insomnia
xi
Current Research
14
Paragraph B
15
Paragraph C
16
Paragraph D
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17
Paragraph E
18
Paragraph F
19
Paragraph G
Questions 20 - 27
Do the following statements agree with the views of the writer of the reading
passage on Insomnia?
In Boxes 20 - 27 write:
YES
if the statement agrees with the writer
NO
if the statement doesn’t agree with the writer
NOT GIVEN
if it is impossible to say what the writer thinks about this
20
Someone who only gets four hours of sleep a night must be suffering from insomnia.
21
Travelling can cause insomnia.
22
REM sleep is felt to be the most important for the body’s rest.
23
Secondary insomnia is far more common than primary insomnia.
24
Sufferers of insomnia can attend specialist sleep clinics.
25
Many people suffering from insomnia don’t realise that they suffer from it.
26
There is no actual correlation linking insomnia and depression.
27
Sleeping during the day can make insomnia worse.
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READING PASSAGE 2
Questions 28 - 40
You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 28 – 40 which are based on
Reading Passage 3 below.
ALTERNATIVE FARMING METHODS IN OREGON
Onion growers in eastern Oregon are adopting a system that saves water and keeps topsoil
in place, while producing the highest quality “super colossal” onions. Pear growers in southern
Oregon have reduced their use of some of the most toxic pesticides by up to two-thirds, and
are still producing top-quality pears. Range managers throughout the state have controlled the
poisonous weed tansy ragwort with insect predators and saved the Oregon livestock industry up to
$4.8 million a year.
These are some of the results Oregon growers have achieved in collaboration with Oregon
State University (OSU) researchers as they test new farming methods including integrated pest
management (IPM). Nationwide, however, IPM has not delivered results comparable to those
in Oregon. A recent U.S General Accounting Office (GAO) report indicates that while integrated
pest management can result in dramatically reduced pesticide use, the federal government has
been lacking in effectively promoting that goal and implementing IPM. Farmers also blame the
government for not making the new options of pest management attractive. “Wholesale changes in
the way that farmers control the pests on their farms is an expensive business.” Tony Brown, of the
National Farmers Association says. “If the farmers are given tax breaks to offset the expenditure,
then they would willingly accept the new practices.” The report goes on to note that even though
the use of the riskiest pesticides has declined nationwide, they still make up more than 40
percent of all pesticides used today; and national pesticide use has risen by 40 million kilograms
since 1992. “Our food supply remains the safest and highest quality on Earth but we continue to
overdose our farmland with powerful and toxic pesticides and to under-use the safe and effective
alternatives,” charged Patrick Leahy, who commissioned the report. Green action groups disagree
about the safety issue. “There is no way that habitual consumption of foodstuffs grown using toxic
chemicals of the nature found on today’s farms can be healthy for consumers,” noted Bill Bowler,
spokesman for Green Action, one of many lobbyists interested in this issue.
The GAO report singles out Oregon’s apple and pear producers who have used the new IPM
techniques with growing success. Although Oregon is clearly ahead of the nation, scientists
at OSU are taking the Government Accounting Office criticisms seriously. “We must continue
to develop effective alternative practices that will reduce environmental hazards and produce
high quality products,” said Paul Jepson, a professor of entomology at OSU and new director of
OSU’s Integrated Plant Protection Centre (IPPC). The IPPC brings together scientists from OSU’s
Agricultural Experiment Station, OSU Extension service, the U.S. Department of Agriculture and
Oregon farmers to help develop agricultural systems that will save water and soil, and reduce
pesticides. In response to the GAO report, the Centre is putting even more emphasis on integrating
research and farming practices to improve Oregon agriculture environmentally and economically.
“The GAO report criticizes agencies for not clearly communicating the goals of IPM,” said Jepson.
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“Our challenge is to greatly improve the communication to and from growers, to learn what works
and what doesn’t. The work coming from OSU researchers must be adopted in the field and not
simply languish in scientific journals.”
In Oregon, growers and scientists are working together to instigate new practices. For example, a
few years ago scientists at OSU’s Malheur Experiment Station began testing a new drip irrigation
system to replace old ditches that wasted water and washed soil and fertilizer into streams. The
new system cut water and fertilizer use by half, kept topsoil in place and protected water quality.
In addition, the new system produced crops of very large onions, rated “super colossal” and
highly valued by the restaurant industry and food processors. Art Pimms, one of the researchers
at Malheur comments: “Growers are finding that when they adopt more environmentally benign
practices, they can have excellent results. The new practices benefit the environment and give the
growers their success.”
OSU researchers in Malheur next tested straw mulch and found that it successfully held soil in
place and kept the ground moist with less irrigation. In addition, and unexpectedly, the scientists
found that the mulched soil created a home for beneficial beetles and spiders that prey on onion
thrips – a notorious pest in commercial onion fields – a discovery that could reduce the need for
pesticides. “I would never have believed that we could replace the artificial pest controls that we
had before and still keep our good results,” commented Steve Black, a commercial onion farmer in
Oregon, “but instead we have actually surpassed expectations.”
OSU researchers throughout the state have been working to reduce dependence on broadspectrum chemical sprays that are toxic to many kind of organisms, including humans. “Consumers
are rightly putting more and more pressure on the industry to change its reliance on chemical
pesticides, but they still want a picture-perfect product,” said Rick Hilton, entomologist at OSU’s
Southern Oregon Research and Extension Centre, where researchers help pear growers reduce
the need for highly toxic pesticides. Picture perfect pears are an important product in Oregon
and traditionally they have required lots of chemicals. In recent years, the industry has faced stiff
competition from overseas producers, so any new methods that growers adopt must make sense
economically as well as environmentally. Hilton is testing a growth regulator that interferes with the
molting of codling moth larvae. Another study used pheromone dispensers to disrupt codling moth
mating. These and other methods of integrated pest management have allowed pear growers to
reduce their use of organophosphates by two-thirds and reduce all other synthetic pesticides by
even more and still produce top-quality pears. These and other studies around the state are part
of the effort of the IPPC to find alternative farming practices that benefit both the economy and the
environment.
Source: Peg Herring / Oregon State University
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Questions 28 – 35
Match the views (28 – 35) with the people listed below.
28
There is a double advantage to the new techniques.
29
Expectations of end users of agricultural products affect the products.
30
The work on developing these alternative techniques is not finished.
31
Eating food that has had chemicals used in its production is dangerous to our health.
32
Changing current farming methods is not a cheap process.
33
Results have exceeded anticipations.
34
The research done should be translated into practical projects.
35
The U.S. produces the best food in the world.
TB
Tony Brown
PL
Patrick Leahy
BB
Bill Bowler
PJ
Paul Jepson
AP
Art Pimms
SB
Steve Black
RH
Rick Hilton
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Questions 36 - 40
Read the passage about alternative farming methods in Oregon again and look at
the statements below.
In boxes 36 - 40 on your answer sheet write:
TRUE
if the statement is true
FALSE
if the statement is false
NOT GIVEN
if the information is not given in the
advertisement
36
Integrated Pest Management has generally been regarded as a success in the US.
37
Oregon farmers of apples and pears have been promoted as successful examples of
Integrated Pest Management.
38
The IPPC uses scientists from different organisations.
39
Straw mulch experiments produced unplanned benefits.
40
The apple industry is now facing a lot of competition from abroad.
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ACADEMIC WRITING PRACTICE TEST 1
WRITING TASK 1
You should spend about 20 minutes on this task.
The chart below shows estimated world literacy rates by region and by gender for the
year 2000.
Write a report for a university lecturer describing the information below.
You should write at least 150 words.
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WRITING TASK 2
You should spend about 40 minutes on this task.
With the pressures on today’s young people to succeed academically, some people
believe that non-academic subjects at school (eg: physical education and cookery)
should be removed from the syllabus so that children can concentrate wholly on
academic subjects.
To what extent do you agree or disagree?
You should write at least 250 words.
Academic Test 1; Page 20
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ACADEMIC SPEAKING PRACTICE TEST 1
Section 1
*
*
*
Tell me about your family.
Where do they live?
What do you like doing when you are with your family?
Topic 1
*
*
*
*
What sorts of things do you do to keep healthy?
What other sorts of things are popular in your country to keep healthy?
What sorts of exercise do you not like doing?
How can we get young people to do more exercise?
Topic 2
*
*
*
*
Health and Exercise
Music
What is your favourite type of music and why?
Do you think that a country’s traditional music is important for its culture? (Why?)
Why do people’s tastes in music often change as they get older?
What are some of the different uses of music in your country?
Section 2
Describe your favourite film or television programme
You should say:
when you watch it
who is in it
what happens in it
and explain why you particularly like it
Section 3
Topic 1
*
*
*
*
Why do you think television has become so popular over the last 50 years?
Do you think that there is still a future for radio with television being so popular?
Which is better for presenting the news: television or radio? (Why?)
How can we stop young people today watching too much television?
Topic 2
*
*
*
*
TV and Radio
Films and Cinema
Can you compare television and cinema as forms of entertainment?
Do people in your country prefer American films or films from their part of the World?
How do you think World cinema will develop over the next 50 years?
Do you feel that “film stars” are overpaid for what they do?
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ieltshelpnow.com ACADEMIC MODULE
PRACTICE TEST 2
ACADEMIC LISTENING PRACTICE TEST 2
SECTION 1 Questions 1 - 10
Questions 1 - 6
Circle the correct letters A - C.
Example
Mr. Griffin is coming for...
A
B
C
1
Mr. Griffin has been to the Sunrise Hotel..
A
B
C
2
Melbourne.
Sydney.
Perth.
Mr. Griffin’s passport number is...
A
B
C
4
once previously.
twice previously.
three times previously.
Mr. Griffin is from...
A
B
C
3
a holiday.
a business trip.
to see family.
87647489.
87637289.
87637489.
Mr. Griffin wants to book...
A
B
C
a single room for 2 nights.
a double room for 2 nights.
a single room for 1 night.
Academic Test 2; Page 1
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5
Mr. Griffin will arrive at the Sunrise Hotel at...
A
B
C
6
9.15 pm.
10.00 pm.
9.35 pm.
When he gets to the Sunrise Hotel, The food Mr. Griffin will find in his room will be...
A
B
C
a cheese sandwich with fries.
a cheese sandwich.
a burger.
Questions 7 - 10
Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS OR A NUMBER for each answer.
7
What number room will Mr. Griffin be in at the Sunrise Hotel?
__________________
8
How much will Mr. Griffin pay per night at the Sunrise Hotel?
$_________________
9
Who will take Mr. Griffin’s food to his room?
__________________________________________________________
10
How much will Mr. Griffin pay for his food?
$_________________
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SECTION 2 Questions 11 - 20
Questions 11 - 15
Complete the descriptions below.
Below are descriptions that Police have released for the two men wanted in connection with the
robbery at the local jewellery store, Nicholls.
PHOTOFIT PICTURES TO BE RELEASED LATER TODAY
Man 1
Height
Build
Hair
Face
Age
Clothing
Man 2
(11) ___________
Slight
Dark
Small moustache
Early 20s
Blue jeans
White t-shirt
(12) ___________
Motorbike helmet
Height
Build
Hair
Face
Age
Clothing
5 foot 8
(13) ___________
Red
(14) ___________
(15) ___________
Dark blue sweater
Black jeans
Motorbike helmet
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Questions 16 - 20
Complete the sentences below.
Write NO MORE THAN 3 WORDS for each answer.
*
CompTec blamed the job losses on reduced sales and (16) _____________________
_________________________.
*
The airport route expansion will result in a (17) _________________________ of new jobs.
*
The Oakley Woods development project was opposed by local residents
and local (18) _____________________________________. George Finchly, the Westley
(19) __________________________, gave the news to the media.
*
East Moors CC will play their final on Sunday (20) _______________________ August.
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SECTION 3 Questions 21 - 30
Questions 21 - 26
Complete the admission tutor’s notes below.
Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.
ADMISSION TUTOR’S NOTES
Student’s Name
Robert Johnson
Subject to study
(21) _________________________________________________
Why this subject
Always interested
Father’s field
At school, good at mathematics and (22) ____________________
Gap year
Worked and travelled in Australia and New Zealand
Jobs during Gap Year
(23) _________________________________________________
Pub work
(24) _________________________________________________
Building site
Why Westley University
Department has (25) ___________________________________
Graduates from Westley get jobs in industry quickly
Near Snowdonia for (26) ________________________________
Likes football - Westley has lots of teams
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Questions 27 - 30
Complete Robert’s notes below.
Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.
ROBERT JOHNSON’S NOTES
Type of Course
(27) _______________________________ (3rd year in industry)
Assessment
Year 1
5 exams
Year 2
(28) _________________________________
Year 3
No assessment
Year 4
Dissertation of (29) _______________________________
8 final exams during (30) __________________________
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SECTION 4 Questions 31 - 40
Questions 31 - 33
Complete the sentences below.
Write NO MORE THAN 3 WORDS for each answer.
31
The lecture will be useful for any students who are writing ___________________________
_________________________________.
32
Modernised countries are described by the speaker as now being ____________________
_________________________________.
33
The size of a sample depends on the __________________________________________
required.
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Questions 34 - 40
Complete the notes below.
Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.
Survey Size
Depends on statistical quality needed and total population size
A 1000 individual survey can reflect the total population
Types of Survey
Mail
Telephone
In-Person
Street Interview
Survey Content
Advantages
(34) _____________________
Good for particular groups
Good for when time and survey
length are limited
Good for collecting complex
information
Disadvantages
Not good for decent response
rate
(35) _____________________
Can mean lots of
(36) _____________________
(37) _____________________ Not scientific sampling
Questions can ask about: opinions and attitudes
factual characteristics or behaviour
Questions can be open-ended or (38) _________________________
Questions can be from 5 mins long to 1 hour +
Survey can be (39) ____________________________ - interviewees
can be questioned on 2 or more occasions
Ethics
Results must not be used commercially
Individuals should not be mentioned
Results should be in (40) ___________________________________
ie: statistical tables or charts
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ACADEMIC READING PRACTICE TEST 2
READING PASSAGE 1
Questions 1 - 14
You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 1 – 14 which are based on
Reading Passage 1 below.
DIABETES
Here are some facts that you probably didn’t know about diabetes. It is the
world’s fastest growing disease. It is Australia’s 6th leading cause of death. Over 1
million Australians have it though 50% of those are as yet unaware. Every 10 minutes
someone is diagnosed with diabetes. So much for the facts but what exactly is diabetes?
Diabetes is the name given to a group of different conditions in which there is too much
glucose in the blood. Here’s what happens: the body needs glucose as its main source of fuel or
energy. The body makes glucose from foods containing carbohydrate such as vegetables containing
carbohydrate (like potatoes or corn) and cereal foods (like bread, pasta and rice) as well as fruit
and milk. Glucose is carried around the body in the blood and the glucose level is called glycaemia.
Glycaemia (blood sugar levels) in humans and animals must be neither too high nor too low, but
just right. The glucose running around in the blood stream now has to get out of the blood and into
the body tissues. This is where insulin enters the story. Insulin is a hormone made by the pancreas,
a gland sitting just below the stomach. Insulin opens the doors that let glucose go from the blood
to the body cells where energy is made. This process is called glucose metabolism. In diabetes,
the pancreas either cannot make insulin or the insulin it does make is not enough and cannot work
properly. Without insulin doing its job, the glucose channels are shut. Glucose builds up in the
blood leading to high blood glucose levels, which causes the health problems linked to diabetes.
People refer to the disease as diabetes but there are actually two distinctive types of the
disease. Type 1 diabetes is a condition characterized by high blood glucose levels caused by a
total lack of insulin. It occurs when the body’s immune system attacks the insulin-producing beta
cells in the pancreas and destroys them. The pancreas then produces little or no insulin. Type 1
diabetes develops most often in young people but can appear in adults. Type 2 diabetes is the most
common form of diabetes. In type 2 diabetes, either the body does not produce enough insulin
or the cells ignore the insulin. Insulin is necessary for the body to be able to use sugar. Sugar is
the basic fuel for the cells in the body, and insulin takes the sugar from the blood into the cells.
The diagnosis of diabetes often depends on what type the patient is suffering from. In Type 1
diabetes, symptoms are usually sudden and sometimes even life threatening - hyperglycaemia (high
blood sugar levels) can lead to comas – and therefore it is mostly diagnosed quite quickly. In Type 2
diabetes, many people have no symptoms at all, while other signs can go unnoticed, being seen as part
of ‘getting older’. Therefore, by the time symptoms are noticed, the blood glucose level for many people
can be very high. Common symptoms include: being more thirsty than usual, passing more urine,
feeling lethargic, always feeling hungry, having cuts that heal slowly, itching, skin infections, bad breath,
blurred vision, unexplained weight change, mood swings, headaches, feeling dizzy and leg cramps.
At present there is no cure for diabetes, but there is a huge amount of research looking
for a cure and to provide superior management techniques and products until a cure is found.
Whether it’s Type 1 or Type 2 diabetes, the aim of any diabetes treatment is to get your blood
glucose levels as close to the non-diabetic range as often as possible. For people with Type 1
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diabetes, this will mean insulin injections every day plus leading a healthy lifestyle. For people
with Type 2 diabetes, healthy eating and regular physical activity may be all that is required at
first: sometimes tablets and/or insulin may be needed later on. Ideally blood glucose levels are
kept as close to the non-diabetic range as possible so frequent self-testing is a good idea. This
will help prevent the short-term effects of very low or very high blood glucose levels as well as
the possible long-term problems. If someone is dependent on insulin, it has to be injected into the
body. Insulin cannot be taken as a pill. The insulin would be broken down during digestion just like
the protein in food. Insulin must be injected into the fat under your skin for it to get into your blood.
Diabetes can cause serious complications for patients. When glucose builds up in the blood instead
of going into cells, it can cause problems. Short term problems are similar to the symptoms but long
term high blood sugar levels can lead to heart attacks, strokes, kidney failure, amputations and
blindness. Having your blood pressure and cholesterol outside recommended ranges can also lead
to problems like heart attack and stroke and in fact 2 out of 3 people with diabetes eventually die
of these complications. Young adults age 18 - 44 who get type 2 diabetes are 14 times more likely
to suffer a heart attack, and are up to 30 times more likely to have a stroke than their peers without
diabetes. Young women account for almost all the increase in heart attack risk, while young men are
twice as likely to suffer a stroke as young women. This means that huge numbers of people are going
to get heart disease, heart attacks and strokes years, sometimes even decades, before they should.
Questions 1 - 7
Do the following statements reflect the views of the writer in Reading Passage 1?
In boxes 1 - 7 on your answer sheet write:
YES
if the statement agrees with the information
NO
if the statement contradicts the statement
NOT GIVEN
if there is no information on this in the passage
1
Carbohydrate foods are the body’s source of glucose.
2
Diabetics cannot produce insulin.
3
Some patients develop diabetes due to faults in their own immune
systems
4
Hyperglycaemia leads to type 1 diabetes being diagnosed quite quickly.
5
Artificial insulin is the most effective treatment for those patients
requiring insulin.
6
Frequent check ups at the doctor can drastically reduce the chances of
suffering from problems related to diabetes.
7
The majority of diabetics develop heart problems or suffer strokes.
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Questions 8 - 11
Complete the following statements with the best ending from the box on the next
page
Write the appropriate letters A - H in boxes 8 - 11 on your answer sheet.
8
Bizarre as it may seem, many people with diabetes…
9
Insulin is a hormone that allows glucose to be absorbed by…
10
Non severe type 2 diabetes can be solely treated by…
11
Increases in diabetes related heart problems are mainly seen in…
A
a healthy lifestyle.
B
never suffer any ill effects.
C
women.
D
people also suffering strokes.
E
body cells.
F
the pancreas.
G
do not realise the fact.
H
injections.
Questions 12 - 14
According to the text which of the following are symptoms of diabetes?
Choose THREE letters (A – G) and write them in boxes 12 – 14 on your answer
sheet.
A
B
C
D
E
F
G
hot flushes
muscle pains
nausea
losing consciousness
tiredness
bleeding gums
dilation of the eyes
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READING PASSAGE 2
Questions 15 - 27
You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 15 – 27 which are based on
Reading Passage 2 on the following pages.
Contaminating the Arctic
Our perception of the Arctic region is that its distance from industrial centers keeps it pristine
and clear from the impact of pollution. However, through a process known as transboundary
pollution, the Arctic is the recipient of contaminants whose sources are thousands of miles away.
Large quantities of pollutants pour into our atmosphere, as well as our lakes, rivers, and oceans
on a daily basis. In the last 20 years, scientists have detected an increasing variety of toxic
contaminants in the North, including pesticides from agriculture, chemicals and heavy metals from
industry, and even radioactive fall-out from Chernobyl. These are substances that have invaded
ecosystems virtually worldwide, but they are especially worrisome in the Arctic.
Originally, Arctic contamination was largely blamed on chemical leaks, and these leaks were
thought to be “small and localized.” The consensus now is that pollutants from around the world
are being carried north by rivers, ocean currents, and atmospheric circulation. Due to extreme
conditions in the Arctic, including reduced sunlight, extensive ice cover and cold temperatures,
contaminants break down much more slowly than in warmer climates. Contaminants can also
become highly concentrated due to their significantly lengthened life span in the Arctic.
Problems of spring run-off into coastal waters during the growth period of marine life are of
critical concern. Spring algae blooms easily, absorbing the concentrated contaminants released
by spring melting. These algae are in turn eaten by zooplankton and a wide variety of marine
life. The accumulation of these contaminants increases with each step of the food chain or web
and can potentially affect northerners who eat marine mammals near the top of the food chain.
Pollutants respect no borders; transboundary pollution is the movement of contaminants across
political borders, whether by air, rivers, or ocean currents. The eight circumpolar nations, led by
the Finnish Initiative of 1989, established the Arctic Environmental Protection Strategy (AEPS) in
which participants have agreed to develop an Arctic Monitoring and Assessment Program (AMAP).
AMAP establishes an international scientific network to monitor the current condition of the Arctic
with respect to specific contaminants. This monitoring program is extremely important because it
will give a scientific basis for understanding the scope of the problem.
In the 1950’s, pilots traveling on weather reconnaissance flights in the Canadian high Arctic
reported seeing bands of haze in the springtime in the Arctic region. It was during this time that
the term “Arctic haze” was first used, referring to this smog of unknown origin. But it was not
until 1972, that Dr. Glenn Shaw of the Geophysical Institute at the University of Alaska first put
forth ideas of the nature and long-range origin of Arctic haze. The idea that the source was long
range was very difficult for many to support. Each winter, cold, dense air settles over the Arctic.
In the darkness, the Arctic seems to become more and more polluted by a buildup of mid-latitude
emissions from fossil fuel combustion, smelting and other industrial processes. By late winter, the
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Arctic is covered by a layer of this haze the size of the continent of Africa. When the spring light
arrives in the Arctic, there is a smog-like haze, which makes the region, at times, looks like pollution
over such cities as Los Angeles.
This polluted air is a well-known and well-characterized feature of the late winter Arctic
environment. In the North American Arctic, episodes of brown or black snow have been traced to
continental storm tracks that deliver gaseous and particulate-associated contaminants from Asian
deserts and agricultural areas. It is now known that the contaminants originate largely from Europe
and Asia.
Arctic haze has been studied most extensively in Point Barrow, Alaska, across the Canadian Arctic
and in Svalbard (Norway). Evidence from ice cores drilled from the ice sheet of Greenland indicates
that these haze particles were not always present in the Arctic, but began to appear only in the last
century. The Arctic haze particles appear to be similar to smog particles observed in industrial areas
farther south, consisting mostly of sulfates mixed with particles of carbon. It is believed the particles
are formed when gaseous sulfur dioxide produced by burning sulfur-bearing coal is irradiated by
sunlight and oxidized to sulfate, a process catalyzed by trace elements in the air. These sulfate
particles or droplets of sulfuric acid quickly capture the carbon particles, which are also floating in
the air. Pure sulfate particles or droplets are colourless, so it is believed the darkness of the haze is
caused by the mixed-in carbon particles.
The impact of the haze on Arctic ecosystems, as well as the global environment, has not been
adequately researched. The pollutants have only been studied in their aerosol form over the Arctic.
However, little is known about what eventually happens to them. It is known that they are removed
somehow. There is a good degree of likelihood that the contaminants end up in the ocean, likely
into the North Atlantic, the Norwegian Sea and possibly the Bering Sea — all three very important
fisheries.
Currently, the major issue among researchers is to understand the impact of Arctic haze on global
climate change. The contaminants absorb sunlight and, in turn, heat up the atmosphere. The global
impact of this is currently unknown but the implications are quite powerful.
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Questions 15 - 27
Read the passage about alternative farming methods in Oregon again and look at
the statements below.
In boxes 15 - 21 on your answer sheet write:
TRUE
if the statement is true
FALSE
if the statement is false
NOT GIVEN
if the information is not given in the
advertisement
15
Industry in the Arctic has increased over the last 20 years.
16
Arctic conditions mean that the break down of pollutants is much accelerated
17
Pollution absorbed by arctic algae can eventually affect humans.
18
The AEPS has set up scientific stations in the Arctic to monitor pollution.
19
Arctic pollution can sometimes resemble US urban pollution.
20
Evidence that this smog has only occurred in the 20th Century has been found in
the ice on the polar ice cap.
21
Research has shown that aerosol arctic pollutants remain the air indefinitely.
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Questions 22 – 27
Complete the summary relating to Arctic Haze below.
Choose your answers from the box below the summary and write them in boxes
22 – 27 on your answer sheet.
NB
There are more words than spaces, so you will not use them at all.
Example
Answer
____________ that the origins of spring, arctic haze,
first seen over the ice cap...
Theories
(eg) ______________________ that the origins of spring, arctic haze, first seen over
the ice cap in the 1950s, came from far away were at first not (22) _______________
_______. This haze is a smog formed in the dark, arctic winter by pollution delivered to
the Arctic by storms (23) ______________________ in Europe and Asia. It is known to
be a recent phenomenon as proof from (24) ______________________ shows it only
starting to occur in the 20th Century. The smog consists of sulphates and carbon, the
latter creating the (25) ______________________ of the haze. Due to lack of research,
the final destination of the pollution is unknown but it probably ends up in the (26)
______________________ and therefore into the food chain. Scientists are presently
more worried about the (27) ______________________ effect it has on climate change.
burning
terrible
ice cores
valid
certain
originating
sea
destroying
theories
unknown
agriculture
decided
bird life
dissipating
accepted
gases
darkness
air
density
Academic Test 2; Page 15
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READING PASSAGE 3
Questions 28 - 40
You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 28 – 40 which are based on
Reading Passage 3 below.
THE STORY OF COFFEE
A
Coffee was first discovered in Eastern Africa in an area we know today as Ethiopia. A popular
legend refers to a goat herder by the name of Kaldi, who observed his goats acting unusually
friskily after eating berries from a bush. Curious about this phenomenon, Kaldi tried eating the
berries himself. He found that these berries gave him renewed energy.
B
The news of this energy laden fruit quickly moved throughout the region. Coffee berries were
transported from Ethiopia to the Arabian Peninsula, and were first cultivated in what today is the
country of Yemen. Coffee remained a secret in Arabia before spreading to Turkey and then to the
European continent by means of Venetian trade merchants.
C
Coffee was first eaten as a food though later people in Arabia would make a drink out of boiling the
beans for its narcotic effects and medicinal value. Coffee for a time was known as Arabian wine
to Muslims who were banned from alcohol by Islam. It was not until after coffee had been eaten
as a food product, a wine and a medicine that it was discovered, probably by complete accident
in Turkey, that by roasting the beans a delicious drink could be made. The roasted beans were
first crushed, and then boiled in water, creating a crude version of the beverage we enjoy today.
The first coffee houses were opened in Europe in the 17th Century and in 1675, the Viennese
established the habit of refining the brew by filtering out the grounds, sweetening it, and adding a
dash of milk.
D
If you were to explore the planet for coffee, you would find about 60 species of coffee plants
growing wild in Africa, Malaysia, and other regions. But only about ten of them are actually
cultivated. Of these ten, two species are responsible for almost all the coffee produced in the
world: Coffea Arabica and Coffea Canephora (usually known as Robusta). Because of ecological
differences existing among the various coffee producing countries, both types have undergone
many mutations and now exist in many sub species.
E
Although wild plants can reach 10 - 12 metres in height, the plantation one reaches a height of
around four metres. This makes the harvest and flowering easier, and cultivation more economical.
The flowers are white and sweet-scented like the Spanish jasmine. Flowers give way to a red,
darkish berry. At first sight, the fruit is like a big cherry both in size and in colour. The berry is
coated with a thin, red film (epicarp) containing a white, sugary mucilaginous flesh (mesocarp).
Inside the pulp there are the seeds in the form of two beans coupled at their flat surface. Beans
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are in turn coated with a kind of resistant, golden yellow parchment, (called endocarp). When
peeled, the real bean appears with another very thin silvery film. The bean is bluish green verging
on bronze, and is at the most 11 millimetres long and 8 millimetres wide.
F
Coffee plants need special conditions to give a satisfactory crop. The climate needs to be hot-wet
or hot temperate, between the Tropic of Cancer and the Tropic of Capricorn, with frequent rains
and temperatures varying from 15 to 25 Degrees C. The soil should be deep, hard, permeable,
well irrigated, with well-drained subsoil. The best lands are the hilly ones or from just-tilled woods.
The perfect altitude is between 600 and 1200 metres, though some varieties thrive at 2000-2200
metres. Cultivation aimed at protecting the plants at every stage of growth is needed. Sowing
should be in sheltered nurseries from which, after about six months, the seedlings should be
moved to plantations in the rainy season where they are usually alternated with other plants to
shield them from wind and excessive sunlight. Only when the plant is five years old can it be
counted upon to give a regular yield. This is between 400 grams and two kilos of arabica beans for
each plant, and 600 grams and two kilos for robusta beans.
G
Harvesting time depends on the geographic situation and it can vary greatly therefore according
to the various producing countries. First the ripe beans are picked from the branches. Pickers can
selectively pick approximately 250 to 300 pounds of coffee cherry a day. At the end of the day, the
pickers bring their heavy burlap bags to pulping mills where the cherry coffee can be pulped (or
wet milled). The pulped beans then rest, covered in pure rainwater to ferment overnight. The next
day the wet beans are hand-distributed upon the drying floor to be sun dried. This drying process
takes from one to two weeks depending on the amount of sunny days available. To make sure
they dry evenly, the beans need to be raked many times during this drying time. Two weeks later
the sun dried beans, now called parchment, are scooped up, bagged and taken to be milled. Huge
milling machines then remove the parchment and silver skin, which renders a green bean suitable
for roasting. The green beans are roasted according to the customers’ specifications and, after
cooling, the beans are then packaged and mailed to customers.
Source: Sovrana Trading (Lavazza Coffee)
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Questions 28 - 33
The reading passage on The Story of Coffee has 7 paragraphs A – G.
From the list of headings below choose the most suitable headings for
paragraphs B – G.
Write the appropriate number (i – xi) in boxes 28 – 33 on your answer sheet.
NB
There are more headings than paragraphs, so you will not use them all.
i
Growing Coffee
ii
Problems with Manufacture
iii
Processing the Bean
iv
First Contact
v
Arabian Coffee
vi
Coffee Varieties
vii
Modern Coffee
viii
The Spread of Coffee
ix
Consuming Coffee
x
Climates for Coffee
xi
The Coffee Plant
Example
Answer
Paragraph A
iv
28
Paragraph B
29
Paragraph C
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30
Paragraph D
31
Paragraph E
32
Paragraph F
33
Paragraph G
Questions 34 - 36
Complete the labels on the diagram of a coffee bean below.
Choose your answers from the text and write them in boxes 34 - 36 on your answer
sheet.
(35) ________________
(34) ________________
(36) ________________
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Questions 37 – 40
Using the information in the passage, complete the flow chart below.
Write your answers in boxes 37 – 40 on your answer sheet.
Use NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS from the passage for each answer.
The Coffee Production Process
The coffee (eg) ____________ is picked by hand and
delivered to mills.
Answer
cherry
The coffee cherry is pulped or (37) _________________________________.
The pulped beans are left (38) _________________ to ferment in pure water.
The wet beans are sun dried for one or 2 weeks to make parchment – they are
(39) _________________________ often to ensure an even drying procedure.
The parchment is then bagged and taken to be milled to make the green beans.
The green beans are then roasted to (40) ________________________________.
The roasted beans are cooled.
The finished product is packaged and mailed to the customer.
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ACADEMIC WRITING PRACTICE TEST 2
WRITING TASK 1
You should spend about 20 minutes on this task.
The chart below shows how the UK unemployed spent their time in the year 1982.
Write a report for a university lecturer describing the information below.
You should write at least 150 words.
How the Unemployed Spend their Time, UK, 1982
morning
men
%
Housework
19
Shopping
20
Job hunting
22
Visiting friends 6
or relatives
Gardening
14
TV
4
Reading
9
Decorating
7
Walking
5
Nothing/Sitting 3
around
Staying in bed 8
Visiting town
5
Playing sport
4
Drinking
2
morning
women
%
49
26
16
10
afternoon
men
%
7
9
12
12
afternoon
women
%
21
17
13
17
2
2
5
3
3
3
13
14
8
7
8
9
3
12
10
2
2
6
8
7
1
1
1
3
4
3
0
4
0
1
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WRITING TASK 2
You should spend about 40 minutes on this task.
Do you believe that experimentation on animals for scientific purposes is justified.
Are there any alternatives to animal experimentation?
You should write at least 250 words.
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ACADEMIC SPEAKING PRACTICE TEST 2
Section 1
*
*
*
Tell me about the part of the country where you live.
What are the main ways of earning money in this area?
What are some of the advantages and disadvantages of living in this area?
Topic 1
*
*
*
*
Where have you studied English?
What do you find most difficult about studying English?
What’s the best way for you to study English?
How can speaking English well help you in your life?
Topic 2
*
*
*
*
Studying English
Transport
What is the best way to get around the place where you live?
How would you improve transport in your town or area?
How does transport cause pollution?
Do people prefer using public or private transport in your country?
Section 2
Describe what you think would be the perfect holiday.
You should say:
where it would be
what activities you would do
how long it would last
and explain why this holiday would be perfect for you.
Section 3
Topic 1
*
*
*
*
What are some of the best places in your country for a tourist to visit?
What are some of the advantages and disadvantages that tourism brings to an area?
Could you compare the tourism industry in your country today with that of 50 years
ago?
What factors do you think could limit the expansion of tourism in the future?
Topic 2
*
*
*
*
Tourism
Holidays
Why do you think people need holidays?
How much holiday a year do you think a person needs?
How have people’s expectations about holidays changed over the last 50 years?
How do you think holidays will change in the next 50 years?
Academic Test 2; Page 23
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ieltshelpnow.com ACADEMIC MODULE
PRACTICE TEST 3
ACADEMIC LISTENING PRACTICE TEST 3
SECTION 1 Questions 1 - 10
Questions 1 - 5
Complete the form below.
Write NO MORE THAN ONE WORD OR A NUMBER for each answer.
WESTLEY PUBLIC LIBRARY
MEMBERSHIP APPLICATION FORM
Example
Answer
NAME
Camden
FIRST NAME
Peter
ADDRESS
Flat 5
53 (1) _________________________________
Finsbury
POSTCODE
(2) ____________________________________
DATE OF BIRTH
8th July (3) _____________________________
HOME TEL
None
MOBILE TEL
(4) ____________________________________
PROOF OF RESIDENCE PROVIDED
(5) ____________________________________
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Questions 6 - 8
Circle THREE letters A - F.
What type of books does Peter like?
A
B
C
D
E
F
Wildlife books
Romance books
Travel books
Historical novels
Science Fiction novels
Mystery books
Questions 9 and 10
Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS OR A NUMBER for each answer.
9
How much does it cost to join the library?
_________________________________
10
How much does it cost to rent a DVD?
_________________________________
Academic Test 3; Page 2
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SECTION 2 Questions 11 - 20
Questions 11 - 14
List FOUR reasons given for people needing blood transfusions.
Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS OR A NUMBER for each answer.
Write your answers in boxes 11 - 14 on your answer sheet.
11
____________________________________________________________
12
____________________________________________________________
13
____________________________________________________________
14
____________________________________________________________
Questions 15 - 20
Complete the 2 sets of notes below.
Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS OR A NUMBER for each answer.
Blood
Types of Blood
O, A, B + AB
Component Parts
PART
red blood cells
white blood cells
platelets
plasma
USED FOR
(15) __________________________ to cells
help patients’ (16) ______________________
_____________________________________
blood clotting
(17) ________________________ the other
blood parts
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GIVING BLOOD
DAYS
Wednesday + next 2 days
WHERE
Westley General Hospital, (18) ___________________________
Department
WHEN
Between 9.00am and (19) ___________________________
MUST
be healthy
be (20) ______________________ or over
weigh more than 110 pounds
have had no tattoos this year
not have donated blood within past 56 days
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SECTION 3 Questions 21 - 30
Questions 21 - 27
Complete the notes below.
Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS OR A NUMBER for each answer.
Computer Labs
The 4 labs below can be used by undergraduates. Other computer labs can only be
used by postgraduates and (21) _________________________
Lab Locations
Wimborne
Franklin
Salisbury
Court
Johnson Building
Computer Sciences Building
(22) ____________________
Johnson Building
Reservations
(23) ________________ a day unless computers are free
Write reservation in book (24) ________________
(Penalty for erasing someone else’s reservation - 1 year ban)
User Name
jamessmith2
Password
(25) _________________
Printing
Pick up print outs from (26) ______________ in Franklin
Costs (27) ________________
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Questions 28 - 30
Choose the correct letters A - C.
28
The introductory computer course that James decides to take is...
A
B
C
29
The computer laboratory for James’ introductory computer course is in...
A
B
C
30
beginner.
intermediate.
advanced.
Wimborne
Franklin
Court
James will take his introductory computer course...
A
B
C
on Thursday at 2.00pm.
on Tuesday at 4.30pm.
on Tuesday at 5.00pm
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SECTION 4 Questions 31 - 40
Questions 31 - 35
Complete the notes below.
Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS OR A NUMBER for each answer.
The Shinkansen or Bullet Train
Safety
No deaths (bar 1 from passenger misadventure) since its
launch in (31) ___________________________.
Speed
Holds world train record for (32) _______________________
of 261.8 kph.
500 series Nozumi’s fastest speed is 300kph.
Punctuality
Punctual to within the second.
All bullet trains for 1 year were a total of (33) __________ late.
History
First used on Tokyo to Osaka route.
Old models have now been retired.
300, 500 and 700 are recent models.
Services
Nozomi trains stop at the (34) _________________________.
Hikari stop more frequently.
Kodama trains stop at (35) ____________________________.
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Questions 36 - 40
Complete the sentences below.
Write NO MORE THAN 3 WORDS for each answer.
36
French TGV locomotives pull the TGV trains from both ends using a _______________.
37
Japanese ground is unsuitable for the TGV type of train because it is _______________
and the tracks frequently curve horizontally and vertically.
38
An extra advantage of the Japanese electric car system is that it can act as
a _______________.
39
Even after the power supply is cut off in the electric car system, electricity is still produced
by _______________.
40
Huge improvements in power, operability and safety administration have been made
possible by advances in _______________.
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ACADEMIC READING PRACTICE TEST 3
READING PASSAGE 1
Questions 1 - 14
You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 1 – 14 which are based on
Reading Passage 1 below.
Cleaning up The Thames
The River Thames, which was biologically “dead” as recently as the 1960s, is now
the cleanest metropolitan river in the world, according to the Thames Water Company. The
company says that thanks to major investment in better sewage treatment in London and the
Thames Valley, the river that flows through the United Kingdom capital and the Thames Estuary
into the North Sea is cleaner now than it has been for 130 years. The Fisheries Department,
who are responsible for monitoring fish levels in the River Thames, has reported that the
river has again become the home to 115 species of fish including sea bass, flounder, salmon,
smelt, and shad. Recently, a porpoise was spotted cavorting in the river near central London.
But things were not always so rosy. In the 1950s, sewer outflows and industrial effluent had
killed the river. It was starved of oxygen and could no longer support aquatic life. Until the early 1970s,
if you fell into the Thames you would have had to be rushed to hospital to get your stomach pumped. A
clean-up operation began in the 1960s. Several Parliamentary Committees and Royal Commissions
were set up, and, over time, legislation has been introduced that put the onus on polluters - effluentproducing premises and businesses - to dispose of waste responsibly. In 1964 the Greater London
Council (GLC) began work on greatly enlarged sewage works, which were completed in 1974.
The Thames clean up is not over though. It is still going on, and it involves many disparate
arms of government and a wide range of non-government stakeholder groups, all representing a
necessary aspect of the task. In London’s case, the urban and non-urban London boroughs that
flank the river’s course each has its own reasons for keeping “their” river nice. And if their own
reasons do not hold out a sufficiently attractive carrot, the government also wields a compelling
stick. The 2000 Local Government Act requires each local borough to “prepare a community strategy
for promoting or improving the economic, social and environmental well-being of their area.” And
if your area includes a stretch of river, that means a sustainable river development strategy.
Further legislation aimed at improving and sustaining the river’s viability has been proposed.
There is now legislation that protects the River Thames, either specifically or as part of a general
environmental clause, in the Local Government Act, the London Acts, and the law that created the post
of the mayor of London. And these are only the tip of an iceberg that includes industrial, public health
and environmental protection regulations. The result is a wide range of bodies officially charged, in
one way or another, with maintaining the Thames as a public amenity. For example, Transport for
London - the agency responsible for transport in the capital - plays a role in regulating river use and
river users. They now are responsible forcontrolling the effluents and rubbish coming from craft using
the Thames. This is done by officers on official vessels regularly inspectiing craft and doing spot
checks. Another example is how Thames Water (TW) has now been charged to reduce the amount
of litter that finds its way into the tidal river and its tributaries. TW’s environment and quality manager,
Dr. Peter Spillett, said: “This project will build on our investment which has dramatically improved the
water quality of the river. London should not be spoiled by litter which belongs in the bin not the river.”
Thousands of tons of rubbish end up in the river each year, from badly stored waste, people throwing
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litter off boats, and rubbish in the street being blown or washed into the river. Once litter hits the water
it becomes too heavy to be blown away again and therefore the rivers act as a sink in the system.
While the Port of London already collects up to 3,000 tons of solid waste from the tideway every year,
Thames Water now plans to introduce a new device to capture more rubbish floating down the river.
It consists of a huge cage that sits in the flow of water and gathers the passing rubbish. Moored just
offshore in front of the Royal Naval College at Greenwich, south-east London, the device is expected
to capture up to 20 tons of floating litter each year. If washed out to sea, this rubbish can kill marine
mammals, fish and birds. This machine, known as the Rubbish Muncher, is hoped to be the first of
many, as the TW is now looking for sponsors to pay for more cages elsewhere along the Thames.
Monitoring of the cleanliness of the River Thames in the past was the responsibility of a welter
of agencies - British Waterways, Port of London Authority, the Environment Agency, the Health
and Safety Commission, Thames Water – as well as academic departments and national and
local environment groups. If something was not right, someone was bound to call foul and hold
somebody to account, whether it was the local authority, an individual polluter or any of the many
public and private sector bodies that bore a share of the responsibility for maintaining the River
Thames as a public amenity. Although they will all still have their part to play, there is now a
central department in the Environment Agency, which has the remit of monitoring the Thames.
This centralisation of accountability will, it is hoped, lead to more efficient control and enforcement.
Source: US Water News 2000
Questions 1 - 6
Some of the actions taken to clean up the River Thames are listed below.
The writer gives these actions as examples of things that have been done by various
agencies connected with the River Thames.
Match each action with the agency responsible for doing it.
Write the appropriate letters (A - G) in boxes 1 - 6 on your answer sheet.
Actions to Clean up the River Thames
A
Operating the Rubbish Muncher
B
Creating Community Strategies
C
Monitoring the Cleanliness of the River Thames
D
Monitoring Fish Levels
E
Collecting Solid Waste from the Tideway
F
Creating Enlarged Sewage Works
G
Controlling the River Thames’ Traffic
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Example
The Fisheries Department
1
The Environment Agency
2
Transport for London
3
The Greater London Council
4
Thames Water
5
Port of London
6
Local Boroughs
Answer
D
Questions 7 - 14
Do the following statements agree with the views of the writer of the reading
passage on Cleaning up the Thames?
In Boxes 7 - 14 write:
YES
if the statement agrees with the writer
NO
if the statement doesn’t agree with the writer
NOT GIVEN
if it is impossible to say what the writer thinks about this
7
The Thames is now cleaner that it was in 1900.
8
Swimming in the Thames now poses no health hazards.
9
It is now mainly the responsibility of those who pollute the Thames to clean their waste up.
10
All local London boroughs are now partly responsible for keeping the Thames clean.
11
Transport for London now employs a type of River Police to enforce control of their
regulations.
12
Rubbish Munchers are now situated at various locations on the Thames.
13
Previously no one department had overall responsibility or control for monitoring the
cleanliness of the Thames.
14
British Waterways will no longer have any part in keeping the Thames clean.
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READING PASSAGE 2
Questions 15 - 27
You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 15 – 27 which are based on
Reading Passage 2 on the following pages.
If it weren’t for nicotine, people wouldn’t smoke tobacco. Why? Because of the more than
4000 chemicals in tobacco smoke, nicotine is the primary one that acts on the brain, altering
people’s moods, appetites and alertness in ways they find pleasant and beneficial. Unfortunately,
as it is widely known, nicotine has a dark side: it is highly addictive. Once smokers become hooked
on it, they must get their fix of it regularly, sometimes several dozen times a day. Cigarette smoke
contains 43 known carcinogens, which means that long-term smoking can amount to a death
sentence. In the US alone, 420,000 Americans die every year from tobacco-related illnesses.
Breaking nicotine addiction is not easy. Each year, nearly 35 million people make a
concerted effort to quit smoking. Sadly, less than 7 percent succeed in abstaining for more than a
year; most start smoking again within days. So what is nicotine and how does it insinuate itself into
the smoker’s brain and very being?
The nicotine found in tobacco is a potent drug and smokers, and even some scientists,
say it offers certain benefits. One is enhance performance. One study found that non-smokers
given doses of nicotine typed about 5 percent faster than they did without it. To greater or lesser
degrees, users also say nicotine helps them to maintain concentration, reduce anxiety, relieve
pain, and even dampen their appetites (thus helping in weight control). Unfortunately, nicotine can
also produce deleterious effects beyond addiction. At high doses, as are achieved from tobacco
products, it can cause high blood pressure, distress in the respiratory and gastrointestinal systems
and an increase in susceptibility to seizures and hypothermia.
First isolated as a compound in 1828, in its pure form nicotine is a clear liquid that turns
brown when burned and smells like tobacco when exposed to air. It is found in several species of
plants, including tobacco and, perhaps surprisingly, in tomatoes, potatoes, and eggplant (though in
extremely low quantities that are pharmacologically insignificant for humans).
As simple as it looks, the cigarette is highly engineered nicotine delivery device. For
instance, when tobacco researchers found that much of the nicotine in a cigarette wasn’t released
when burned but rather remained chemically bound within the tobacco leaf, they began adding
substances such as ammonia to cigarette tobacco to release more nicotine. Ammonia helps
keep nicotine in its basic form, which is more readily vaporised by the intense heat of the burning
cigarette than the acidic form. Most cigarettes for sale in the US today contain 10 milligrams
or more of nicotine. By inhaling smoke from a lighted cigarette, the average smoker takes 1 or
2 milligrams of vaporised nicotine per cigarette. Today we know that only a miniscule amount
of nicotine is needed to fuel addiction. Research shows that manufacturers would have to cut
nicotine levels in a typical cigarette by 95% to forestall its power to addict. When a smoker puffs
on a lighted cigarette, smoke, including vaporised nicotine, is drawn into the mouth. The skin and
lining of the mouth immediately absorb some nicotine, but the remainder flows straight down into
the lungs, where it easily diffuses into the blood vessels lining the lung walls. The blood vessels
carry the nicotine to the heart, which then pumps it directly to the brain. While most of the effects a
smoker seeks occur in the brain, the heart takes a hit as well. Studies have shown that a smoker’s
first cigarette of the day can increase his or her heart rate by 10 to 20 beats a minute. Scientists
have found that a smoked substance reaches the brain more quickly than one swallowed, snorted
(such as cocaine powder) or even injected. Indeed, a nicotine molecule inhaled in smoke will
reach the brain within 10 seconds. The nicotine travels through blood vessels, which branch out
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into capillaries within the brain. Capillaries normally carry nutrients but they readily accommodate
nicotine molecules as well. Once inside the brain, nicotine, like most addictive drugs, triggers the
release of chemicals associated with euphoria and pleasure.
Just as it moves rapidly from the lungs into the bloodstream, nicotine also easily diffuses
through capillary walls. It then migrates to the spaces surrounding neurones – ganglion cells that
transmit nerve impulses throughout the nervous system. These impulses are the basis for our
thoughts, feelings, and moods. To transmit nerve impulses to its neighbour, a neurone releases
chemical messengers known as neurotransmitters. Like nicotine molecules, the neurotransmitters
drift into the so-called synaptic space between neurones, ready to latch onto the receiving neurone
and thus deliver a chemical “message” that triggers an electrical impulse.
The neurotransmitters bind onto receptors on the surface of the recipient neurone. This
opens channels in the cell surface through which enter ions, or charged atoms, of sodium. This
generates a current across the membrane of the receiving cell, which completes delivery of the
“message”. An accomplished mimic, nicotine competes with the neurotransmitters to bind to the
receptors. It wins and, like the vanquished chemical, opens ion channels that let sodium ions into
the cell. But there’s a lot more nicotine around than the original transmitter, so a much larger current
spreads across the membrane. This bigger current causes increased electrical impulses to travel
along certain neurones. With repeated smoking, the neurones adapt to this increased electrical
activity, and the smoker becomes dependent on the nicotine.
Questions 15 - 21
Do the following statements agree with the views of the writer of Reading
Passage 2?
In Boxes 15 - 21 write:
YES
if the statement agrees with the writer
NO
if the statement doesn’t agree with the writer
NOT GIVEN
if it is impossible to say what the writer thinks about this
15
Although nicotine is probably the well-known chemical in cigarettes, it is not nessarily the
one that changes the psyche of the smoker when cigarettes are smoked.
16
In spite of the difficulties, according to the text more than thirty-five million people a
year give up smoking.
17
It has been shown that nicotine in cigarettes can improve people’s abillities to perform some
actions more quickly.
18
Added ammonia in cigarettes allows smokers to inhale more nicotine.
19
Snorted substances reach the brain faster than injected substances.
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20
Nicotine dilates the blood vessels that carry it around the body.
21
Nicotine molecules allow greater electrical charges to pass between neurones.
Questions 22 - 26
Using NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS OR A NUMBER from Reading Passage 2,
answer the following questions.
Write your answers in boxes 22 - 26 on your answer sheet.
22
What is the natural colour of nicotine?
23
By how much would cigarete companies have to cut the nicotine content in cigarettes to
prevent them from being addictive?
24
Name ONE of 2 things that first take nicotine into a smoker’s body?
25
According to the passage, by how many beats a minute can a cigarette raise a smoker’s
heart rate?
26
What type of cell in the human body encloses neurones?
Questions 27
From the list below choose the most suitable title for Reading Passage 2.
A
How to Quit Smoking
B
The Dangers of Smoking
C
Cell Biology
D
Why Smoking is Addictive
E
Nicotine is a Poison
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READING PASSAGE 3
Questions 28 - 40
You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 28 – 40 which are based on
Reading Passage 3.
Questions 28 - 32
The reading passage on Deer Farming In Australia has 5 paragraphs (A – E).
From the list of headings below choose the most suitable headings for paragraphs
A – E.
Write the appropriate number (i – viii) in boxes 28 – 32 on your answer sheet.
NB
There are more headings than paragraphs, so you will not use them all.
i
Industry Structures
ii
Disease Affects Production
iii
Trends in Production
iv
Government Assistance
v
How Deer Came to Australia
vi
Research and Development
vii
Asian Competition
viii
Industry Development
28
Paragraph A
29
Paragraph B
30
Paragraph C
31
Paragraph D
32
Paragraph E
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Deer Farming In Australia
Paragraph A
Deer are not indigenous to Australia. They were introduced into the country during the
nineteenth century under the acclimatization programs governing the introduction of exotic
species of animals and birds into Australia. Six species of deer were released at various
locations. The animals dispersed and established wild populations at various locations across
Australia, mostly depending upon their points of release into the wild. These animals formed
the basis for the deer industry in Australia today.
Commercial deer farming in Australia commenced in Victoria in 1971 with the authorized
capture of rusa deer from the Royal National Park, NSW. Until 1985, only four species of deer,
two from temperate climates (red, fallow) and two tropical species (rusa, chital) were confined
for commercial farming. Late in 1985, pressure from industry to increase herd numbers saw the
development of import protocols. This resulted in the introduction of large numbers of red deer
hybrids from New Zealand and North American elk directly from Canada. The national farmed
deer herd is now distributed throughout all states although most are in New South Wales and
Victoria.
Paragraph B
The number of animals processed annually has continued to increase, despite
the downward trend in venison prices since 1997. Of concern is the apparent increase in
the number of female animals processed and the number of whole herds committed for
processing. With more than 40,000 animals processed in 1998/99 and 60,000 in 1999/2000,
there is justified concern that future years may see a dramatic drop in production. At least 85%
of all venison produced in Australia is exported, principally to Europe. At least 90% of all velvet
antler produced is exported in an unprocessed state to Asia.
Schemes to promote Australian deer products continue to have a positive effect on
sales that in turn have a positive effect on prices paid to growers. The industry appears
to be showing limited signs that it is emerging from a state of depression caused by both
internal and external factors that include: (i) the Asian currency downturn; (ii) the industry’s
lack of competitive advantage in influential markets (particularly in respect to New Zealand
competition), and; (iii) within industry processing and marketing competition for limited product
volumes of venison.
Paragraph C
From the formation of the Australian Deer Breeders Federation in 1979, the industry
representative body has evolved through the Deer Farmers Federation of Australia to the Deer
Industry Association of Australia Ltd (DIAA), which was registered in 1995. The industry has
established two product development and marketing companies, the Australian Deer Horn and
Co-Products Pty Ltd (ADH) and the Deer Industry Projects and Development Pty Ltd, which
trades as the Deer Industry Company (DIC). ADH collects and markets Australian deer horn
and co-products on behalf of Australian deer farmers. It promotes the harvest of velvet antler
according to the strict quality assurance program promoted by the industry. The company also
plans and co-ordinates regular velvet accreditation courses for Australian deer farmers.
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Paragraph D
Estimates suggest that until the early 1990s the rate of the annual increase in the
number of farmed deer was up to 25%, but after 1993 this rate of increase fell to probably less
than 10%. The main reasons for the decline in the deer herd growth rate at such a critical time
for the market were: (i) severe drought conditions up to 1998 affecting eastern Australia during
1993-96 and (ii) the consequent slaughter of large numbers of breeding females, at very low
prices. These factors combined to decrease confidence within the industry. Lack of confidence
saw a drop in new investment within the industry and a lack of willingness of established
farmers to expand their herds. With the development of strong overseas markets for venison
and velvet and the prospect of better seasons ahead in 1996, the trends described were
seen to have been significantly reversed. However, the relatively small size of the Australian
herd was seen to impose undesirable restraints on the rate at which herd numbers could be
expanded to meet the demands for products.
Supply difficulties were exacerbated when the supply of products, particularly venison,
was maintained by the slaughter of young breeding females. The net result was depletion of
the industry’s female breeding herds.
Paragraph E
Industry programs are funded by statutory levies on sales of animals for venison, velvet
antler sales and the sale of live animals into export markets. The industry has a 1996 - 2000
five year plan including animal nutrition, pasture quality, carcass quality, antler harvesting,
promotional material and technical bulletins. All projects have generated a significant volume
of information, which compliments similar work undertaken in New Zealand and other deer
farming countries.
Major projects funded by levy funds include the Venison Market Project from 1992 to
1996. This initiative resulted in a dramatic increase in international demand for Australian
venison and an increase in the domestic consumption of venison. In an effort to maintain
existing venison markets in the short term and to increase them in the long term, in 1997 the
industry’s top priority became the increase in size and production capacity of the national herd.
Source: Rural Industries Research & Development Corporation
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Questions 33 - 37
Read the passage about Deer Farming in Australia again and look at the statements
below.
In boxes 33 - 37 on your answer sheet write:
TRUE
if the statement is true
FALSE
if the statement is false
NOT GIVEN
if the information is not given in Reading Passage 3
33
Until 1985 only 2 species of the originally released Australian deer were not used for
farming.
34
Since 1985 many imported deer have been interbred with the established herds.
35
The drop in deer numbers since 1997 led to an increase in the price of venison.
36
Only a small amount of Australian venison production is consumed domestically.
37
Current economic conditions in Asian countries have had positive effect on the
Australian deer industry.
Questions 38 - 40
Complete each of the following statements (Questions 38 - 40) with words taken from
Reading Passage 3.
Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.
Write your answers in boxes 38 - 40 on your answer sheet.
38
A stringent __________ allows the Australian deer industry to maintain their excellence of
product.
39
Herd stock expansion was made difficult by the killing of __________ to continue product
supply.
40
Foreign and home markets for Australian venison increased due to the __________.
Academic Test 3; Page 18
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ACADEMIC WRITING PRACTICE TEST 3
WRITING TASK 1
You should spend about 20 minutes on this task.
The charts below show information on crime in the UK for 2002.
Write a report for a university lecturer describing the information below.
You should write at least 150 words.
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WRITING TASK 2
You should spend about 40 minutes on this task.
With the rise in popularity of the internet, newspapers will soon become a thing of
the past.
To what extent do you agree or disagree?
You should write at least 250 words.
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ACADEMIC SPEAKING PRACTICE TEST 3
Section 1
*
*
*
Tell me about the job or studies that you are doing.
Why did you choose this field?
Do you think you will ever change this job or study? (Why/Why not?)
Topic 1
*
*
*
*
What were the good parts and the bad parts about your schooldays?
What was your favourite subject at school? (Why?)
How did your school teach sports?
How would you improve the school that you went to?
Topic 2
*
*
*
*
Schooldays
Rivers
Describe a river in your country.
What kinds of things are rivers used for in your country?
Are there any pollution problems with rivers in your country? (What?)
What kind of problems do people face if they live near a big river?
Section 2
Describe your favourite restaurant
You should say:
where the restaurant is and how you found it
what type of food it serves
how often you go there
and explain exactly why you like this restaurant so much.
Section 3
Topic 1
*
*
*
*
Is fast food popular in your country? (Why?)
Why has fast food become so popular over the last 30 years?
Could you compare fast food with traditional meals?
How can we stop young people eating so much fast food?
Topic 2
*
*
*
*
Fast Food
Food Problems
What are some of the problems that some countries have with food production?
Could you suggest any ways to solve these problems?
What other problems can you predict happening in terms of food in the next 50
years?
Could you compare methods of food production and distribution today with that of 50
years ago?
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ieltshelpnow.com ACADEMIC MODULE
PRACTICE TEST 4
LISTENING PRACTICE TEST 4
SECTION 1 Questions 1 - 10
Questions 1 - 5
Complete the form below.
Write NO MORE THAN ONE WORD OR A NUMBER for each answer.
Oakham Surgery
New Patient Form
Example
Answer
NEW PATIENT’S ROAD
Dawson Road
FULL NAME
Mike (1) _________________________________
WIFE’S FIRST NAME
Janet
CHILDRENS’ FIRST NAMES
1st
2nd
3rd
4th
ADDRESS
52 Dawson Road
(3) ______________________________________
Melbourne
HEALTH CARD NUMBER
(4) ______________________________________
WIFE’S HEALTH CARD NUMBER
will give later
PREFERRED DOCTOR SELECTED
(5) ______________________________________
(2) ________________________________
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Questions 6 - 10
Circle the correct letters A - C.
6
When is Mike’s wife’s first appointment?
A
B
C
7
What is the surgery’s phone number?
A
B
C
8
Rachel
Elizabeth
Angela
What’s the night doctor’s mobile number?
A
B
C
10
7253 9819
7253 9829
7523 9829
What is the name of the girl with whom Mike is speaking at the surgery?
A
B
C
9
Friday 21st at 2.00pm.
Friday 21st at 2.30pm.
Friday 21st at 3.30pm.
0506 759 3856
0506 759 3857
0506 758 3856
Which of the following does the surgery NOT make a charge for?
A
B
C
Travel vaccinations
Consultations
Insurance reports
Academic Test 4; Page 2
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SECTION 2 Questions 11 - 20
Questions 11 - 16
Complete the notes below.
Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS OR A NUMBER for each answer.
Notes on Library
Joining
Library
You will need:
A completed application form.
(11) _____________________________________________
(12) ____________________________________________
Two passport photos.
Opening
Hours
Library
Reception
8am - 10pm (13) ___________________________________
9am - 5pm (- 6.30 on (14) ___________________________)
(Mon - Sat; closed on Sundays)
Borrowing
Undergraduates
4 books
Postgraduates
(15) _________________________________ books
Borrowing for 2 weeks + (16) _________________________ renewals (in person)
No renewals over phone
Late return penalty: ₤2 per week
Academic Test 4; Page 3
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Questions 17 - 20
Label the library layout below below.
Ground Floor
First Floor
Second Floor
reception; (17) _______________________________
bathrooms; (18) _______________________________
(19) _______________________ section
Science Section
(20) ___________________ Stack System
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SECTION 3 Questions 21 - 30
Questions 21 - 24
Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS OR A NUMBER for each answer.
21
When will Simon begin writing his essay?
___________________________
22
According to Simon, what kind of problems did Jaguar have in the 1970s and 80s?
___________________________
23
What is the word limit for the essay?
___________________________
24
What is the preferable method for handing in the essay?
___________________________
Questions 25 - 27
Complete the sentences below.
Write NO MORE THAN 3 WORDS for each answer.
25
Jennifer wants to write about how _______________ are used by supermarkets.
26
Jennifer found some publications in the library _______________ to help her analysis.
27
The tutor warned Jennifer about _______________ in her work.
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Questions 28 - 30
Complete the tutor’s summary notes on Melanie below.
Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.
Notes on Student Essays
Student Melanie needs an (28) _______________ as she has been
unwell with the flu. She will get a (29) _______________ from the
doctor. She’s going to write about (30) _______________ in the UK
and their effect on housing trends. She should be on track with the
essay by the end of the weekend.
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SECTION 4 Questions 31 - 40
Questions 31 - 33
Choose the correct letters A - C.
31
The Pacific is more prone to tsunami because...
A
B
C
32
The biggest tsunami are usually created by...
A
B
C
33
it has many faults.
its faults undergo subduction.
its tectonic plates are bigger than elswhere.
undersea volcanic eruptions.
undersea earthquakes.
undersea landslides.
Tsunami are difficult to detect in deep water because of...
A
B
C
their wavelength.
their high speed.
their wave rate.
Questions 34 and 35
Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.
List the two ways which the National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration has set up to detect
tsunami.
34
_____________________________________________________
35
_____________________________________________________
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Questions 36 - 40
Complete the notes below.
Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS OR A NUMBER for each answer.
TSUNAMI EXAMPLES
When Happened
1992
1992
1998
1998
1896
8000 years ago
Cause
(36) _____________
_________________
Underwater
earthquake
(38) _____________
_________________
Underwater
volcanic eruption
Underwater
earthquake
Underwater
landslide
Deaths Caused
none
Wave Height
3 feet
none
(37) _____________
1200
23 feet
3000
40 feet
(39) _____________
35 feet
(40) _____________
30 feet
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ACADEMIC READING PRACTICE TEST 4
READING PASSAGE 1
Questions 1 - 14
You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 1 – 14 which are based on
Reading Passage 1 below.
Questions 1 - 6
Reading Passage 1 has 7 paragraphs (A – G).
From the list of headings below choose the most suitable headings for paragraphs
B – G.
Write the appropriate number (i – xi) in boxes 14 – 19 on your answer sheet.
NB
There are more headings than paragraphs, so you will not use them all.
Example
Answer
Paragraph A
iv
i
Factory Closures
ii
The Human Cost
iii
The Tragedy of State Mismanagement
iv
A Warning to the World
v
European Techniques
vi
Destructive Trawling Technology
vii
Lessons to be Learned
viii
The Demise of the Northern Cod
ix
Canadian Fishing Limits
x
The Breaking of Agreements
xi
Foreign Over-fishing
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1
Paragraph B
2
Paragraph C
3
Paragraph D
4
Paragraph E
5
Paragraph F
6
Paragraph G
COD IN TROUBLE
A
In 1992, the devastating collapse of the cod stocks off the East coast of Newfoundland forced the
Canadian government to take drastic measures and close the fishery. Over 40,000 people lost
their jobs, communities are still struggling to recover and the marine ecosystem is still in a state of
collapse. The disintegration of this vital fishery sounded a warning bell to governments around the
world who were shocked that a relatively sophisticated, scientifically based fisheries management
program, not unlike their own, could have gone so wrong. The Canadian government ignored
warnings that their fleets were employing destructive fishing practices and refused to significantly
reduce quotas citing the loss of jobs as too great a concern.
B
In the 1950s Canadian and US east coast waters provided an annual 100,000 tons in cod
catches rising to 800,000 by 1970. This over fishing led to a catch of only 300,000 tons by 1975.
Canada and the US reacted by passing legislation to extend their national jurisdictions over
marine living resources out to 200 nautical miles and catches naturally declined to 139,000 tons in
1980. However the Canadian fishing industry took over and restarted the over fishing and catches
rose again until, from 1985, it was the Canadians who were landing more than 250,000 tons of
northern cod annually. This exploitation ravaged the stocks and by 1990 the catch was so low
(29,000 tons) that in 1992 (121⁄2000 tons) Canada had to ban all fishing in east coast waters. In a
fishery that had for over a century yielded a quarter-million ton catches, there remained a biomass
of less than 1700 tons and the fisheries department also predicted that, even with an immediate
recovery, stocks need at least 15 years before they would be healthy enough to withstand
previous levels of fishing.
C
The devastating fishing came from massive investment poured into constructing huge “draggers”.
Draggers haul enormous nets held open by a combination of huge steel plates and heavy chains
and rollers that plough the ocean bottom. They drag up anything in the way, inflicting immense
damage, destroying critical habitat and contributing to the destabilization of the northern cod
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ecosystem. The draggers targeted huge aggregations of cod while they were spawning, a time
when the fish population is highly vulnerable to capture. Excessive trawling on spawning stocks
became highly disruptive to the spawning process and ecosystem. In addition, the trawling activity
resulted in a physical dispersion of eggs leading to a higher fertilization failure. Physical and
chemical damage to larvae caused by the trawling action also reduced their chances of survival.
These draggers are now banned forever from Canadian waters.
D
Canadian media often cite excessive fishing by overseas fleets, primarily driven by the capitalist
ethic, as the primary cause of the fishing out of the north Atlantic cod stocks. Many nations took
fish off the coast of Newfoundland and all used deep-sea trawlers, and many often blatantly
exceeded established catch quotas and treaty agreements. There can be little doubt that non
North American fishing was a contributing factor in the cod stock collapse, and that the capitalist
dynamics that were at work in Canada were all too similar for the foreign vessels and companies.
But all of the blame cannot be put there, no matter how easy it is to do, as it does not account for
the management of the resources.
E
Who was to blame? As the exploitation of the Newfoundland fishery was so predominantly
guided by the government, we can argue that a fishery is not a private area, as the fisher lacks
management rights normally associated with property and common property. The state had
appropriated the property, and made all of the management decisions. Fishermen get told who
can fish, what they can fish, and essentially, what to do with the fish once it is caught. In this
regard then, when a resource such as the Newfoundland fishery collapses, it is more a tragedy of
government negligence than a tragedy of the general public.
F
Following the ‘92 ban on northern cod fishing and most other species, an estimated 30 thousand
people that had already lost their jobs after the 1992 Northern Cod moratorium took effect, were
joined by an additional 12,000 fishermen and plant workers. With more than forty thousand people
out of jobs, Newfoundland became an economic disaster area, as processing plants shut down,
and vessels from the smallest dory to the monster draggers were made idle or sold overseas at
bargain prices. Several hundred Newfoundland communities were devastated.
G
Europeans need only look across the North Atlantic to see what could be in store for their cod
fishery. In Canada they were too busy with making plans, setting expansive goals, and then
allocating fish, and lots of it, instead of making sound business plans to match fishing with the
limited availability of the resource. Cod populations in European waters are now so depleted that
scientists have recently warned that “all fisheries in this area that target cod should be closed.”
The Canadian calamity demonstrates that we now have the technological capability to find
and annihilate every commercial fish stock, in any ocean and do irreparable damage to entire
ecosystems in the process. In Canada’s case, a two billion dollar recovery bill may only be a part
of the total long-term costs. The costs to individuals and desperate communities now deprived of
meaningful and sustainable employment is staggering.
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Questions 7 - 10
Choose the appropriate letters A – D and write them in boxes 7 – 10 on your answer
sheet.
7
The Canadian government didn’t want to reduce cod catches pre 1992 because they were
worried about…
A
B
C
D
8
possible rising unemployment
the ecological effects
the marine ecosystem
drastic measures
Which graph most accurately describes Canadian cod catches from 1950 to 1992?
A
B
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C
D
9
According to Reading Passage 1, which of the following is now true about the
Newfoundland fisheries?
A
B
C
D
10
Catches of 1700 tons a year only are permitted.
Normal fishing could start again in 2007.
No cod fishing is allowed but some other species can be caught.
Fishing with draggers will be allowed again in 2007.
Who does the writer blame for the collapse of the Newfoundland cod fishery?
A
B
C
D
The Canadian fishing industry.
The foreign fishing industry.
The Canadian government.
The US fishing industry.
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Questions 11 - 14
Do the following statements agree with the views of the writer of the reading
passage on Cod in Trouble?
In Boxes 11 - 14 write:
YES
if the statement agrees with the writer
NO
if the statement doesn’t agree with the writer
NOT GIVEN
if it is impossible to say what the writer thinks about this
11
Disruption of cod breeding was a major factor in the Newfoundland cod disaster.
12
Foreign trawlers frequently broke the catch allowances.
13
There was often conflict between the foreign fishermen and the Canadian authorities.
14
Europe does not face the seriousness of the Canadian disaster.
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READING PASSAGE 2
Questions 15 - 27
You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 15 – 27 which are based on
Reading Passage 2 on the following pages.
The Rise of Antibiotic-Resistant Infections
A
When penicillin became widely available during the Second World War, it was a medical
miracle, rapidly vanquishing the biggest wartime killer - infected wounds. Discovered initially by a
French medical student, Ernest Duchesne, in 1896, and then rediscovered by Scottish physician
Alexander Fleming in 1928, Penicillium crippled many types of disease-causing bacteria. But
just four years after drug companies began mass-producing penicillin in 1943, microbes began
appearing that could resist it.
B
“There was complacency in the 1980s. The perception was that we had licked the bacterial
infection problem. Drug companies weren’t working on new agents. They were concentrating
on other areas, such as viral infections,” says Michael Blum, M.D., medical officer in the Food
and Drug Administration’s division of anti-infective drug products. “In the meantime, resistance
increased to a number of commonly used antibiotics, possibly related to overuse. In the 1990s,
we’ve come to a point for certain infections that we don’t have agents available.”
C
The increased prevalence of antibiotic resistance is an outcome of evolution. Any population
of organisms, bacteria included, naturally includes variants with unusual traits - in this case, the
ability to withstand an antibiotic’s attack on a microbe. When a person takes an antibiotic, the
drug kills the defenceless bacteria, leaving behind - or “selecting,” in biological terms - those that
can resist it. These renegade bacteria then multiply, increasing their numbers a million fold in a
day, becoming the predominant microorganism. “Whenever antibiotics are used, there is selective
pressure for resistance to occur. More and more organisms develop resistance to more and more
drugs,” says Joe Cranston, Ph.D., director of the department of drug policy and standards at the
American Medical Association in Chicago.
D
Disease-causing microbes thwart antibiotics by interfering with their mechanism of action.
For example, penicillin kills bacteria by attaching to their cell walls, then destroying a key part of
the wall. The wall falls apart, and the bacterium dies. Resistant microbes, however, either alter
their cell walls so penicillin can’t bind or produce enzymes that dismantle the antibiotic.
Antibiotic resistance results from gene action. Bacteria acquire genes conferring resistance
in different ways. Bacterial DNA may mutate spontaneously. Drug-resistant tuberculosis arises this
way. Another way is called transformation where one bacterium may take up DNA from another
bacterium. Most frightening, however, is resistance acquired from a small circle of DNA called a
Academic Test 4; Page 15
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plasmid, which can flit from one type of bacterium to another. A single plasmid can provide a slew
of different resistances.
E
Many of us have come to take antibiotics for granted. A child develops a sore throat or
an ear infection, and soon a bottle of pink medicine makes everything better. Linda McCaig, a
scientist at the CDC, comments that “many consumers have an expectation that when they’re ill,
antibiotics are the answer. Most of the time the illness is viral, and antibiotics are not the answer.
This large burden of antibiotics is certainly selecting resistant bacteria.” McCaig and Peter Killeen,
a fellow scientist at the CDC, tracked antibiotic use in treating common illnesses. The report cites
nearly 6 million antibiotic prescriptions for sinusitis alone in 1985, and nearly 13 million in 1992.
Ironically, advances in modern medicine have made more people predisposed to infection. McCaig
notes that “there are a number of immunocompromised patients who wouldn’t have survived in
earlier times. Radical procedures produce patients who are in difficult shape in the hospital, and
there is routine use of antibiotics to prevent infection in these patients.”
F
There are measures we can take to slow the inevitable resistance. Barbara Murray, M.D.,
of the University of Texas Medical School at Houston writes that “simple improvements in public
health measures can go a long way towards preventing infection”. Such approaches include more
frequent hand washing by health-care workers, quick identification and isolation of patients with
drug-resistant infections, and improving sewage systems and water purity.
Drug manufacturers are also once again becoming interested in developing new antibiotics.
The FDA is doing all it can to speed development and availability of new antibiotic drugs. “We can’t
identify new agents - that’s the job of the pharmaceutical industry. But once they have identified a
promising new drug, what we can do is to meet with the company very early and help design the
development plan and clinical trials,” says Blum. In addition, drugs in development can be used for
patients with multi-drug-resistant infections on an emergency compassionate use basis for people
with AIDS or cancer, for example.” Blum adds.
Appropriate prescribing is important. This means that physicians use a narrow spectrum
antibiotics - those that target only a few bacterial types - whenever possible, so that resistances
can be restricted. “There has been a shift to using costlier, broader spectrum agents. This
prescribing trend heightens the resistance problem because more diverse bacteria are being
exposed to antibiotics,” writes Killeen. So, while awaiting the next wonder drug, we must
appreciate, and use correctly, the ones that we already have.
Another problem with antibiotic use is that patients often stop taking the drug too soon,
because symptoms improve. However, this merely encourages resistant microbes to proliferate.
The infection returns a few weeks later, and this time a different drug must be used to treat it. The
conclusion: resistance can be slowed if patients take medications correctly.
Source: US Food and Drug Administration
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Questions 15 - 21
Match the views (15 – 21) with the people listed below.
Write the appropriate letters in boxes 15 - 21 on your answer sheet.
15
Antibiotics are sometimes used to only prevent infections.
16
Choosing the correct antibiotic for particular infections is important.
17
Today there are some bacterial infections for which we have no effective antibiotic.
18
Untested drugs can be used on terminal patients as a last resort.
19
Resistance develops every time an antibiotic is used.
20
Merely washing hands can have a positive effect.
21
Antibiotics are often impotently used against viruses.
PK
Peter Killeen
JC
Joe Cranston
LM
Linda McCaig
MB
Michael Blum
BM
Barbara Murray
Questions 22 - 27
Reading Passage 2 has 6 paragraphs (A - F). Which paragraphs concentrate on the
following information? Write the appropriate letters (A - F) in boxes 22 - 27 on your
answer sheet.
22
How antibiotic resistance happens.
23
The survival of the fittest bacteria.
24
Factors to consider in solving the antibiotic-resistant bacteria problem.
25
The impact of the discovery of the first antibiotic.
26
The misuse and overuse of antibiotics.
27
The cessation of research into combating bacterial infections.
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READING PASSAGE 3
Questions 28 - 40
You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 28 – 40 which are based on
Reading Passage 3 on the following pages.
Hydroelectric Power
Hydroelectric power is America’s leading renewable energy resource. Of all the
renewable power sources, it’s the most reliable, efficient, and economical. Water is needed to
run a hydroelectric generating unit. It’s held in a reservoir or lake behind a dam, and the force of
the water being released from the reservoir through the dam spins the blades of a turbine. The
turbine is connected to the generator that produces electricity. After passing through the turbine,
the water re-enters the river on the downstream side of the dam.
Hydroelectric plants convert the kinetic energy within falling water into electricity. The
energy in moving water is produced in the sun, and consequently is continually being renewed.
The energy in sunlight evaporates water from the seas and deposits it on land as rain. Land
elevation differences result in rainfall runoff, and permit some of the original solar energy to be
harnessed as hydroelectric power. Hydroelectric power is at present the earth’s chief renewable
electricity source, generating 6% of global energy and about 15% of worldwide electricity.
Hydroelectric power in Canada is plentiful and provides 60% of their electrical requirements.
Usually regarded as an inexpensive and clean source of electricity, most big hydroelectric
projects being planned today are facing a great deal of hostility from environmental groups and
local people.
The earliest recorded use of water power was a clock, constructed around 250 BC. Since
then, people have used falling water to supply power for grain and saw mills, as well as a host
of other uses. The earliest use of flowing water to generate electricity was a waterwheel on the
Fox River in Wisconsin in 1882.
The first hydroelectric power plants were much more dependable and efficient than the
plants of the day that were fired by fossil fuels. This led to a rise in number of small to medium
sized hydroelectric generating plants located wherever there was an adequate supply of falling
water and a need for electricity. As demand for electricity soared in the middle years of the 20th
century, and the effectiveness of coal and oil power plants improved, small hydro plants became
less popular. The majority of new hydroelectric developments were focused on giant megaprojects.
Hydroelectric plants harness energy by passing flowing water through a turbine. The
water turbine rotation is delivered to a generator, which generates electricity. The quantity
of electricity that can be produced at a hydroelectric plant relies upon two variables. These
variables are (1) the vertical distance that the water falls, called the “head”, and (2) the flow rate,
calculated as volume over time. The amount of electricity that is produced is thus proportional to
the head product and the flow rate.
So, hydroelectric power stations can normally be separated into two kinds. The most
widespread are “high head” plants and usually employ a dam to stock up water at an increased
height. They also store water at times of rain and discharge it during dry times. This results in
reliable and consistent electricity generation, capable of meeting demand since flow can be
rapidly altered. At times of excess electrical system capacity, usually available at night, these
plants can also pump water from one reservoir to another at a greater height. When there is
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peak electrical demand, the higher reservoir releases water through the turbines to the lower
reservoir.
“Low head” hydroelectric plants usually exploit heads of just a few meters or less. These
types of power station use a weir or low dam to channel water, or no dam at all and merely use
the river flow. Unfortunately their electricity production capacity fluctuates with seasonal water
flow in a river.
Until only recently people believed almost universally that hydroelectric power was an
environmentally safe and clean means of generating electricity. Hydroelectric stations do not
release any of the usual atmospheric pollutants emitted by power plants fuelled by fossil fuels
so they do not add to global warming or acid rain. Nevertheless, recent studies of the larger
reservoirs formed behind dams have implied that decomposing, flooded vegetation could give
off greenhouse gases equal to those from other electricity sources.
The clearest result of hydroelectric dams is the flooding of huge areas of land. The
reservoirs built can be exceptionally big and they have often flooded the lands of indigenous
peoples and destroyed their way of life. Numerous rare ecosystems are also endangered by
hydroelectric power plant development.
Damming rivers may also change the quantity and quality of water in the rivers below
the dams, as well as stopping fish migrating upstream to spawn. In addition, silt, usually taken
downstream to the lower parts of a river, is caught by a dam and so the river downstream loses
the silt that should fertilize the river’s flood plains during high water periods.
Theoretical global hydroelectric power is approximately four times larger than the
amount that has been taken advantage of today. Most of the residual hydro potential left in the
world can be found in African and Asian developing countries. Exploiting this resource would
involve an investment of billions of dollars, since hydroelectric plants normally have very high
building costs. Low head hydro capacity facilities on small scales will probably increase in the
future as low head turbine research, and the standardization of turbine production, reduce the
costs of low head hydro-electric power production. New systems of control and improvements
in turbines could lead in the future to more electricity created from present facilities. In addition,
in the 1950’s and 60’s when oil and coal prices were very low, lots of smaller hydroelectric
plants were closed down. Future increases in the prices of fuel could lead to these places being
renovated.
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Questions 28 - 32
Read the passage about Hydroelectric Power again and look at the statements
below.
In boxes 28 - 32 on your answer sheet write:
TRUE
if the statement is true
FALSE
if the statement is false
NOT GIVEN
if the information is not given in the
passage
28
Canada uses the most hydroelectric power in the world today.
29
An early use of hydroelectric power was in the timber industry.
30
The first hydroelectric power stations were more effective than those using competing
energy sources.
31
People have been drowned by the flooding of their traditional territory when reservoirs
are created.
32
Nowadays, agriculture below hydroelectric dams is not affected by the change in water
flow.
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Questions 33 - 36
Complete each of the following statements (Questions 33 - 36) with words taken from
Reading Passage 3.
Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.
Write your answers in boxes 33 - 36 on your answer sheet.
33
The origin of hydroelectric power is the __________ produced when water obeys the laws
of gravity.
34
How far water drops to the turbines in a power station is known as __________.
35
A drawback to low head hydroelectric power stations is that they depend on __________.
36
Derelict hydroelectric power stations could be __________ in the future.
Questions 37 - 40
Using NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS from Reading Passage 3, answer the
following questions.
Write your answers in boxes 37 - 40 on your answer sheet.
37
What proportion of the world’s electricity supply is provided by hydroelectric power?
38
How is the flow rate of a hydroelectic power station quantified?
39
When do high head power plants use surplus electricity to transfer water to a second
reservoir?
40
What underwater action can lead to the production of pollution similar to that produced by
fossil fuel power stations?
Academic Test 4; Page 21
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ACADEMIC WRITING PRACTICE TEST 4
WRITING TASK 1
You should spend about 20 minutes on this task.
The charts below give information on UK spending habits for books bought
over the internet.
Write a report for a university lecturer describing the information below.
You should write at least 150 words.
Academic
Academic Test
Test 4;
4; Page
Page 21
22
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WRITING TASK 2
You should spend about 40 minutes on this task.
Many people in the undeveloped world die from diseases that are curable because
they can’t afford the medication to treat themselves. Do you believe that drug
companies in the developed world should be obliged to make their products available
at reduced prices in these undeveloped countries so that people do not die
unecessarily.
You should write at least 250 words.
Academic Test 4; Page 23
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ACADEMIC SPEAKING PRACTICE TEST 4
Section 1
*
*
*
Describe the house or flat/apartment in which you live at the moment.
Do you think it is better to live in a house or a flat/apartment?
What are the advantages and disadvantages of having a garden?
Topic 1
*
*
*
*
Do you visit parks? (Why/Why not?)
Do you think parks are important for towns and cities? (Why/Why not?)
Do you think that parks should be free or that people should pay to use them?
What are some of the disadvantages of parks in a town or city?
Topic 2
*
*
*
*
Parks
Free Time
Do you have much free time in your life? (Why/Why not?)
What do you like doing in your free time?
What free time activities do you particularly dislike?
How much free time do you think a person should have every day?
Section 2
Describe one of your good friends
You should say
where you met
what this person does
what things you do together
and why you particularly like this person
Section 3
Topic 1
*
*
*
*
Do you prefer spending time with your family or with your friends? (Why?)
Can you compare the activities that you do with your friends and your family?
Do you think it is important for your family and friends to like each other?
Can you compare the relationships that you have with friends and the ones you have
with family?
Topic 2
*
*
*
*
Family and Friends
Living with Friends
Do you live alone, with friends or with family? (Why?)
What are some of the advantages of living with friends?
What are some of the disadvantages of living with friends?
What are some of things that can break a friendship?
Academic Test 4; Page 24
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ieltshelpnow.com ACADEMIC MODULE
PRACTICE TEST 5
ACADEMIC LISTENING PRACTICE TEST 5
SECTION 1 Questions 1 - 10
Questions 1 - 5
Complete the form below.
Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS OR SOME NUMBERS for each answer.
BUS PASS APPLICATION FORM
Example
Answer
PASS APPLIED FOR
1 month
NAME
Nathalie (1) ______________________________
ADDRESS
45 (2) ___________________________________
Newlands
Adelaide
POSTCODE
(3) _____________________________________
DATE OF BIRTH
(4) 13th May 1982
TEL NUMBER
(4) _____________________________
UNIVERSITY CARD SHOWN
Yes
ZONES REQUIRED
(5) _____________________________________
Academic Test 5; Page 1
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Questions 6 - 10
Complete the notes below.
Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS OR SOME NUMBERS for each answer.
Adelaide Day Trips on the Bus
1
The MacDonald Nature Park
Outward Journey Leaves
Length of Journey
Return Journey Leaves
Things to do/see
Bring
2
Pearl Bay
Outward Journey Leaves
Length of Journey
Return Journey Leaves
Things to do/see
Bring
3
8.00am
2 hours
(6) ______________________________________
Walk nature trails + MacDonald River
A camera
9.00am
(7) ______________________________________
4.00pm
Walk along (8) _____________________ + see view
Lie on the beach + swim
Swimming gear + a towel
The Huron Gold Mine
Outward Journey Leaves
Length of Journey
Return Journey Leaves
Things to do/see
Bring
9.30am
Half an hour
(9) ______________________________________
Go round the museum and tunnels
Find some gold!!
(10) ______________________________________
Academic Test 5; Page 2
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SECTION 2 Questions 11 - 20
Questions 11 - 16
Complete the sentences below.
Write NO MORE THAN 3 WORDS OR A NUMBER for each answer.
11
The highest point of the bridge is 134m above __________________________________.
12
The two pairs of pylons are made of __________________________________.
13
_______________________________% of the steel for making the bridge came from
the UK.
14
800 families from __________________________________ homes were moved without
compensation to accomodate the construction of the approaches to the bridge.
15
People _________________________________ was the main cause of death of workers
while constructing the bridge.
16
Three __________________________________ were made to mark the opening of the
bridge. One is worth several hundred dollars today.
Academic Test 5; Page 3
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Questions 17 - 20
Which FOUR of the following facts are NOT true about the Sydney Harbour Bridge
today?
Choose FOUR letters (A - J) and write them in boxes 17 - 20 on your answer sheet.
A
There are no more trams crossing the bridge.
B
There are eight traffic lanes on the bridge.
C
Trains still cross the bridge.
D
People are allowed to walk across the bridge.
E
Buses are allowed to cross the bridge.
F
The Harbour Tunnel has not helped traffic congestion on the bridge.
G
More than 182 000 vehicles cross the bridge daily.
H
Horses can no longer cross the bridge.
I
Bicycles are not allowed to cross the bridge.
J
To go back and forward across the bridge costs $6.
Academic Test 5; Page 4
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SECTION 3 Questions 21 - 30
Questions 21 - 27
Complete the sentences below.
Write NO MORE THAN 3 WORDS for each answer.
21
While waiting for Phil, Mel and Laura were _______________________________________.
22
A telephone survey was rejected because it would be ______________________________.
23
A mail survey was rejected because it would _____________________________________.
24
The best number of people to survey would be ___________________________________.
25
If their survey only included 100 people, it would not be ____________________________.
26
The number of people that Laura, Phil and Mel agree to survey was __________________.
27
The number of questions in the survey was agreed to be ___________________________..
Questions 28 - 30
Circle THREE letters A - G.
What are the three locations that Laura, Phil and Mel chose for their survey?
A
The town square
B
The train station
C
The university cafeteria
D
Dobbins department store
E
The corner of the High Street and College Road
F
The bus station
G
The corner of the High Street and Wilkins Road
Academic Test 5; Page 5
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SECTION 4 Questions 31 - 40
Questions 31 - 34
Complete the table below by matching the individual with their role (Questions 31 34) in the lecture on the coelacanth.
Write the approprate letters (A - F) on your answer sheet.
NB
There are more roles than individuals so you will not need to use them all.
INDIVIDUAL
Dr. J.L.B. Smith
Marjorie Courtney-Latimer
Dr. Mark Erdmann
Captain Goosen
ROLE
(31) _____________________
(32) _____________________
(33) _____________________
(34) _____________________
ROLES
A
Paid fishermen for unidentified finds.
B
Caught a strange looking fish.
C
Contacted scientists in Indonesia.
D
Photographed a coelacanth seen by accident.
E
First recognised the coelacanth for what it was.
F
Bought a specimen of a coelacanth in a market.
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Questions 35 - 40
Choose the correct letters A - C.
35
The coelacanth was...
A
B
C
36
The only difference between the Comoros coelacanth and the Sulawesi coelacanth is...
A
B
C
37
of too much clay sediment.
conditions where they lived were not favourable for fossilisation.
volcanoes are needed for fossilisation.
Scientists had a better understanding of the coelacanth after 1991 because...
A
B
C
40
360 million years ago.
240 million years ago.
80 million years ago.
Modern coelacanths probably left no fossilised remains over the past 80 million years
because...
A
B
C
39
their intercranial joint.
their paired fins.
their colour.
Coelacanths seemed to have their greatest population...
A
B
C
38
well known to Indonesian fishermen.
unknown to Indonesian fishermen.
a first in the market.
the French government had previously limited study on the Comoros coelacanth.
the Comoros were far away and difficult to reach.
the Comoros opened an airport.
On the 1991 expedition, scientist studied the coelacanth...
A
B
C
only from fishermen’s specimens.
through the windows of their submarine.
from diving down.
Academic Test 5; Page 7
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ACADEMIC READING PRACTICE TEST 5
READING PASSAGE 1
Questions 1 - 13
You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 1 – 13 which are based on
Reading Passage 1 below.
Questions 1 - 4
Reading Passage 1 has 5 paragraphs (A – E).
From the list of headings below choose the most suitable headings for paragraphs
B – E.
Write the appropriate number (i – viii) in boxes 1 – 4 on your answer sheet.
NB
There are more headings than paragraphs, so you will not use them all.
Example
Answer
Paragraph A
iii
i
Climate Conditions
ii
Solutions from the Air
iii
Fire Starters
iv
Battling the Blaze
v
The Lie of the Land
vi
Rain – The Natural Saviour
vii
Fuelling the Flames
viii
Fires and Trees
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Wildfires
A
Wildfires are usually the product of human negligence. Humans start about 90% of wild fires
and lightning causes the other 10%. Regular causes for wildfires include arson, camping fires,
throwing away cigarettes, burning rubbish, and playing with fireworks or matches. Once begun,
wildfires can spread at a rate of up to 23 kph and, as a fire spreads over a landscape, it could
undertake a life of its own – doing different things to keep itself going, even creating other blazes
by throwing cinders miles away.
Three components are necessary to start a fire: oxygen, fuel and heat. These three make
up “the fire triangle” and fire fighters frequently talk about this when they are attempting to put out
blazes. The theory is that if the fire fighters can remove one of the triangle pillars, they can take
control of and eventually put out the fire.
B
The speed at which wildfires spread depends on the fuel around them. Fuel is any living or
dead material that will burn. Types of fuel include anything from trees, underbrush and grassland
to houses. The quantity of inflammable material around a fire is known as “the fuel load” and is
determined by the amount of available fuel per unit area, usually tons per acre. How dry the fuel
is can also influence how fires behave. When the fuel is very dry, it burns much more quickly and
forms fires that are much harder to control.
Basic fuel characteristics affecting a fire are size and shape, arrangement and moisture, but
with wildfires, where fuel usually consists of the same type of material, the main factor influencing
ignition time is the ratio of the fuel’s total surface area to its volume. Because the surface area of
a twig is not much bigger than its volume, it ignites rapidly. However, a tree’s surface area is much
smaller than its volume, so it requires more time to heat up before ignition.
C
Three weather variables that affect wildfires are temperature, wind and moisture.
Temperature directly influences the sparking of wildfires, as heat is one of the three pillars of the
fire triangle. Sticks, trees and underbrush on the ground receive heat from the sun, which heats
and dries these potential fuels. Higher temperatures allow fuels to ignite and burn more quickly
and add to the speed of a wildfire’s spread. Consequently, wildfires tend to rage in the afternoon,
during the hottest temperatures.
The biggest influence on a wildfire is probably wind and this is also the most unpredictable
variable. Winds provide fires with extra oxygen, more dry fuel, and wind also makes wildfires
spread more quickly. Fires also create winds of their own that can be up to ten times faster than
the ambient wind. Winds can even spread embers that can generate additional fires, an event
known as spotting. Winds also change the course of fires, and gusts can take flames into trees,
starting a “crown fire”.
Humidity and precipitation provide moisture that can slow fires down and reduce their
intensity, as it is hard for fuel to ignite if it has high moisture levels. Higher levels of humidity mean
fewer wildfires.
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D
Topography can also hugely influence wildfire behaviour. In contrast to fuel and weather,
topography hardly changes over time and can help or hamper the spread of a wildfire. The
principal topographical factor relating to wildfires is slope. As a rule, fires move uphill much faster
than downhill and the steeper the slope, the quicker fires move. This is because fires move in the
same direction of the ambient wind, which generally blows uphill. Moreover, the fire can preheat
fuel further uphill as smoke and heat rise in that direction. On the other hand, when the fire
reaches the top of a hill, it has to struggle to come back down.
E
Each year thousands of fire fighters risk their lives in their jobs. Elite fire fighters come in
two categories: Hotshots and Smokejumpers. Operating in 20 man units, the key task of hotshots
is to construct firebreaks around fires. A firebreak is a strip of land with all potential fuel removed.
As their name suggests, smokejumpers jump out of aircraft to reach smaller fires situated in
inaccessible regions. They attempt to contain these smaller fires before they turn into bigger ones.
As well as constructing firebreaks and putting water and fire retardant on fires, fire
fighters also use “backfires”. Backfires are created by fire fighters and burn towards the main fire
incinerating any potential fuel in its path.
Fire fighters on the ground also receive extensive support from the air with tankers dropping
thousands of gallons of water and retardant. Dropped from planes and helicopters, retardant is a
red chemical containing phosphate fertilizer, which slows and cools fires.
Source: National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration
Questions 5 - 9
Using NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS from Reading Passage 2, answer the
following questions.
Write your answers in boxes 5 - 9 on your answer sheet.
5
Complete the last pillar of the fire triangle.
(5) _______________
Δ
heat
source
fuel
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6
What is measured in tons per acre?
7
When do wildfires burn at their fiercest?
8
What can travel in the wind to create fires at some distance from the initial fire?
9
Name a method using an additional fire that fire fighters use to control wild fires.
Questions 10 - 13
Complete each of the following statements (Questions 10 - 13) with words taken from
Reading Passage 1.
Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.
Write your answers in boxes 10 - 13 on your answer sheet.
10
The most important factor in how quickly a wildfire catches fire is the surface
to volume _____________________.
11
The most significant weather factor to affect wildfires’ actions is _____________________.
12
Fires on the tops of trees are known as _____________________.
13
Wildfires usually travel much faster _____________________ because of the typical
direction of prevailing winds.
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READING PASSAGE 2
Questions 14 - 27
You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 14 – 27 which are based on
Reading Passage 2 on the following pages.
PROBLEMS WITH WATER
Nearly half the world’s population will experience critical water shortages by 2025,
according to the United Nations (UN). Wars over access to water are a rising possibility in
this century and the main conflicts in Africa during the next 25 years could be over this most
precious of commodities, as countries fight for access to scarce resources. “Potential water
wars are likely in areas where rivers and lakes are shared by more than one country,” says
Mark Evans a UN worker. Evans predicts that “population growth and economic development
will lead to nearly one in two people in Africa living in countries facing water scarcity or what
is known as ‘water stress’ within 25 years.” Water scarcity is defined as less than 1,000 cubic
metres of water available per person per year, while water stress means less than 1,500
cubic metres of water is available per person per year. The report says that by 2025, 12 more
African countries will join the 13 that already suffer from water stress or water scarcity. What
makes the water issue even more urgent is that demand for water will grow increasingly fast
as larger areas are placed under crops and economic development. Evans adds that “the
strong possibility that the world is experiencing climate change also adds to this urgency.”
How to deal with water shortages is in the forefront of the battle between environmental
activists on the one hand and governments and construction firms on the other. At the recent World
Summit on Sustainable Development in Johannesburg activists continued their campaign to halt dam
construction, while many governments were outraged about a vocal minority thwarting their plans.
One of the UN’s eight millennium development goals is to halve the proportion of people
without “sustainable” access to safe drinking water by 2015. How to ensure this happens was
one of the big issues of the summit. Much of the text on this was already agreed, but one of the
unresolved issues in the implementation plan was whether the goal on water would be extended
to cover sanitation. The risks posed by water-borne diseases in the absence of sanitation facilities
means the two goals are closely related. Only US negotiators have been resisting the extension
of goals to include sanitation due to the financial commitment this would entail. However, Evans
says the US is about to agree to this extension. This agreement could give the UN a chance
to show that in one key area the world development agenda was advanced in Johannesburg.
But the UN has said Johannesburg was not about words alone, but implementation. A
number of projects and funding initiatives were unveiled at the summit. But implementation is always
harder, as South Africa has experienced in its water programme. Graham Bennetts, a water official
in the South African government explains: “Since the 1994 elections government has provided
easy access to water to 7 million people, but extending this to a further 7 million and ensuring this
progress is sustainable is one of South Africa’s foremost implementation challenges.” In South
Africa, access to water is defined as 25 litres a person daily, within a distance of 200m from where
they live. “Although South Africa’s feat far exceeds the UN millennium goal on water supply, severe
constraints on local government capacity make a more rapid expansion difficult,” says Bennetts.
For some of those who have only recently been given ready access to water, their
gains are under threat as the number of cut-offs by municipalities for non-payment rise, says
Liane Greef of the Environmental Monitoring Group. Greef is programme manager for Water
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Justice in southern Africa. Those who have their water supply cut off also automatically forfeit
their right to 6000 free litres of water for a family a month under South Africa’s “water for all”
policy. In the face of continued increases in unemployment, payment for water and other
utilities has the potential to fast undo government’s high profile feats in delivery since 1994.
It is also the way of ensuring sufficient water supply and its management that will
increasingly become a political battleground in South Africa. Water Affairs director-general
Mike Muller says South Africa is near the end of its dam-building programme. However,
there are big projects proposed elsewhere in southern Africa that could possibly be halted
by activists who could bring pressure on funding agencies such as the World Bank.
Greef says her group will campaign during the summit against the proposed Skuifraam
Dam, which would be built near Franschhoek to supply additional water to Cape Town.
Rather than rely on new dam construction, the city should ensure that
water is used wisely at all times rather than only in dry spells, Greef says. Another
battleground for her group is over the privatisation of water supply, she says. Water
supply, she insists, is best handled in the public interest by accountable government.
There is increasing hope from advances in technology to deal with water shortages. It
is agricultural production which takes up about 90% of water consumed for human purposes,
says the UN. To lower agricultural demand for water the Sri Lanka-based International Water
Management Institute is researching ways of obtaining “more crop per drop” through the
development of drought resistant crops, as well as through better water management techniques.
One of the institute’s research sites is the Limpopo River basin. According to the institute’s
director-general, Frank Rijsbereman, rice growers in China use a quarter of the water a ton of
produce to those in South Africa. The institute hopes the “green revolution” in crop productivity
will soon be matched by the “blue revolution” in improving water utilisation in agriculture.
Questions 14 – 21
Match the views (25 – 32) with the people listed below.
14
Water needs to be utilised more prudently by some people.
15
South Africa has almost completed its plans for building dams.
16
Local government has excluded some South African households from getting free water
for not meeting their bills.
17
The World Summit in Johannesburg will soon have its aims on hygiene agreed among all
participants.
18
Faster development of water supply in South Africa is limited by the facilities of community
administrations.
19
Water use is more efficient than in South Africa in some foreign food production.
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20
Government should be answerable for water delivery and not private companies.
21
The water question’s importance has been increased due to the risk of global weather
temperature rises.
MM
Mike Muller
FR
Frank Rijsbereman
ME
Mark Evans
LG
Liane Greef
GB
Graham Bennetts
Questions 22 - 27
Read the passage about problems with water again and look at the statements
below.
In boxes 22 - 27 on your answer sheet write:
TRUE
if the statement is true
FALSE
if the statement is false
NOT GIVEN
if the information is not given in the
passage
22
Some African countries are currently at war over water resources.
23
A recent report says by 2025 that 25 African countries will suffer from water scarcity alone.
24
Vocal environment activists were arrested at the World Summit.
25
Questions at the World Summit over including water sanitation have not yet been agreed.
26
The World Summit had many good ideas but had little contribution on how to put the ideas
into practice.
27
Plants are being introduced that can flourish with little water.
Academic Test 5; Page 14
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READING PASSAGE 3
Questions 28 - 40
You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 28 – 40 which are based on
Reading Passage 2 on the following pages.
The History of Papermaking in the United Kingdom
The first reference to a paper mill in the United Kingdom was in a book printed
by Wynken de Worde in about 1495. This mill belonged to a certain John Tate and was
near Hertford. Other early mills included one at Dartford, owned by Sir John Speilman,
who was granted special privileges for the collection of rags by Queen Elizabeth and one
built in Buckinghamshire before the end of the sixteenth century. During the first half of
the seventeenth century, mills were established near Edinburgh, at Cannock Chase in
Staffordshire, and several in Buckinghamshire, Oxfordshire and Surrey. The Bank of England
has been issuing bank notes since 1694, with simple watermarks in them since at least
1697. Henri de Portal was awarded the contract in December 1724 for producing the Bank of
England watermarked bank-note paper at Bere Mill in Hampshire. Portals have retained this
contract ever since but production is no longer at Bere Mill.
There were two major developments at about the middle of the eighteenth century in
the paper industry in the UK. The first was the introduction of the rag engine or hollander,
invented in Holland sometime before 1670, which replaced the stamping mills, which had
previously been used, for the disintegration of the rags and beating of the pulp. The second
was in the design and construction of the mould used for forming the sheet. Early moulds had
straight wires sewn down on to the wooden foundation, this produced an irregular surface
showing the characteristic “laid” marks, and, when printed on, the ink did not give clear, sharp
lines. Baskerville, a Birmingham printer, wanted a smoother paper. James Whatman the Elder
developed a woven wire fabric, thus leading to his production of the first woven paper in 1757.
Increasing demands for more paper during the late eighteenth and early nineteenth
centuries led to shortages of the rags needed to produce the paper. Part of the problem
was that no satisfactory method of bleaching pulp had yet been devised, and so only white
rags could be used to produce white paper. Chlorine bleaching was being used by the end
of the eighteenth century, but excessive use produced papers that were of poor quality and
deteriorated quickly. By 1800 up to 24 million pounds of rags were being used annually, to
produce 10,000 tons of paper in England and Wales, and 1000 tons in Scotland, the home
market being supplemented by imports, mainly from the continent. Experiments in using other
materials, such as sawdust, rye straw, cabbage stumps and spruce wood had been conducted
in 1765 by Jacob Christian Schäffer. Similarly, Matthias Koops carried out many experiments
on straw and other materials at the Neckinger Mill, Bermondsey around 1800, but it was not
until the middle of the nineteenth century that pulp produced using straw or wood was utilised
in the production of paper.
By 1800 there were 430 (564 in 1821) paper mills in England and Wales (mostly
single vat mills), under 50 (74 in 1823) in Scotland and 60 in Ireland, but all the production
was by hand and the output was low. The first attempt at a paper machine to mechanise the
process was patented in 1799 by Frenchman Nicholas Louis Robert, but it was not a success.
However, the drawings were brought to England by John Gamble in 1801 and passed on to
the brothers Henry and Sealy Fourdrinier, who financed the engineer Henry Donkin to build
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the machine. The first successful machine was installed at Frogmore, Hertfordshire, in 1803.
The paper was pressed onto an endless wire cloth, transferred to a continuous felt blanket
and then pressed again. Finally it was cut off the reel into sheets and loft dried in the same
way as hand made paper. In 1809 John Dickinson patented a machine that that used a wire
cloth covered cylinder revolving in a pulp suspension, the water being removed through the
centre of the cylinder and the layer of pulp removed from the surface by a felt covered roller
(later replaced by a continuous felt passing round a roller). This machine was the forerunner
of the present day cylinder mould or vat machine, used mainly for the production of boards.
Both these machines produced paper as a wet sheet, which require drying after removal from
the machine, but in 1821 T B Crompton patented a method of drying the paper continuously,
using a woven fabric to hold the sheet against steam heated drying cylinders. After it had been
pressed, the paper was cut into sheets by a cutter fixed at the end of the last cylinder.
By the middle of the nineteenth century the pattern for the mechanised production
of paper had been set. Subsequent developments concentrated on increasing the size and
production of the machines. Similarly, developments in alternative pulps to rags, mainly wood
and esparto grass, enabled production increases. Conversely, despite the increase in paper
production, there was a decrease, by 1884, in the number of paper mills in England and
Wales to 250 and in Ireland to 14 (Scotland increased to 60), production being concentrated
into fewer, larger units. Geographical changes also took place as many of the early mills were
small and had been situated in rural areas. The change was to larger mills in, or near, urban
areas closer to suppliers of the raw materials (esparto mills were generally situated near a port
as the raw material was brought in by ship) and the paper markets.
Source: Paper Technology March 1999 / British Association of Paper Historians
Questions 28 - 34
Do the following statements agree with the views of the writer of the reading
passage on The History of Papermaking in the U.K.?
In Boxes 28 - 34 write:
YES
if the statement agrees with the writer
NO
if the statement doesn’t agree with the writer
NOT GIVEN
if it is impossible to say what the writer thinks about this
28
The printing of paper money in the UK has always been done by the same company.
29
Early paper making in Europe was at its peak in Holland in the 18th century.
30
18th Century developments in moulds led to the improvement of a flatter, more even paper.
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31
Chlorine bleaching proved the answer to the need for more white paper in the 18th and 19th
centuries.
32
The first mechanised process that had any success still used elements of the hand made
paper-making process.
33
Modern paper making machines are still based on John Dickinson’s 1809 patent.
34
The development of bigger mills near larger towns was so that mill owners could take
advantage of potential larger workforces.
Questions 35 - 40
Match the events (35 – 40) with the dates (A - G) listed below.
Write the appropriate letters in boxes 35 - 40 on your answer sheet.
35
Invention of the rag engine.
36
A new method for drying paper patented.
37
First successful machine for making paper put into production.
38
Manufacture of the first woven paper.
39
Watermarks first used for paper money.
40
The first machine for making paper patented.
DATES
A
1803
B
1757
C
1821
D
1697
E
1799
F
1670
G
1694
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ACADEMIC WRITING PRACTICE TEST 5
WRITING TASK 1
The diagrams below show how humans and plants interact to produce oxygen and
carbon dioxide.
Write a report for a university lecturer describing the information below.
You should spend about 20 minutes on this task.
Plants produce oxygen
through photosynthesis.
carbon dioxide,
co2, in
Humans and animals produce carbon
dioxide by breathing.
sunlight in
oxygen, o2, in
carbon dioxide,
co2, out
oxygen, o2,
out
water, h2o, in
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WRITING TASK 2
You should spend about 40 minutes on this task.
With all the troubles in the world today, money spent on space exploration is a
complete waste. The money could be better spent on other things.
To what extent do you agree or disagree?
You should write at least 250 words.
Academic Test 5; Page 19
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ACADEMIC SPEAKING PRACTICE TEST 5
Section 1
*
*
*
Tell me a little about your country.
What are some of the good things and some of the bad things about living in your
country?
Where would be your favourite place to live in your country? (Why?)
Topic 1
*
*
*
*
Do you ever go to libraries? (Why/Why not?)
Do you think libraries should be free or that people should have to pay to use them?
How can we get more people to use libraries?
Do you think government money for libraries could be spent on better things?
Topic 2
*
*
*
*
Libraries
Team Sports
Do you play or watch a team sport? (Why/Why not?)
Why do you think people like playing or watching team sports?
What are some of the disadvantages of playing or watching team sports?
How can we encourage younger people to play more sport?
Section 2
Describe a place that you like
You should say:
where this place is
when you first went there
what you do or did there
and explain why this place is so special for you.
Section 3
Topic 1
*
*
*
*
What kinds of places in your country are threatened by building or other types of
progress?
Do you think it is important to preserve historical areas in countries? (Why?)
How can governments protect places of interest?
What sort of places will be of interest to people in the future?
Topic 2
*
*
*
*
Places of Interest
The Environment
What kinds of pollution problems does your country face?
How can ordinary people help fight pollution?
Do you think that there should be stricter punishments for people and companies that
pollute the environment?
What sort of pollution problems do you think the world will face in the future?
Academic Test 5; Page 20
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This recording is copyright.
IELTS HELP NOW listening practice tests. Test 1. In the IELTS test you hear some
recordings and you have to answer questions on them. You have time to read the
instructions and questions and check your work. All recordings are played only once. Now
turn to Section 1.
Section 1. You will hear a conversation between a man and a woman discussing the loss of
a bag on board a plane.
First you have some time to look at questions 1 – 5.
(20 second gap)
You will see that there is an example. This time only, the conversation relating to this will be
played first.
Man
Pan Asian Airways. John speaking. Can I help you?
Wom Yes please. I left something on one of your planes last night. I got this number from the
operator. Is this the right number to call?
M
Yes, madam. This is the right number. I just need you tell me your name to start with so I
can fill out a lost property form.
W
Kirsty Allen. That’s K-I-R-S-T-Y A-L-L-E-N.
So, Kirsty is the correct answer.
Now we begin. You should answer the questions as you listen, as the recording is not
played twice. Listen carefully to the conversation and answer questions 1 to 5.
Man
Pan Asian Airways. John speaking. Can I help you?
Wom Yes please. I left something on one of your planes last night. I got this number from the
operator. Is this the right number to call?
M
Yes, madam. This is the right number. I just need you to tell me your name to start with so I
can fill out a lost property form.
W
Kirsty Allen. That’s K-I-R-S-T-Y A-L-L-E-N.
M
Right. I’ve got that. Now what happened last night?
W
Well, I was on a flight last night from New York to London that landed at 12.30am. We were
delayed a while in New York so that when we eventually landed, I was so tired that I accidentally
left my handbag on the plane.
M
Did you report this to anyone last night?
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W
No, I’m afraid not. I didn’t notice until I got home and then it was really too late to phone.
M
Very well madam. Let me take a few details for this form and I’ll see what I can do. OK, so
the name was Kirsty Allen. And what’s the address please?
W
48 Windham Road, Richmond.
M
The postcode?
W
RI6 GH7.
M
Good. I’ve got that. Now, your telephone number?
W
Well, my home number is 020 8927 7651 and my mobile is 07754 897 432.
M
I’m sorry. I didn’t catch the second one. What was the mobile again?
W
0 double 7 54 897 432.
M
Thanks. Now, do you know the flight number of the plane that you were on last night?
W
Oh yes, hang on a second. I’ve got my boarding pass stub right here. Err; the flight number
was PA 356. No, I’m sorry, PA365. That’s it: 365.
M
And does the boarding card stub say what seat you had?
W
Oh yes. It was E6.
M
And you said that it was New York to London Heathrow. Is that right?
W
Yes, that’s right.
Before the conversation continues, you have some time to look at questions 6 to 10.
(20 second gap)
Now listen carefully and answer questions 6 to 10.
M
OK then. Now I have to take some details about the bag that you lost. It was a handbag,
yes?
W
That’s right.
M
Can you describe it to me?
W
Well, I guess it just looks like any regular handbag. It’s very dark red with black handles and
the catch on the top is gold coloured.
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M
Does it have any distinguishing marks?
W
Not really. It’s quite new you see so I haven’t scratched it or anything. It’s got a brand name
but that’s just inside the bag when you open it, under the catch.
M
OK. Now, can you tell me what was inside the bag?
W
Quite a few things actually. Not my passport of course or I would never have got out of the
airport. My purse is inside and that’s got about 200 dollars and about 70 pounds cash. There is
also my credit card and some membership cards.
M
Good. I’ll just write that down. Anything else in the bag?
W
A small paperback that I was reading, some makeup, my work keys, but not my house
keys thank God and a couple of pens.
M
Have you informed the police about the loss of the card?
W
Yes and I’ve also cancelled the card with the credit company.
M
Right. Now what I’ll do is to contact the lost property, which is where your bag will have
gone if it was found. I’ll give you a call back within an hour and tell you what the situation is. If you
haven’t had a call within an hour and a half, call back this number and ask for me. My name
is John. OK?
W
Yes, that’s great John. I’ll speak to you later. Goodbye.
M
Goodbye.
That is the end of section 1. You will now have half a minute to check your answers.
(30 second gap)
Now turn to section 2.
Section 2. You will hear a man giving a welcome speech to new students at the University
of Westley. First you have some time to look at questions 11 to 14.
(20 second gap)
Now listen carefully to the welcome speech and answer questions 11 to 14.
Hello and good afternoon. My name is John Walker and I’d like to welcome you new students
to the University of Westley. What I am going to do today is just explain to you about some of
thefacilities that you will find here on our main campus and where you will find them.
If you look at the map on the overhead projector, let me talk you through some of the locations
before describing some of them in more detail. Well, at present we are in the University’s main
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lecture hall. If you go out of the main front entrance then you will see opposite across the
car park the entrance for the focal point of a lot university life for most students. This is
of course the Students’ Union. About 150 yards on the left of the Union, as you look at it
from here, is another focal point for the students (though not as popular as the Union), the
University library. Behind the library is the main University refectory where many students eat
both lunch and dinner. On the other side of the Union is the college chapel and behind that there is
a small hall of residence. There are three other halls of residence behind the Students’ Union.
Behind the hall that we are in now is the sports hall and grounds and either side of us are
academic departments with lecturers’ offices, lecture halls and various labs. You will find it all a bit
confusing at first but you’ll get to know your way around fairly quickly.
You now have some time to look at questions 15 to 20.
(20 second gap)
Now listen to the rest of the welcome speech and answer questions 15 to 20.
I’d like now to talk about a few important places on the Campus.
All students must belong to the Students’ Union if they wish to use any of its services. It is very
cheap and we certainly recommend that you join. The Union provides a bookshop covering all
the course books at the university plus lots of other titles for a range of interests. You can eat and
drink at the Union. There is a Fat Phillips on the ground floor serving a wide range of fast foods
and drinks. Then there is the main Union bar up on the First Floor. This is where the Union parties,
dances and balls are held and there’s a pizza corner where cheap and large pizzas can be served
up in a few minutes. Other areas that will be of interest to students are the Welfare Office, the
Travel Office and the Clubs’ Office. The Clubs’ office will get you in touch with all the Clubs that are
part of the Students’ Union. These clubs vary from football to drama to potholing to beer drinking.
There really is something for everyone. The Union opens up at 8 am every day and closes at 12
midnight unless there are any functions going on later.
I’d like to move onto the library now. This is where a lot of you will, I hope, be spending a lot of time
over the next three or four years working and doing research. Of course this isn’t as exciting as
the social aspects of university life but of course it really is the main reason that you are all here. I
therefore urge you to get over there as soon as you can as you have to register and then you can
have a look around. During the first two weeks of the academic year, that is, now, there are tours
every two hours aimed at familiarising new students to all the services that the library offers. The
library’s open from 9am to 9pm though it stays open later during final exams.
As I said earlier, the refectory is behind the library. The refectory offers a range of cheap meals at
lunchtime and in the evenings. It is open from 12 noon to 3 pm for lunch and from 6 pm to 8.30
pm for dinner. They try to offer a variety of food from favourites to healthy options to ethnic foods
and there is always a choice for vegetarians and vegans.
The University Sports Hall is one of the most used buildings at the University. To use the hall or the
grounds you must be a member of the Athletic Union, which is part of the Students’ Union. Again
this costs very little and will allow you to use all University sports facilities, represent University
teams and it fully insures you during your membership of the Athletic Union. This is really
excellent value.
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For departments and academic facilities, there isn’t enough time to go through all of them but your
respective departments should furnish you with maps and information that will satisfy your needs.
For all services offered at the university, I recommend that you purchase a discount plus card. This
card costs £50 and lasts for the academic year. It will then give you discounts on all services at
the university. For instance, a £4 meal at the refectory would be reduced to £2.50. It will also give
free usage of the late night mini bus that the university runs to places off campus, which normally
costs a pound. You can see that it wouldn’t take very long to make it worthwhile. The cards can be
bought at the Students’ Union.
Well, that’s what I have to say for the moment. Now, are there any questions?
That is the end of section 2. You will now have half a minute to check your answers.
(30 second gap)
Now turn to section 3.
Section 3. You will hear 2 students discussing the new term at their university. First you
have some time to look at questions 21 to 25.
(20 second gap)
Now listen carefully and answer questions 21 to 25.
Jane Hey John. I didn’t know you were here at the University yet. When did you get here?
John Oh just yesterday; Thursday. I’ve got some stuff to get sorted out for the start of my second
year as I’ve just got some new subjects. Today I’ve had to sort out my timetable. It seems like I’ve
got quite a lot to do this year. When did you get here?
Jane I’ve been here since Tuesday. What classes are you doing this year then?
John Well, I’m continuing economics of course as that’s my major but I’m taking an extra
maths class and I’m dropping Spanish so I can take up French. What about you?
Jane My major’s the same as yours of course but I’m going to continue the same classes as
last year as I liked them so much. They’re history and music. What’s your Monday timetable like?
John Well at 9, it looks like I’ve got French for 3 hours. That’s going to be a tough start to the
week!
Jane Yeah. I can’t imagine it worse. I’ve got history for three hours which will kill me. The good
thing for me is that I’ve got a free in the afternoon which will relax me after that morning.
John No such luck for me though. I’ve got that extra maths class starting then so I’ll be hard at
work all day on Mondays.
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Jane Yeah, I don’t envy you that. Still the extra maths will really help your economics in the long
run.
John I know. That’s why I’m taking it this year. Last year I really struggled with all the maths that I
didn’t understand in the economics but hopefully, this year, that will all change.
Jane What about sport? What have you chosen to do on the Wednesday sports afternoons? Are
you sticking with rowing?
John I’d love to but the rowing club storeroom got broken into and the boats were damaged so
it’s not possible till the club can get enough money to repair or replace the boats. They’re really
expensive so that’ll take quite a long time. So, as I can’t do that, I’m going to try out squash.
What about you?
Jane I’m going to the same as last year. Volleyball.
John That’s good as it’s in the main sports hall like the squash. I’ll be able to see you a lot
this year.
Jane Yeah, it looks like that. You can help me with the maths that I don’t understand.
John (laughs) Maybe. For a small fee of course.
You now have some time to look at questions 26 to 30.
(20 second gap)
Now listen to the rest of the discussion and answer questions 26 to 30.
Jane I know it’s early but do you know anything about the first assignment that we have to do?
John Yes, it’s already up on the economics faculty notice board. There’s a choice of essays up
there. I think there are about 10 you can choose from. I can’t remember any of the titles though
apart from the one that I think I’m going to write about.
Jane What’s that one then?
John It’s about the short-term future of third world economies.
Jane Ooh. I don’t like the sound of that. It seems very wide-ranging.
John It is but remember that I spent some of the summer vacation travelling in Africa and Asia
so that has made me more interested in the subject and I’ve also got some first hand ideas on the
subject.
Jane Does the essay list mention how long the essays have to be and the deadlines?
John Yes. You remember that last year all the essays had to be 3000 words in length?
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Well, that’s gone up by a thousand words!
Jane Oh no! They’ll take ages.
John I know. I was hoping that they’d stay at 3000 words or only go up to 3500, but no luck I’m
afraid.
Jane What about the deadline?
John The first one has to be in by the 30th October and the second by the 30th November. It
looks like one essay a month like last year.
Jane Well at least that hasn’t changed but as it’s the end of September now, that leaves only a
month to get the first one done. I’m going to have get onto that straight away.
John Yes, you’d better. If you want to talk about it, I’m going to be at the campus cafeteria at
1.30 for lunch. We could go over some questions.
Jane I can’t then, as I’ll be in the sports hall working out. How about 3 this afternoon at the
economics common room?
John That seems OK. We’ll be right by the economics course office where the questions are, so
that’ll be convenient for checking up on them.
Jane OK. See you then. Bye.
John Bye.
That is the end of section 3. You will now have half a minute to check your answers.
(30 second gap)
Now turn to section 4.
Section 4. You will hear part of an environmental sciences lecture. First you have some
time to look at questions 31 to 40.
(20 second gap)
Now listen carefully and answer questions 31 to 40.
Good morning everyone. My name is Professor Wilson and I am lecturing you today as part of
your environmental sciences course. Part of this course is concerned with pollution issues in our
world today and part of this lecture will look at some of ways that the oil industry has developed to
deal with oil spills around the world.
Oil tankers are the largest ships to sail in the ocean. For countries such as Japan that have no
oil deposits of their own, tankers are the only way that the oil needed to power their economies
can be moved. They are designed to hold millions of barrels of crude or refined oil in reasonable
© ieltshelpnow.com
safety and without damage to the environment. When oil is released from these ships, the oil
spreads out over the surface of the water in a large slick. These oil slicks can cover hundreds of
miles and they cause huge environmental damage. Oil is released for varying reasons. Accidents
while loading and unloading and deliberate spills account for many slicks today, but it is ships
hitting other ships or rocks, which is the major cause of slicks. Because oil slicks are so
damaging to the environment, numerous ways of containing them and cleaning them up have
been developed. In previous years, slick cleaners would sometimes try to set fire to the slicks and
burn them off but this is rarely done nowadays because, surprisingly, nearly all oil slicks
consist of compounds that aren’t flammable; combustibility comes after refining.
The four ways of cleaning up oil spills that we’ll look at today are as follows:
The Containment Boom.
Chemical Detergents.
The Sponge.
Bacteria.
The containment boom is the most common method of cleaning up after an oil spill. Barriers are
erected in the water and the oil is then sucked up. Basically a containment boom is just a large
float that surrounds and contains the slick. This method is cheap and straightforward however it
only functions in very calm seas.
Another method to clean slicks is to spray detergent solution from airplanes or boats directly onto
the spill. Depending on the detergent, two things can happen. One possible result is that the
oil can break up into clumps, which sink to the bottom of the ocean. Although these clumps are
themselves hazardous, the problems caused by the clumps are much easier to deal with than
the problems caused by oil slicks. The other possibility is that the oil then breaks down into tiny
droplets, which are soon spread and become harmless. This method is well suited to dealing
with the larger slicks. A negative aspect is that often the chemicals remain in the water and they
can kill fish and other marine life.
A Berlin-based company has developed an alternative method for cleaning up oil spills.
Eco.carbon has invented a giant sponge made of lignite resin that sucks up the oil, preventing it
from harming the environment. The sponge comes as a mat, which contains crushed coal, whose
small granules can soak up large amounts of oil. The process is safe and cheap. The sponges
have so far withstood small-scale testing in pools of water with miniature oil slicks. A unique
advantage is that once the oil is absorbed into the mat, it remains fixed there permanently. The
downside, however, is that the mats become toxic waste.
Scientists are also trying to improve other methods to fight oil spills. At the scenes of oil spills
around the world, they’ve found bacteria that seem to have an appetite for the toxic black
sludge. Now, the scientists are breeding these bacteria and studying them to determine which
is most effective at reducing oil levels. Eventually, they hope to put the best bacteria to work in
helping clean up after oil spill disasters. The bacteria actually use the oil as food. As the bacteria
reproduce, they eat more and more of the slick until it finally vanishes. Eventually this method
should be cheap, easy to administer and be completely eco-friendly as when the slick is gone,
the bacteria’s food source is gone and they die, leaving nothing behind at all. So far this method
has no discernable drawbacks.
© ieltshelpnow.com
Well, that’s the end of the section of the lecture on cleaning up spills. This subject is an optional
question for your course. You’ll find the reading lists and essay questions on the faculty notice
boards along with the deadline for submission. If you choose it, seminars will be held at a later
date.
That is the end of section 4. You will now have half a minute to check your answers.
(30 second gap)
That is the end of listening test 1. In the IELTS test you would now have 10 minutes to
transfer your answers to the listening answer sheet.
© ieltshelpnow.com
This recording is copyright.
IELTS HELP NOW listening practice tests. Test 2. In the IELTS test you hear some
recordings and you have to answer questions on them. You have time to read the
instructions and questions and check your work. All recordings are played only once. Now
turn to Section 1.
Section 1. You will hear a telephone conversation between a man and a woman discussing
a hotel reservation.
First you have some time to look at questions 1 – 6.
(20 second gap)
You will see that there is an example. This time only, the conversation relating to this will be
played first.
Barbara
Sunrise Hotel. Good Morning. Barbara speaking.
John
Hello. My name is John Griffin. I’d like to make a booking for tonight please. Are there
any rooms still available?
Barbara
Yes, there are a few left. What were you wanting?
John
Well, I’m on a business trip so I only need a single room.
Mr. Griffin is on a business trip so B is the correct answer.
Now we begin. You should answer the questions as you listen, as the recording is not
played twice. Listen carefully to the conversation and answer questions 1 to 6.
Barbara
Sunrise Hotel. Good Morning. Barbara speaking.
Man
Hello. My name is John Griffin. I’d like to make a booking for tonight please. Are there
any rooms still available?
Barbara
Yes, there are a few left. What were you wanting?
John
Well, I’m on a business trip so I only need a single room.
Barbara
I don’t think that will be a problem. Let’s look. Yes…. There’s 1 single room left. Shall
I book it for you?
John
Yes please. That would be great.
Barbara
Right then. Let me get a pen. So, what’s your name again please?
John
John Griffin. That’s J-O-H-N G-R-I-F-F-I-N.
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Barbara
OK. I’ve got that down. Wait a minute. You’ve been here before, haven’t you?
John
Yes, that’s right. I’ve stayed with you twice before.
Barbara
Well, we should have your details already. Let’s look at the cards. Here we are. So,
John Griffin… from Sydney, right?
John
Yes, that’s right.
Barbara
So, tell me if I’m wrong. John Griffin, passport number 87637489. Age 30.
John
Yes, that’s right.
Barbara
So, it’s a single room for 2 nights. Is your credit card number the same to confirm
the booking?
John
OK?
Yes, it’s the same, but I’ll want you to forward the bill to my company again, if that’s
Barbara
Oh yes, Mr. Griffin. That’s no problem at all. Your company have always settled very
promptly in the past. And, what time can we expect you tonight Mr. Griffin?
John
Well, the plane lands at 9.15pm so by the time I get through the formalities… that
should take about 20 minutes… I should be at your place at 10.00. Will the restaurant still be
open at that time as I’ll be hungry – I hate plane food!
Barbara
I’m afraid it’ll be closed by then Mr. Griffin. Can I organize some snacks to be left in
your room? A burger? Fries? Sandwiches?
John
Yes, that would be great. How about a cheese sandwich with fries?
Barbara
No problem sir. I’ll see to that. Oh the fries might be cold when you get in.
John
Ah yes. Just the sandwich then.
Barbara
No problem. Anything else Mr. Griffin.
John
No, that’s all. Thank you. See you tonight.
Barbara
See you tonight Mr. Griffin. Goodbye.
John
Goodbye.
Now you will hear a conversation between Barbara and another man, Mark. Before you hear
this, you have some time to look at questions 7 to 10.
(20 second gap)
© ieltshelpnow.com
Now listen carefully and answer questions 7 to 10.
Barbara
Oh, Mark, That was Mr. Griffin. You know that nice man from Sydney who’s
been here a couple of times before. He’s booked a single room for 2 nights from tonight.
Mark
Ah good. Wait a moment which room have you put him in?
Barbara
Err… I put him in number 22. Is that OK?
Mark
I think so. Let me just check. Oh blast. There was a booking earlier this morning. All
the singles are now gone.
Barbara
Oh dear. I’m so sorry. I didn’t realize.
Mark
Don’t worry it’s not a problem. We’ll stick him in number 34. It’s a double room but it
shouldn’t matter.
Barbara
What about the price? The double is $150 a night and he’s going to be expecting
$100 a night for the single.
Mark
Well, we don’t want to upset him. We want him to come back. Make a note that
we’ll give him the single rate and he’s got a free upgrade.
Barbara
I’m so sorry Mark. I should have let him know that there weren’t any singles left.
Mark
No, it’s not your fault. I took the booking earlier but the computers were down. I
should have made a note of the booking so that everyone knew. It’s my fault.
Barbara
Mr. Griffin has ordered a cheese sandwich to be left I his room too as the restaurant
will be closed when he gets in.
Mark
That’s no problem. Just leave a message for my wife in the order book there. She’ll
make sure that it’s prepared by the kitchen staff and then room service can take it to his room
just before he arrives.
Barbara
How much shall I charge him for the sandwich?
Mark
What is it again. Ah yes cheese. Erm… well beef and chicken are both $10 and salad
is $8. Just make it $9. That should be OK.
Barbara
OK. Thanks Mark.
That is the end of section 1. You will now have half a minute to check your answers.
(30 second gap)
Now turn to section 2.
© ieltshelpnow.com
Section 2. You will hear a news broadcast on a radio station. First you have some time to
look at questions 11 to 15.
(20 second gap)
Now listen carefully to the news broadcast and answer questions 11 to 15.
Good morning and welcome to 2RC, your local radio news service for the Westley area. And here
are your headlines for this morning.
More news from the police into the jewellery robbery that occurred last Tuesday in the centre of
town.
CompTec, the local computer hardware manufacturer has announced that it must cut 40 jobs.
New routes open up at the Westley International Airport.
Plans for the redevelopment of the Oakley Woods have been shelved.
A local cricket team make it to the regional finals.
And, get set for a heat wave.
First of all, police have released 2 descriptions for the two men wanted in connection with the
robbery at the local jewellery store, Nicholls, in the centre of town last Tuesday. At 9am, just when
the store was opening, 2 men burst through the door and demanded bags to be filled up with
jewellery. Although the 2 men were armed with baseball bats, the shopkeepers bravely attacked
them and beat them off. Although the 2 men had motorcycle helmets on, these were knocked off
during the scuffle and the shopkeepers were able to get a good look at them.
The first man is said to be about 6 foot in height, slight build, dark hair and a small moustache. He
was wearing blue jeans, a white T-shirt and a black leather jacket. The 2nd man is much shorter
– around 5 foot 8 - with a fat build and red hair and clean-shaven. He was wearing a dark blue
sweater and black jeans. They are both probably in their early 20s. The police hope to issue
photo fit pictures later today. The public are urged to call Westley police if they think they recognise
either of the 2 men.
You now have some time to look at questions 16 to 20.
(20 second gap)
Now listen to the rest of the news broadcast and answer questions 16 to 20.
CompTec last night announced that they must release 40 workers. This was blamed on a
downturn in sales and increased competition. The jobs to be lost will be a mixture of early
retirement offerings and a spread from all departments in the company.
Westley International Airport has been awarded by CheapAir, the new low cost carrier, 4 new
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routes into Europe. The new routes will be into 4 European countries though the details have not
yet been released. When the deals have been finalised, this will lead to a significant number of
jobs.
Environmentalists were delighted this morning by the news that plans by the local council to
develop the Oakley Woods area have been shelved. The Woods were to have been developed
into a shopping area but opposition from local residents and local environmental groups
has led to a turn around by the local council and they will now look for an alternative site. Westley
Green, a local pressure group, says they are ecstatic that the council has bowed to the wishes
of people in the area. Mr. George Finchly, mayor of Westley, made the announcement and
said that the committee responsible took all available information into account before taking the
decision and he hopes that Westley residents are happy that the local council are sensitive to their
wishes when making decisions.
East Moors CC, a local league cricket club has made it to the finals of the Sunday league
knockout cricket competition. They will play the final at home on Sunday 30th August against
Newbury CC. Go along and support if you’re around that day, as you’ll be assured a great Sunday
afternoon’s sport.
And finally, get set for a heat wave for the remainder of the month of August. Weather experts have
assured us that we will have 3 weeks of unbroken sunshine till the end of the month. Great news,
but those of us who are experienced with the British weather will most likely greet this news with,
“let’s wait and see!”
That is the end of section 2. You will now have half a minute to check your answers.
(30 second gap)
Now turn to section 3.
Section 3. You will hear an admissions tutor at a university interviewing a prospective
student. First you have some time to look at questions 21 to 26.
(20 second gap)
Now listen carefully and answer questions 21 to 26.
Interviewer
Hello there. It’s Robert Johnson, isn’t it?
Robert
Yes, that’s right.
Interviewer First of all, thanks for coming to this interview and thanks for applying to the
engineering department of Westley University. This is a fairly informal interview where I just get
to know you and find out what kind of person you are. There won’t be any technical questions as
we’ve got all your education background from your application form.
Robert
Oh that’s good. (laughs)
Interviewer
Now I know you have applied to us to study Civil Engineering so can you tell me
© ieltshelpnow.com
why you chose this field?
Robert
It’s a mixture of reasons really. First of all I’ve always been fascinated by building
things. Whenever the family was on holiday, I would always be interested in the local bridge and
all that. My father is a civil engineer too so he’d always be able to explain things, and it was he,
I suppose, who really fostered my interest in these things. I’m lucky as well because my best
subjects at school were maths and physics, which are the ones that are of particular use for
engineering.
Interviewer
So, you’ll be keeping it in the family then?
Robert
Yes. My brother wants to do the same thing as well so you’ll probably get an
application from him in another two years!
Interviewer Great! Now then. I notice from your application form that you took a year off between
school and university. What did you do during this year?
Robert
Well, I’d like to say that I got plenty of work experience but what I did was travel. I
went over to Australia for the year and spent the time travelling and working all around the country.
At the end I went to New Zealand and travelled around there for a couple of months.
Interviewer
What kind of work did you do out there?
Robert
It was fairly menial stuff. I delivered furniture, worked in a pub, worked in a hotel
and worked on a building site for a couple of months too.
Interviewer
Working on a building site must have been some good experience for engineering?
Robert
I suppose so. I mean it was interesting to see the brass tacks side of things and a
good engineer has to get his hands dirty my father says.
Interviewer He’s absolutely right as well. Now, why did you choose Westley University to study
Civil Engineering?
Robert
Well, first of all I know that the department has a very good reputation in this
field and, before applying, I checked out the stats and saw that the percentage of graduates going
straight into industry was very good.
Interviewer
Yes, we’re very proud of that.
Robert
I’m also very interested in mountaineering and your campus here in the
Midlands is within reasonable distance of Snowdonia so I’ll be able to go hiking at
weekends when work allows it.
Interviewer That’s good. It’s very important for students to have interests outside of their studies.
It helps deal with the stress.
Robert
I also play a lot of football and the University runs quite a few teams in the local
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leagues so I’d like to get into that.
You now have some time to look at questions 27 to 30.
(20 second gap)
Now listen to the rest of the interview and answer questions 27 to 30.
Interviewer
Is there anything you’d like to ask me about the course?
Robert
Yes. The information in the prospectus wasn’t very clear about assessment. How will
I be assessed over the four years of the course?
Interviewer Well, as it’s a sandwich course you will be working in industry for the third year
and there won’t be any exams for that year. In the first year you will have exams at the end of May.
You’ll probably have 5 papers to sit then. The second year is identical to the first year. You
have to pass the exams in these years but they won’t actually be part of your degree. In the fourth
year you will have to write a dissertation of a minimum of 15 000 words and most people use
their time in the 3rd year when they’re working to use as a basis for their dissertation. So, the 3rd
year can be spent doing the hard work for the dissertation, leaving the fourth year to polish it, and
study for your finals.
Robert
What will I have to do for the finals?
Interviewer There will be eight papers in all during June and these will be based on work
done throughout the entire course. It’s hard and a stressful time but students usually cope with it.
Anything else?
Robert
Yes, I’d like to ask about …
That is the end of section 3. You will now have half a minute to check your answers.
(30 second gap)
Now turn to section 4.
Section 4. You will hear part of a research methods lecture. First you have some time to
look at questions 31 to 40.
(20 second gap)
Now listen carefully and answer questions 31 to 40.
Good afternoon ladies and gentlemen. Welcome to this auxiliary lecture on research methods. This
lecture is not aimed specifically at one particular course but is a general lecture that will be relevant
to any student who must conduct research into a topic for his or her course. For most of you, this
will be the research that you need to do in order to write your dissertations and theses.
It has been said that first world societies are no longer industrial societies but information
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societies. That is, our major problems and tasks no longer mainly centre on the production of
goods and services necessary for survival and comfort, but rather require a prompt and accurate
flow of information on preferences, needs and behaviour. This is why surveys today are regarded
with so much importance.
What, then, is a survey? Today the word survey is used most often to describe a method of
gathering information from a sample of individuals. This way, the results can be projected from the
sample to the larger population.
An important consideration to take at the start is to decide how large a survey to perform. The
sample size required for a survey partly depends on the statistical quality needed and the
size of the total population of the area in question. Even so, there is no simple rule for sample
size that can be used for all surveys. Analysts, though, often find that a moderate sample size is
sufficient statistically and operationally. A properly selected sample of only 1,000 individuals can
reflect various characteristics of the total population but it is not always needed to sample the
entire population for your needs.
I’d like now to look at some of the types of survey available to us and the focus here will be
on methods for surveying individuals and companies. Mail, telephone interview, and in-person
interview surveys are the most common ways for doing this. The latter can be in offices, homes or
on the street.
Mail surveys can be relatively low in cost. A decent response rate though is the major problem.
Mail surveys can be most effective when directed at particular groups, such as subscribers to a
specialized magazine or members of a professional association.
Telephone interviews are an efficient method of collecting some types of data and are being used
increasingly. They lend themselves particularly well to situations where timeliness is a factor and
the length of the survey is limited. For students such as you though, cost will be an issue.
In-person interviews in a respondent’s home or office are good when complex information is to be
collected. It could involve a great deal of travelling around though. Street interviews could also
be useful as they are easy but the sampling is not very scientific.
We also need to the look at the content of our surveys. Surveys can focus on opinions and
attitudes or on factual characteristics or behaviour. Many surveys combine types of question.
Questions may be open-ended such as: “Why do you feel that way?” or closed such as:
“Do you approve or disapprove?” The questionnaire may be very brief -- a few questions, taking
five minutes or fewer -- or it can be quite long -- requiring an hour or more of the respondent’s
time. Also because changes in attitudes or behaviour cannot be reliably ascertained from a single
interview, some surveys employ a “panel design,” in which the same respondents are
interviewed on two or more occasions.
There are also certain ethics to be looked at in conducting surveys. Some of you will see that
the information that you will compile is of value to companies operating in that particular sector.
Therefore you must always bear in mind a few guidelines.
Surveys should be carried out solely to develop statistical information about a subject. They should
not be designed to produce predetermined results or as a ruse for marketing and similar activities.
The industry standard for all reputable survey organizations is that individual respondents should
never be identified in reporting survey findings. All of the survey’s results should be presented
© ieltshelpnow.com
in completely anonymous summaries, such as statistical tables and charts.
That is the end of section 4. You will now have half a minute to check your answers.
(30 second gap)
That is the end of listening test 2. In the IELTS test you would now have 10 minutes to
transfer your answers to the listening answer sheet.
© ieltshelpnow.com
This recording is copyright.
IELTS HELP NOW listening practice tests. Test 3. In the IELTS test you hear some
recordings and you have to answer questions on them. You have time to read the
instructions and questions and check your work. All recordings are played only once. Now
turn to Section 1.
Section 1. You will hear a conversation between a man and a woman as the man joins a
local library.
First you have some time to look at questions 1 – 5.
(20 second gap)
You will see that there is an example. This time only, the conversation relating to this will be
played first.
Peter Hello, I’m new in the area and I’d like to join the library please.
Will That’s no problem. Let me get an application form. Here we are. Now all we have to do is fill
this in and then I’ll get you to sign it and you’ll be a member.
P
Great
W
Now then. What’s your full name?
P
Peter Adrian Camden.
W
How do you spell Camden?
P
C-A-M-D-E-N
W
C-A-M-D-E-N
P
Yes, that’s right.
So, Camden is the correct answer.
Now we begin. You should answer the questions as you listen, as the recording is not
played twice. Listen carefully to the conversation and answer questions 1 to 5.
Peter Hello, I’m new in the area and I’d like to join the library please.
Will That’s no problem. Let me get an application form. Here we are. Now all we have to do is fill
this in and then I’ll get you to sign and you’ll be a member.
P
Great
W
Now then. What’s your full name?
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P
Peter Adrian Camden.
W
How do you spell Camden?
P
C-A-M-D-E-N
W
C-A-M-D-E-N
P
Yes, that’s right.
W
Right, and what’s your address?
P
Flat 5, 53 Green Street, Finsbury.
W
Ok. Got that. That’s near here isn’t it?
P
Yes, just 5 minutes walk.
W
What’s the post code?
P
7424.. I..I mean, sorry, 7434.
W
Got that now. Now, can you tell me your date of birth?
P
8th July 1976.
W
And, what’s your telephone number?
P
Well, I don’t have a home number but I’ve got a mobile.
W
That’ll do fine.
P
It’s 06634 982 746. Did you get that?
W
Some of it. Can you say it again?
P
The code’s 06634 and the number’s then 982 746
W
Right. That’s almost it. Now I need some kind of identification to prove where you live. Do
you have a driving license or a passport or anything like that?
P
I’m afraid that everything I have, has got my old address on it. Do you need it now?
W
No, not now, but you won’t be able to take anything out until we see that.
P
do?
Wait a minute. I’ve got a letter addressed to me here that arrived this morning. Will that
© ieltshelpnow.com
W
Oh yes. That’s a good idea. That will be fine…. Let’s look. Ok. Well, that’s that finished.
Before the conversation continues, you have some time to look at questions 6 to 10.
(20 second gap)
Now listen carefully and answer questions 6 to 10.
W
Could I ask you a few questions? The Council that runs the library is running a survey to find
out what kind of books people prefer so that they can direct their buying.
P
Yeah, no problem.
W
OK. So, what type of books do you like?
P
Well, I’m very keen on mysteries. You know, when a detective is trying to find out who did
the murder. Historical novels interest me too. Romance never! My sister loves them but they
bore me to tears. I quite like books on animals too. I get them out sometimes. Not science fiction
either. Too weird.
W
Well, I think that’s it then.
P
Good. Oh, do you charge anything?
W
The library is free unless you want to rent out some of our videos or DVDs.
P
How much is that?
W
Well, we rent videos out for $4 each and DVDs are $6. You must leave us a deposit of $60
as well. That’s returnable of course.
P
I don’t think I’ll get any of those just yet. Can I pay later?
W
Sure, just give the money in when you’re ready to rent them out.
P
Well thanks very much. You’ve been very helpful. I might take a book out now for the
weekend, if that’s OK?
W
Go ahead.
M
Well, goodbye.
That is the end of section 1. You will now have half a minute to check your answers.
(30 second gap)
Now turn to section 2.
© ieltshelpnow.com
Jim
Well, I’m a first year and I know that I’ll need to use the computer room for my work
as I don’t have a computer of my own. So, I thought I’d get down here and see what I have to do in
order to get time on one of the university’s computers.
Dave
OK. There are 4 computer labs open to undergraduates. The others can only be
used by the staff and postgraduates. The names of the 4 labs that you can use are Wimborne,
Franklin, Salisbury and Court. Wimborne and Court are in this building, the Johnson building,
Franklin is in the Computer Sciences building and Salisbury is in the library.
Jim
So I can use them whenever I like?
Dave
Well, you can use them but not whenever you like. As you can imagine they’re in
quite a lot of demand so you have to reserve your time on a computer. In each of the labs there is
a reservation book and you can reserve your time on a computer in that for 2 hours daily. If
a computer is free though you can go on it straight away. It’s quite straightforward but be sure to
always write your name in the reservation book in pen or someone can rub it out and put their
name in instead.
Jim
Oh my God! Does that really happen?
Dave
I’m afraid so. And far more often than you would think. When people are stressed
about their assignments, they’ll do anything to get some time on the computers. Better not try it
yourself though or you’ll be banned from the computers for the rest of the academic year and your
password and username will be taken away.
Jim
then?
That reminds me. I’ve got to get a username and password. How do I go about that
Dave
that. Jane!
Well, what I’ll do is pass you over to my colleague, Jane, as she’s in charge of all
Jane
Yes Dave.
Dave
I’ve got a new student here wanting to find out about usernames and passwords. Can
you help him out with that?
Jane
Yeah sure. Hi there.
Jim
Hi.
Jane
Well, it’s a straightforward process. First of all tell me your name and I’ll type it into
the system.
Jim
James Smith.
Jane
Right, let me do that. You see all students are automatically given a username and
then they just choose a password themselves. OK. So, your username is jamessmith2 – that’s all
small case. That means there must be more than one of you at the university at the moment. Well,
© ieltshelpnow.com
what do you want your password to be?
Jim
I think I’ll choose biology, as that’s the subject that I’m studying though my
girlfriend Mary will be upset that it’s not her name I’m using.
Jane
Well, that’s all done. You can now use any of the four undergraduate computer labs.
Jim
By the way, can I print out stuff at the labs?
Jane
Yes you can but sometimes it’s not quick. When you print it goes into a queue and
it will be left in a tray in Franklin, as that’s where all the main printers are. The good bit is that,
although last year it cost 3 pence per page, now it doesn’t cost you anything.
You now have some time to look at questions 28 to 30.
(20 second gap)
Now listen to the rest of the conversation and answer questions 28 to 30.
Jim
I don’t really know much about computing. Is there any training available?
Jane
Yes. We have introductory courses for all new students. There is beginner,
intermediate and advanced. Which would you like to go for?
Jim
Well, I have done some but I don’t know if I’m up to anything more than
beginner. I’d better stick with that. Intermediate could be too tough.
Jane
Well your course is in Franklin then. We’re in Court now. You know where that is?
Jim
That’s in this building too, isn’t it?
Jane
No that’s Wimborne you’re thinking about. Franklin’s over in the Computer Sciences
Building. Anything else?
Jim
I don’t know what time the course starts.
Jane
Let’s have a look then. Advanced starts at 4.30 in the afternoon on Mondays but
yours is the day after at 5 in the afternoon.
Jim
Are there any other times as I’ve got a part time job then.
Jane
Yes. You could try Thursday at 2.00 pm. How’s that?
Jim
Even worse as I’ve a tutorial then. Anything else?
Jane
No. That’s it.
Jim
I’ll have to re-arrange work then. I can’t miss the tutorial.
© ieltshelpnow.com
That is the end of section 3. You will now have half a minute to check your answers.
(30 second gap)
Now turn to section 4.
Section 4. You will hear part a university seminar given by a student. First you have some
time to look at questions 31 to 40.
(20 second gap)
Now listen carefully and answer questions 31 to 40.
Tutor
Good afternoon everyone. In today’s seminar we are going to continue listening to different
students giving us a presentation on the subject of their term paper. Now today is Hillary’s turn. So,
what are you going to talk about today Hillary?
Hillary
Well, some of you will know that I was brought up when I was young in Japan and I’m going to do
my term paper on Japan’s bullet trains, which have revolutionised their rail industry. Japan’s main
island Honshu is covered by a network of high speed train lines that connect Tokyo with most of
the island’s major cities and Fukuoka on the island of Kyushu. Japan’s high-speed trains are called
shinkansen but are known to us bullet trains. The Japanese bullet train system is credited with
being the world’s first purpose-built high-speed railway, and the model and inspiration for all other
similar type systems running today such as the French TGV. The reputation it has earned for safety,
speed and punctuality is unsurpassed. I’d like to give you some figures about that. As regards
safety, there has never been a death on the bullet train system since it’s inception in 1964, other
than that caused by deliberate passenger misadventure. As far as speed is concerned the bullet
train holds the current world records for the fastest average speed between two station stops,
which was 261.8kph between Hiroshima and Kokura. The train travelled 192.km in 44 minutes. This
record is from the 500 series “Nozomi” trains running at a maximum speed of 300km/h between
Shin-Osaka and Hakata. I’ll talk more about them later. The punctuality puts European train
services to shame. Most trains arrive at their destination, after several hours, to within the second!
In one year, the total time that all bullets trains were late by was 12 seconds! This statistic
is hard to believe but it would be difficult to prove otherwise and that’s what the rail authorities in
Japan have told us.
Now I’d like to tell you a bit about their history. The first bullet train was introduced in 1964 by
Central & West Japan Railways for the Tokyo to Osaka route. Most of these old trains have now
been discontinued. There have been several bullet train models since then. The most recent ones
have been the 300, 500 and 700 series and it’s the 500 series one that can travel at 300 kph. The
bullet trains operating in Japan today are of the three following categories: Nozomi, Hikari and
Kodama. The Nozomi trains stop only at the most important stations, and reach Osaka from
Tokyo in only about two and a half hours and it’s the most modern of bullet trains that serve as
Nozomi. Hikari trains stop a little bit more frequently than Nozomi trains, and need roughly three
© ieltshelpnow.com
hours to reach Osaka from Tokyo. Kodama trains stop at all stations and they are the local
trains among bullet trains. Older models of bullet trains serve as Kodama.
I’d like now to talk a little bit about the technology involved in bullet trains. The Shinkansen bullet
trains consist of electrically powered cars. That means basically all individual cars are equipped
with electric motor driving systems. This is in contrast to locomotive trains in which the locomotive
pulls the passenger coaches. The realization of the high-speed Shinkansen with the electric
train system had a great significance. The French “Train a Grande Vitesse” or TGV runs on
a centralized power system, in which the heavyweight, high-output locomotives at both ends
pull the passenger coaches. It’s a system suitable to European railways, which run basically
on straight tracks in wide plains with solid foundations. However it is unsuitable in Japan where
the ground is flimsy and the tracks full of curves and undulations and inter-city distances are
short, making it necessary for the trains to accelerate and decelerate frequently. One of the
advantages of the electric car system is that the motor functions as a brake to reduce the
speed of the train. When the power feed to the electric car motors is stopped, the wheels
continue revolving, keeping the motors rotating, resulting in electricity generation by
magnetic induction. As the force acts in the direction opposite to the axle’s motion, it functions
as a brake to the train. All the motors equipped on each coach can be utilized effectively to reduce
the speed, making the electric train system advantageous on Japanese railways, which involve
frequent deceleration and acceleration. In addition, by virtue of the remarkable progress
achieved recently in semiconductor technologies, the electric train system has undergone
tremendous improvements in power, operability and safety administration, so the system is
becoming increasingly advantageous.
That is the end of section 4. You will now have half a minute to check your answers.
(30 second gap)
That is the end of listening test 3. In the IELTS test you would now have 10 minutes to
transfer your answers to the listening answer sheet.
© ieltshelpnow.com
This recording is copyright.
IELTS HELP NOW listening practice tests. Test 5. In the IELTS test you hear some recordings
and you have to answer questions on them. You have time to read the instructions and
questions and check your work. All recordings are played only once. Now turn to Section 1.
Section 1. You will hear a conversation between two women as one of the women buys a
bus pass.
First you have some time to look at questions 1 – 5.
(20 second gap)
You will see that there is an example. This time only, the conversation relating to this will be
played first.
Woman 1
Good morning. I’m here to get a student bus pas please.
Woman 2
Of course Madam. Do you want to buy a month pass, a 6 month pass or a year pass?
Woman 1
Oh, just a month pass please.
So, 1 month is the correct answer.
Now we begin. You should answer the questions as you listen, as the recording is not
played twice. Listen carefully to the conversation and answer questions 1 to 5.
Woman 1
Good morning. I’m here to get a student bus pas please.
Woman 2
Of course Madam. Do you want to buy a month pass, a 6 month pass or a year pass?
W1
Oh, just a month pass please.
W2
Right then. I’ll just have to take a few details.
W1
Yes. Of course.
W2
First of all, what’s your name?
W1
Nathalie Jameson.
W2
And how do you spell Jameson?
W1
J-A-M-E-S-O-N.
W2
Thank you. And what’s your address?
W1
45 Forest Avenue, Newlands, Adelaide.
© ieltshelpnow.com
W2
Is that Forest with 1 R or 2 Rs?
W1
Just 1.
W2
And what’s the postcode please?
W1
Oh yes… It’s 8490.
W2
Thanks. Now what’s your date of birth … If you don’t mind me asking?
W1
Not at all. It’s the 13th May 1982.
W2
I also need to know your telephone number here in Adelaide.
W1
OK. I just need to check that as I only moved here last week. Now, where is it. Here
we are. It’s 6249 7152. Do you need a code or anything?
W2
Oh no, that’s OK thank you. Can I see your university card please?
W1
Yes, here it is.
W2
Good. That’s fine. Now, for which zone do you need a pass?
W1
Well, I’m not sure. I was hoping you’d be able to help me as I don’t really know my
way around here yet. As you know, I live in Newlands and I have to get to the university campus in
the centre of town every day.
W2
Well, the university is in Zone 1 and Newlands has 2 zones. The side nearer to the
town centre is Zone 5 but the far side is Zone 6. What road is it you live in again?
W1
Forest Avenue.
W2
Let’s see on this map. There it is. The nearest bus stop is in Zone 5. That’s lucky.
Zones 1 – 6 are $15 more expensive
W1
Great! Make the pass out for Zones 1 – 5 then please.
Before the conversation continues, you have some time to look at questions 6 to 10.
(20 second gap)
Now listen carefully and answer questions 6 to 10.
W1
I’ve got some other questions too if you don’t mind.
W2
Sure. Go ahead.
© ieltshelpnow.com
W1
Well, this weekend my friend and I aren’t doing anything so we thought we’d take a
trip out of town and visit somewhere new. Does the bus service run any trips like that?
W2
Yes, we’ve got a selection of trips. I’ll tell you about some of them.
W1
Thanks.
W2
Right the first one goes up to MacDonald Nature Park. The bus leaves at 8.00am
and takes about 2 hours to get there and leaves for the return at 4.30 in the afternoon. Once
there you can walk around the nature trails. It’s really nice and the Macdonald River runs through
there and that’s really beautiful so take a camera with you. Then there’s the Pearl Bay trip. The bus
leaves at 9.00am and goes up the coast to Pearl Bay.
W1
How far is that?
W2
It’s an hour away. Once there you can walk along the cliffs up to Rocky Point,
which has a famous view up the coast, or you can just lie on the beach and swim. Don’t forget
to take your swimming gear and a towel! The water’s pretty safe there and there are always
lifeguards. The bus arrives back in Adelaide at 5.00pm.
W1
Mm. That sounds nice. What else?
W2
Well there’s the Huron Gold Mine. It’s just a half-day trip leaving here at 9.30am and
arriving back at 2.00pm. It only takes half an hour to get there which is good. It’s an old worked
out mine that has been changed into a sort of museum. They have all the old equipment and a
guide takes you round some of the tunnels and shows you some of the techniques they used to
use. You might even find some gold they missed.
W1
Yeah. I could do with that.
W2
It’s pretty interesting but the mines can be quite cold so take a sweater. So, how do
those three sound?
W1
Quite interesting. I really like the idea of going up the coast and spending a day on
the beach but my friend Karen will like the idea of the nature park. I’d better wait and check out
with her what she wants to do before booking.
W2
No problem at all. You just need to pop in some time during the week and we’ll make
the booking.
W1
Thanks very much. You’ve been very helpful.
W2
No problem. See you later.
That is the end of section 1. You will now have half a minute to check your answers.
(30 second gap)
Now turn to section 2.
© ieltshelpnow.com
Section 2. You will hear a radio presenter interviewing a man about the Sydney Harbour
Bridge. First you have some time to look at questions 11 to 16.
(20 second gap)
Now listen carefully to the interview and answer questions 11 to 16.
Anne
Well, good morning again everyone and welcome to “Perspectives”, the weekly New
South Wales Radio programme on subjects of general interest from our local area. Today I have in
the studio Mr. George Symonds. Good morning George.
George
Good morning Anne.
Anne
So, what are you going to talk to us about today George?
George
Well, for people from New South Wales and particularly Sydney, this will be of great
interest – I hope. I’m going to tell you a little about Sydney Harbour Bridge.
Anne
Wow. That’ll be so interesting.
George
I think so. To start with I’d like to tell you a little about the size of the bridge. The arch
span is 503 metres and the weight of the steel arch is 39,000 tons. The summit is 134m above
mean sea level, though it can actually increase by as much as 18 cm on hot days as the result of
steel expanding in heat. The two pairs of pylons at each end are about 89 metres high and are
made of concrete and granite. The steel used for the bridge was largely imported. About 79%
came from the United Kingdom but the rest was Australian-made. The granite was quarried in
Moruya down the coast, and the concrete is also Australian.
Anne
So, most of the steel used to make our great bridge actually came from England?
George
Yes, I’m afraid so. However the work force were all Aussie!
Anne
Thank God for that. When was the bridge actually built?
George
The bridge was opened in 1932 but work first began in 1924, with the construction
of the bridge approaches and spans, with two separate teams building the arch on each side
working towards each other. The arch was successfully joined on August 19, 1930. I’m afraid that
working practices weren’t very fair in those days and the local government demolished 438
homes which were in the way of the approaches, and as many as 800 families living there
were displaced without compensation. The standards of industrial safety were inadequate too. 16
workers died during its construction, mainly from falling off the bridge.
Anne
I didn’t realise that.
George
Yes. The bridge was formally opened on the 19th March 1932 by the Premier of New
South Wales, Mr Jack Lang. When it was opened, it was the longest single span steel arch bridge
in the world and it was one of the greatest engineering masterpieces of its time. Several songs
© ieltshelpnow.com
were also composed in advance for the occasion but these have now been largely lost or forgotten.
However, three postage stamps were issued to commemmorate the opening of the bridge
and these still exist. One of these stamps, with a face value of five shillings, is now worth
several hundred dollars today.
You now have some time to look at questions 17 to 20.
(20 second gap)
Now listen to the rest of the interview and answer questions 17 to 20.
Anne
built?
So, that’s the history of the bridge. Is the bridge still the same today as when it was
George
No, it’s quite different. The basic structure is the same of course. Originally the bridge
was constructed to carry a road, two sets of tram lines and railways. In 1957, the two tram lines
were removed when Sydney abolished its trams, thus giving the bridge two more traffic lanes.
Today it carries eight traffic lanes, two railroad lanes and a footpath along its eastern side. One of
the eastern traffic lanes is now a dedicated bus lane. The bridge is often crowded and in 1992 the
Harbour Tunnel was opened to help carry the traffic load. More than 160,000 vehicles cross the
bridge each day. Before the Harbour Tunnel was opened this figure was as high as 182,000
and would be much higher today if it were not for the Tunnel. Pedestrians, horses and
pushbikes are not allowed on the bridge anymore.
Anne
Wow. The bridge actually carries that much?
George
Oh yes. Actually, before the Harbour Bridge opened, it was completely packed with
railway carriages, trams and buses to stress test its load bearing capacity. While it has had many
traffic jams since and half a million people walked across it on its 50th anniversary, it has probably
never been asked to carry that much of a load since.
Anne
Amazing. And I suppose the toll for crossing the bridge has changed a bit too?
George
I’m afraid so!! The initial toll charged for a car was 6 pence while a horse and rider
was charged 3 pence. Today the toll costs $3.00 but is only charged when travelling to the
South as an efficiency measure to speed up traffic flow.
That is the end of section 2. You will now have half a minute to check your answers.
(30 second gap)
Now turn to section 3.
Section 3. You will hear 3 students discussing a survey they are going to do. First you have
some time to look at questions 21 to 27.
(20 second gap)
Now listen carefully and answer questions 21 to 27.
© ieltshelpnow.com
Phil
ages.
Hi Mel. Hi Laura. Sorry I’m a bit late. I got held up by the bus. It just didn’t come for
Mel
chatting.
Don’t worry. You’re only a couple of minutes behind and we’ve only just been
Laura
Right then. We’re here to organise the survey that we’re going to do. Mel, you said
that you’d discuss with Professor Donald Walker what type of survey we were going to do.
Mel
Yes. I spoke to Professor Walker two days ago and I told him that the surveys that
we were considering were a telephone survey, a street survey and a mail survey. He thought that
the phone one would be too expensive for us and the postal one would take too long so we
decided we should do the street one.
Phil
I think that’s right. If we do the street one then we can get the whole thing done in
one day and we can get on with analysing the results.
Mel
Yes, that’s right. Now, there are some other things that Professor Walker wanted to
know about. How big should the survey be?
Laura
Well, the ideal figure for a survey such as this should be about 1000 people but
that will take us about a month to get that many people and we just don’t have that much time. On
the other hand, if we just choose 100 people, the survey won’t be statistically significant.
Phil
So, what about something in the middle. What about 600?
Mel
Still too many. That’ll take us ages. 400?
Laura
Let’s split the difference and say 500.
Mel/Phil
OK
Laura
And how many questions? If there are too many we’ll just have the same problem.
Mel
then?
Professor Walker said we should have no more than 10 or people get bored. 10
Phil
I think even fewer. 8.
Laura
I think 3 fewer again to make sure we can get the numbers done quickly.
Phil
OK, I agree with that.
Mel
I’m not sure but I suppose so.
You now have some time to look at questions 28 to 30.
(20 second gap)
© ieltshelpnow.com
Now listen to the rest of the discussion and answer questions 28 to 30.
Mel
Now, Professor Walker asked where we were going to do the survey.
Laura
Does he want to avoid that area then?
Mel
Probably! Now we can either all stay together or split up and do different locations.
Laura
surveyed.
Well, if we split up then I think we’ve got a better chance of getting more people
Phil
Yes. I agree with Laura.
Mel
OK. Now, I made a list of the possible locations in Westley where we could station
ourselves. There’s the town square, at the entrance to the train station, at the University cafeteria,
outside Dobbins department store, on the corner of the High Street and College road, the bus
station and the corner of the High Street and Wilkins Road. What do you think?
Phil
I think the square is great but the people at the train station will be travelling and
often in a hurry.
Laura
station.
I agree with all that and I think the bus station will have the same problem as the train
Mel
OK, that’s those two out then.
Laura
I think the other ones in town were good too. The cafeteria will have too many
students and that will create too great a bias to our survey. We need a good cross section of the
population and anywhere too close to the university won’t give us that.
Phil
Laura’s right. So, out of the other town ones, I think that the two on the High Street
corners are good.
Mel
I don’t agree. The High Street corner with College Road will be good but the corner
with Wilkins Road is too far out. Not enough people will come by there.
Laura
Yes, Mel’s right there. We should use Dobbins department store instead.
Phil
I can see your point. OK, that’s settled then. All three of us will be stationed in town
then but not the Wilkins Road position.
That is the end of section 3. You will now have half a minute to check your answers.
(30 second gap)
Now turn to section 4.
Section 4. You will hear part of a further education marine biology lecture. First you have
© ieltshelpnow.com
some time to look at questions 31 to 40.
(20 second gap)
Now listen carefully and answer questions 31 to 40.
Good morning everyone and welcome to this further education lecture on marine biology. Today we
are going to look at the coelacanth. The discovery of the coelacanth has been compared to finding
a dinosaur walking around today over 85 million years after it went extinct.
The story began a few days before Christmas in 1938 when the first living coelacanth was
discovered off the east coast of South Africa, at the mouth of the Chalumna River. The fish
was caught in a shark gill net by Captain Goosen and his crew who, recognising the bizarre
nature of their catch, alerted the local museum in the small South African town of East London.
The Director of the East London Museum at the time was Miss Marjorie Courtney-Latimer after
whom the Coelacanth was eventually named. Miss Courtney-Latimer offered bounties to
fishermen for unfamiliar fish. It was Miss Courtney-Latimer who alerted the prominent South
African ichthyologist Dr J.L.B. Smith, who initially identified the fish, and subsequently
informed the world about this amazing discovery. This first coelacanth led to the discovery of the
first documented population, off the remote Comoros Islands, between the mainland of Africa and
Madagascar. For 60 years this was presumed to be the only coelacanth population in existence.
Originally it was a concern that the Coelacanth might have a very limited range and that overfishing
along the Comoros Islands might wipe it out. However, scientists were amazed when, on July 30th
1998, an American scientist discovered a Coelacanth population in Indonesia. Dr. Mark Erdmann
was on a honeymoon trip to the area investigating a coral reef research site when he spotted a
strange fish being wheeled into the fish market. He recognized the fish as a coelacanth and
snapped a picture before it was sold.
Dr. Erdmann’s subsequent research revealed that the people from Sulawesi had a name for
it, raja, ‘king of the sea’. The Sulawesi coelacanth colony is about 10,000 km east of where the
Coelacanths were previously known to occur in the Western Indian Ocean.
Both Sulawesi and Comoros coelacanths are quite different from all other living fish. But
perhaps the most interesting feature of the Coelacanth is that it has paired, lobed fins, which
move in a similar fashion to our arms and legs. Coelacanths also have an extra lobe on their
tail and a vertebral column that is not fully developed. They are the only living animal to have
a fully functional intercranial joint, a division that separates the ear and brain from the nasal
organs and eye, and allows the front part of the head to be lifted when the fish is feeding. The
brown Sulawesi coelacanth and the steel blue Comoros coelacanth share these unusual
characteristics.
The discovery of the Coelacanth in 1938 is still considered to be the zoological find of the century.
This living fossil comes from a lineage of fish that was thought to have been extinct since the time
of the dinosaurs. Coelacanths are known from the fossil record dating back over 360 million years,
and peaked in abundance about 240 million years ago. Before 1938 they were believed to have
become extinct approximately 80 million years ago, after mysteriously disappearing from the fossil
record.
© ieltshelpnow.com
How could the Coelacanth disappear for over 80 million years and then turn up alive and well
in the twentieth century? The answer seems to be that fossil Coelacanths appeared to live in
environments with clay sedimentation with plenty of volcanic activity. Modern coelacanths, both
in the Comoros and Sulawesi inhabit caves and overhangs in vertical marine reefs, at about
200m, environments not conducive to fossil creation.
In 1991 scientists got a better understanding of the fish when the Comoros got their
independence from France and French restrictions on research were lifted. This allowed
scientists to study the fish off the Comoros Islands. As the animal hides in underwater caves some
300 to 700 feet down during the day and comes out at night to feed, diving is not an option and
previously only fishermen’s specimens had been available for study. But this time the scientists
had their own submarine so they could study the coelacanth in its natural habitat through
portholes.
That is the end of section 4. You will now have half a minute to check your answers.
(30 second gap)
That is the end of listening test 5. In the IELTS test you would now have 10 minutes to
transfer your answers to the listening answer sheet.
© ieltshelpnow.com
ieltshelpnow.com ACADEMIC PRACTICE LISTENING TESTS - ANSWER SHEET
TEST 1
TEST 2
TEST 3
TEST 4
TEST 5
1. 48
1. B
1. Green Street
1. Jacobs
1. Jameson
2. R16 GH7
2. B
2. 7434
2. Rod
2. Forest Avenue
3. 07754 897 432
3. C
3. 1976
3. Highfield
3. 8490
4. PA 365
4. A
4. 06634 982 746
4. NH 87 18 12 C
4. 6249 7152
5. E6
5. B
5. (An addressed) letter
5. Dr. (Kevin) White
5. 1 - 5
6. B*
6. B
6. A˚
6. A
6. 4.30pm
7. D*
7. 34
7. D˚
7. B
7. 1 hour
8. E*
8. $100
8. F˚
8. C
8. The cliffs
9. C
9. Room service
9. Free/nothing
9. A
9. 1.30pm
10. C
10. $9
10. $6 ($60 deposit)
10. B
10. A sweater
11. Student’s Union
11. (About) 6 foot
11. accidents*/ burns*
11. 5 pound fee
11. Mean sea level
12. University Library
12. (A) black leather jacket
12. heart surgery*/ organ
transplants*
12. University card
12. Concrete and granite
13. Hall of Residence
13. Fat
13. patients with leukaemia*
/ cancer*
13. Daily
13. About 79
14. Sports Hall
14. Clean shaven
14. premature babies*
14. Friday(s)
14. 438
15. 2 hours
15. Early 20s
15. Carrying/carry oxygen
15. 6
15. Falling
16. Final exams
16. Increased competition
16. Immune/defence System
16. 1 week
16. (Postage) stamps
17. 6pm
17. Significant number
17. Carrying/carries/carry
17. Computers
17. D˚
18. Vegetarian
18. Environmental groups
18. Outpatients
18. Non-lending section
18. F˚
19. (Fully) insures
19. Mayor
19. 4.30pm
19. Arts
19. G˚
20. £50
20. 30th
20. 17
20. Basement
20. J˚
21. Tuesday
21. Civil engineering
21. Staff
21. Tomorrow
21. Chatting/talking
22. Economics
22. Physics
22. Library
22. Reliability
22. Too expensive
23. free/nothing
23. Delivered furniture/
furniture delivery
23. 2 hours
23. 4000 words
23. Take too long
24. Squash
24. Hotel work
24. In pen
24. E-mail attachment
24. 1000
25. Main sports hall
25. (A very) good reputation
25. Biology
25. Market surveys
25. Statistically significant
26. About 10
26. Hiking/mountaineering
26. Tray
26. Stack system
26. 500
27. Africa and Asia
27. Sandwich
27. Nothing
27. Plagiarism/using their
conclusions
27. 5
28. 4000 words
28. 5 exams
28. A
28. Extension
28. A*
29. 30th October
29. 15,000 words minimum
29. B
29. Doctor’s note / certificate
29. D*
30. B
30. June
30. C
30. Mortgage interest rates
30. E*
31. C
31. Dissertations and theses
31. 1964
31. B
31. E
32. B
32. Information societies
32. Fastest average speed
32. B
32. A
33. B
33. Statistical quality
33. 12 seconds
33. A
33. D
34. B
34. Low in cost/cheap
34. Most important stations
34. Seismic detection system
34. B
35. Very calm seas
35. Expensive/the cost
35. All stations
35. Buoys (at sea)
35. A
36. Larger slicks
36. Travelling (around)
36. Centralised power system
36. Offshore landslide
36. C
37. Toxic waste
37. Easy
37. Flimsy
37. No wave/zero feet
37. B
38. Eco-friendly
38. Closed
38. Brake
38. Submarine earthquake
38. B
39. No (discernable)
drawbacks/none
39. Panel design
39. Magnetic Induction
39. 26,000 people
39. A
40. Deadline for submission
40. (Completely) anonymous
summaries
40. Semiconductor technologies
40. None
40. B
* Answers for qu. 6, 7, + 8: these answers
in any order.
˚ Answers for qu. 6, 7, + 8: these answers
in any order.
* Answers for qu. 11, 12, 13 + 14: any 4
from these answer boxes in any order.
˚ Answers for qu. 17, 18, 19 + 20:
these answers in any order
* Answers for qu. 28, 29, + 30: these
answers in any order
© ieltshelpnow.com
ieltshelpnow.com ACADEMIC PRACTICE READING TESTS - ANSWER SHEET
TEST 1
TEST 2
TEST 3
TEST 4
TEST 5
1. A
1. YES
1. C
1. viii
1. vii
2. D
2. NO
2. G
2. vi
2. i
3. B
3. YES
3. F
3. xi
3. v
4. D
4. YES
4. A
4. iii
4. iv
5. B
5. NOT GIVEN
5. E
5. ii
5. Air/oxygen
6. C
6. NOT GIVEN
6. B
6. vii
6. The fuel load
7. A
7. YES
7. YES
7. A
7. In the afternoon
8. B
8. G
8. NOT GIVEN
8. B
8. Embers
9. reptiles
9. E
9. NOT GIVEN
9. B
9. Backfire(s)
10. expanding
10. A
10. YES
10. C
10. Ratio (of fuel)
11. diversity
11. C
11. YES
11. YES
11. The wind
12. behaviour
12. B*
12. NO
12. YES
12. Crown fires
13. success
13. E*
13. YES
13. NOT GIVEN
13. Uphill
14. viii
14. D*
14. NO
14. NO
14. LG
15. i
15. NOT GIVEN
15. NO
15. LC
15. MM
16. x
16. FALSE
16. NO
16. PK
16. LG
17. vii
17. TRUE
17. YES
17. MB
17. ME
18. v
18. NOT GIVEN
18. YES
18. MB
18. GB
19. iii
19. TRUE
19. NOT GIVEN
19. JC
19. FR
20. NO
20. TRUE
20. NOT GIVEN
20. BM
20. LG
21. YES
21. FALSE
21. YES
21. LC
21. ME
22. NO
22. Accepted
22. Clear
22. D
22. NOT GIVEN
23. NOT GIVEN
23. Originating
23. 95%
23. C
23. FALSE
24. NOT GIVEN
24. Ice cores
24. Mouth lining / Skin
24. F
24. NOT GIVEN
25. NOT GIVEN
25. Darkness
25. 10 - 20
25. A
25. TRUE
26. NO
26. Sea
26. None
26. E
26. FALSE
27. YES
27. Unknown
27. D
27. B
27. TRUE
28. AP
28. viii
28. v
28. NOT GIVEN
28. TRUE
29. RH
29. ix
29. viii
29. TRUE
29. NOT GIVEN
30. PJ
30. vi
30. i
30. TRUE
30. TRUE
31. BB
31. xi
31. iii
31. NOT GIVEN
31. FALSE
32. TB
32. i
32. vi
32. FALSE
32. TRUE
33. SB
33. iii
33. TRUE
33. Kinetic energy
33. TRUE
34. PJ
34. Epicarp
34. NG
34. The head
34. FALSE
35. PL
35. Mesocarp
35. FALSE
35. Seasonal water flow
35. F
36. FALSE
36. Endocarp
36. TRUE
36. Renovated
36. C
37. TRUE
37. Wet milled
37. NOT GIVEN
37. 15%
37. A
38. TRUE
38. Overnight
38. Quality assurance
program
38. Volume over time
38. B
39. FALSE
39. Raked
39. Breeding females
39. At night
39. D
40. NOT GIVEN
40. The customers’ specifications
40. Venison market project
40. Decomposing flooded
vegetation
40. E
* Answers for qu. 12,
13 + 14 in any order
© ieltshelpnow.com
Example Writing Answers for the ieltshelpnow.com Academic
Practice Tests
Below you will find example writing answers for all the writing questions in the ieltshelpnow.com
Academic Practice Tests. Some of these example essays were written by IELTS students and
some were written by an IELTS examiner in order to give an example of a good answer. Please
refer to the question papers while you are reading these answers so that you understand the
question that is being answered. After each of the example answers, an IELTS examiner has
written a short commentary analysing the good and bad points of the answer. We hope this will
give you an insight into how the writing answers should be written for IELTS Academic module.
Academic Writing Practice Test 1
Task 1
In this report I will describe a bar chart that shows the estimated world illiteracy rates by
gender and region for the year 2000.
First I will look at male illiteracy for the 6 areas shown. The lowest rates were in Developed
Countries, Latin America/Caribbean and East Asia/Oceania with rates of 1% (approximately),
10% and 8% (approximately) respectively. The rates for the next three areas were much
higher and quite similar to each other. Sub-Saharan Africa, the Arab States and South Asia
had rates of approximately 31%, 29% and 34%.
Female illiteracy was much higher relatively in each area except Latin America/Caribbean
where it was only slightly higher. The lowest rates for female illiteracy were again Developed
Countries, Latin America/Caribbean and East Asia/Oceania with rates of approximately 2%,
12% and 20%. Again the rates for the next three areas were much higher and quite similar to
each other. Sub-Saharan Africa, the Arab States and South Asia had rates of approximately
48%, 52% and 56%.
This ends my report.
(168 words)
Estimated IELTS Writing Band 9
Commentary on the above answer.
This letter was written by an IELTS examiner to give an example of a good answer. Please
remember that there are other ways of approaching this question that are just as good.
The Academic Task 1 Writing is marked in 3 areas. Let’s look at these.
Task Fulfilment This mark grades you basically on whether you have answered the question or
not. To answer this question correctly the examiner looks to see whether a report has been written
which wholly describes the bar chart with appropriate, accurate detail. Because there is not a lot
of information on the bar chart, an appropriate amount of detail here would be all the figures for all
the areas for males and females. Looking above we see a report has been produced and that all
the detail required is there and it is all accurate. The word limit has also been achieved. This would
mean a good task fulfilment band.
Cohesion and Coherence These two are interrelated which is why they are done together.
Cohesion is how your writing fits together. Does your writing with its ideas and content flow
logically? Coherence is how you are making yourself understood and whether the reader of your
writing understands what you are saying. To start with the structure helps cohesion. There is a
small introductory paragraph saying what the report is about and there is a short closing sentence
to finish the report. In between there are 2 paragraphs, one for male illiteracy and the second
for female illiteracy. This is a good approach to describing this bar chart. The report also has
good cohesion linguistically. It is sometimes difficult when writing these types of report with lots
of numerical detail to make sure that the reader always understands which detail refers to which
relevant item. Here the writer only describes 3 areas at a time and uses respectively to make
clear the order. The coherence in the report is also very good. The reader notices bad coherence
when he has to stop because he cannot understand what has been written for any reason. This
report can be read straight through without stopping. The sentences are short and clear and
none of the information is muddled or disorganised. The good grammar, word choices, structure
and punctuation all help to giving the report good coherence. This report would get a very good
cohesion and coherence band.
Vocabulary and Sentence Structure With Vocabulary the examiner looks at the range of words
used and whether they are used in the right place and at the right time. With Sentence Structure,
the examiner looks at the grammar. The word choices in this report are good. All the vocabulary is
clear, used in the right way and spelled correctly. The grammar is also good. All the verb forms are
accurate and all the other grammar is correctly used. The report would get a very good Vocabulary
and Sentence Structure band.
Task 2
What young people should study at school has long been the subject of intense debate and
this is a question that certainly does not have one correct answer.
We need to provide young people the best possible chance of doing well at school. In
traditional curriculum there is a wide variety of subjects with a mix of academic and nonacademic subjects. In this way a young person is formed with a rounded education. Nonacademic subjects would include sports, cooking, woodwork and metalwork. I believe this is
the best form of education. A young person should learn things other than academic subjects.
Sport is particularly important. Young people have to learn to love sport so that they can be
fit and healthy later in life. If not we will be raising an obese and unfit generation.
I totally understand the point of view that education is so important that students must be
pushed as hard as possible to achieve their best. It sounds a good idea to only expose the
students to academic subjects as then they can spend all of their school hours on studying
areas that will get them into university and good jobs later in life. I just feel a more rounded
education would produce a better individual. We must remember too that a lot of people,
maybe even most people, aren‛t academically minded and would benefit more from a more
vocationally based education. Forcing academic studies onto them would lead to failure and
the student leaving school too early.
Therefore I agree that although a wholly academic curriculum would suit and benefit
some young people, I believe that for most students non-academic subjects are important
inclusions still in today‛s syllabuses.
(283 words)
Estimated IELTS Writing Band 9
This essay was written by an IELTS examiner to give an example of a good answer. Please
remember that there are other ways of approaching this question that are just as good.
The Academic Task 2 Writing is marked in 3 areas. Let’s look at these.
Arguments, Ideas and Evidence This band grades the essay on its content, how it structures
its ideas and backs up the ideas with examples. When you look at the above essay, you are first
struck by how the it is set out with the paragraphs. Firstly there is a short introduction. Then there
are 2 paragraphs that provide the ideas and evidence on both sides of the question of the essay
with the writer starting to put forward his point of view. Finally there is a conclusion where the
question is answered by the writer with his point of view. The writer examines both sides of the
argument and shows that it is not an issue that is black or white. The minimum word limit of 250
words has also been passed so that is not a problem. All these things would lead to a good band
for Arguments, Ideas and Evidence.
Communicative Quality This mark grades the candidate on how easily the reader understands
the essay. This depends on accuracy in grammar, punctuation and vocabulary, as bad grammar,
punctuation and vocabulary will cause a breakdown in communication. Other things affecting
communication would be structure, linking words, prepositions and agreements. The paragraphing
is the first thing that helps the communicative quality. As said above the paragraphing is very good.
It splits the essay up into easy-to-read chunks and separates the ideas of the essay into these
chunks. The grammar, punctuation and vocabulary are all very good and all the linking words,
prepositions and agreements are all correctly used. The Communicative Quality in this essay
therefore is very good.
Vocabulary and Sentence Structure With Vocabulary the examiner looks at the range of
words used and whether they are used in the right place and at the right time. With Sentence
Structure, the examiner looks at the grammar. As pointed out in the section above, the Vocabulary
and Sentence Structure are very good. All word usage is correctly used and spelt correctly. The
grammar is all error free and the punctuation is good. The Vocabulary and Sentence Structure
band would be very good.
Academic Writing Practice Test 2
Task 1
The chart shows unemployed spend their time in many different things. In the morning
19% men do housework with 49% women. In the afternoon this number is only 7% and 21%
for housework. 20% of men and 26% of women shop in the morning but only 9% of men and
17% of women shop in the afternoon. For job hunting 22% of men and 16% of women do it
in the morning and 12% of men and 13% of women in the afternoon. 6% of men and 10% of
women visiting friends or relatives in the morning and 12% of men and 17% of women do it
in the afternoon. These four activities are the most popular. There are others with smaller
percentages: gardening, watching TV, reading, decorating, walking, doing nothing or sitting
around, staying in bed, visiting town, playing sport and drinking. Drinking is the least popular
activity looking at the figures overall with only 2% of men and 1% of women doing it on the
morning and 3% of men and 1% of women doing it in the afternoon.
(181 words)
Estimated IELTS Writing Band 7
IELTS Examiner Commentary
This letter was written by a Chinese IELTS student in the middle of an IELTS practice course.
The Academic Task 1 Writing is marked in 3 areas. Let’s look at these.
Task Fulfilment This mark grades you basically on whether you have answered the question
or not. To answer this question correctly the examiner looks to see whether a report has been
written which wholly describes the chart with appropriate, accurate detail. In this chart there is a
large amount of detail and with only 150 words the examiner would not expect to see every single
figure quoted. The examiner would look to find the most important details and a few describing
the general trends. Firstly I would not say that this is a great report as there is no introductory or
finishing sentence. The report isn’t too bad at all though in terms of detail. It outlines the four most
popular activities and specifies the percentage for both men and women for the mornings and the
afternoons. The other activities are listed with only the last one having percentages. This, I feel,
is an appropriate amount of detail for a report on this chart. It could have been slightly better. The
gardening figures for men were quite high and TV was watched a lot in the afternoon. There is also
no general comparison between men and women. As far as accuracy goes, all the detail quoted is
correct. It’s only a 150 word report though and you can’t put too much detail in. This report would
get a reasonably good Task Fulfilment band.
Cohesion and Coherence These two are interrelated which is why they are done together.
Cohesion is how your writing fits together. Does your writing with its ideas and content flow
logically? Coherence is how you are making yourself understood and whether the reader of your
writing understands what you are saying. Firstly the structure of this report is not good. As pointed
out earlier, there is no introductory or finishing sentence. The writing is all in one lump with no
paragraphing. Paragraphing can really help cohesion and coherence by allowing the writer to
divide up separate parts of the report and so make it easier to read and understand. Apart from
that the cohesion isn’t bad. The sentences are short and clear and the progression of ideas is
logical following the order of the chart. As a result of the reasonable cohesion, the coherence
isn’t too bad either. It’s a bit difficult to read as it’s all 1 paragraph and some expressions are a bit
awkward but these are the only things that makes the coherence difficult. This report would get a
reasonable cohesion and coherence band.
Vocabulary and Sentence Structure With Vocabulary the examiner looks at the range of words
used and whether they are used in the right place and at the right time. With Sentence Structure,
the examiner looks at the grammar. The vocabulary in this report isn’t too bad though there are a
couple of obvious errors: (in many different things; make housework). The grammar is mostly
good though again with some noticeable slips. A lot of the verbs are in the present tense when
describing the past but the chart is from 1982. Verbs describing the chart are fine in the present
tenses as the chart exists now (ie: The chart shows – the chart exists in the present so the
present simple here is fine). But when referring to the activities in the past, the past tenses must
be used (Unemployed spend their time; women shop in the morning – These verbs refer to
1982 so the verbs should be spent and shopped). The is also missed out several times and there
is one other verb tense problem from probably copying too much from the chart (6% of men and
10% of women visiting friends). Apart from these areas, the grammar is OK and the report would
get a quite good Vocabulary and Sentence Structure band.
Task 2
The animal experimentation is very dificult issue with a lots of people feeling very strongly of
it, we are use the animals for the experimentation in diferent way, one of most big problem
is for test the cosmetics, the images of animals with things put in there eyes for so we are
able to look a bit better make many people very angry. Is it necessary. The companies such as
the body shop said that they do not experiment on animals and they produce good cosmetics
who make money, I am not agree that making the cosmetics that make our faces better does
not mean the animals must suffering in terrible ways, it does not seem moral for me. On the
other hand we also use the animals for test the new drugs. Without these new drugs people
die and suffer when they need not, some of the people believe that the animals should not
suffer and die so that we can avoid it, I am not agree here, these people will change the
minds when it is they who are die or one of their children, it is sad that the animals have to
suffer for this thing but here I believe that the suffering is justify. Is there alternative
to the animal experimentation. I‛m not expert but I dont think so, the monkeys are most
near biology animals and without test to them, we cannot sure of affects of the new drugs,
we test on humans also but only when we know the drugs not a problem to us, the testing on
humans without the tests on the animals could make the tragedies. So in conclusion I do not
believe that the animal testing is justify for not esential things but for esential things I
believe that there is not choice and it is justify.
(307 words)
Estimated IELTS Writing Band 6
IELTS Examiner Commentary
This essay was written by a Pakistani IELTS student studying in the UK.
The Academic Task 2 Writing is marked in 3 areas. Let’s look at these.
Arguments, Ideas and Evidence This band grades the essay on its content, how it structures
its ideas and backs up the ideas with examples. First of all this essay is not set out as an essay
should be. It is all together in one big lump that shows a lack of organisation. Apart from that
though the essay is relevant to the question and has good ideas with examples to back them up.
This essay would get a quite good band for Arguments, Ideas and Evidence.
Communicative Quality This mark grades the candidate on how easily the reader understands
the essay. This depends on accuracy in structure, grammar, punctuation and vocabulary, as
bad grammar, punctuation and vocabulary will cause a breakdown in communication. The worst
problem affecting the Communicative Quality is the lack of organisation in the structure. The
entire essay is in one big paragraph and the punctuation within the paragraph is poor. There are
too many commas and not enough full stops. This makes the reader go from one sentence into
another without realising it and the change of meaning from one sentence to another makes the
reader have to stop and go back to find out when the change of meaning happened. On top of
this the spelling and grammar is often faulty and this makes it difficult for the reader. Connecting
language is not used that well either though there is some good usage (On the other hand). So,
this essay would not get a good band for Communicative Quality.
Vocabulary and Sentence Structure With Vocabulary the examiner looks at the range of words
used and whether they are used in the right place and at the right time. With Sentence Structure,
the examiner looks at the grammar. The word choices themselves in the essay are not bad at
all but their spelling is not that good. As pointed out above the grammar is not good. There are
problems with articles (experimentation is highly difficult issue; for the experimentation),
tense choice and formation (are use; is justify; must sufering), verb patterns (for test),
prepositions (very strongly of it; not a problem to us; test to them), superlatives (most big
problem; most near) amongst others. The punctuation is also bad. The writer has used commas
mostly instead of full stops and he doesn’t use question marks for his questions. This essay would
not get a very good band for Vocabulary and Sentence Structure.
Academic Writing Practice Test 3
Task 1
In this report I am describing 2 charts: a line graph and a pie chart. The line graph show the
relationship between age and crime in 2002 and the pie chart show the types of property
crime in the UK in 2002.
The line graph show that most crime is committed early in the life of most criminal. From
birth to age 8 the crime rate is 0%. At 12 year crime is starting to be committed with 2% of
12 year olds doing crimes. At 16 year old there is a huge jump up to a rate of 70% of crimes
done by 16 year olds. This is even higher at age 20 with a rate of 80%. After age 20 there
is a sharp fall going down to 60% at age 24 and then an even sharper fall to 20% at age
24. From age 28 to 44 there is a slow decline in crime rate to 10%. From age 44 to 60 this
decline slows further finishing at 8%.
The pie chart split property crime into 4 types. The biggest is violent crime at 46% followed
by property crime at 23%. Drug crime is just below at 22% and the smallest is public order
crime at 9%.
(210 words)
Estimated IELTS Writing Band 7
IELTS Examiner Commentary
This letter was written by a Thai IELTS student at his college
Academic Task 1 Writing is marked in 3 areas. Let’s look at these.
Task Fulfilment This mark grades you basically on whether you have answered the question or
not. To answer this question correctly the examiner looks to see whether a report has been written
which wholly describes the chart with appropriate, accurate detail. This question has 2 charts to
describe. The line graph has a reasonable amount of detail but the pie chart has only 4 sections
to describe. What I would expect for a good report here would be for the report to describe the
trend of the line graph well giving the all the detail for the large increases between 12 and 28 years
and generalising a bit more from 28 to 60 years. I would expect all 4 sections of the pie chart to
be described with the percentages. At first glance the writer has given a proper report with an
introduction and the information for the 2 charts being put into separate paragraphs. There is no
closing sentence but this is not that important. The report actually follows the outline above on how
I would expect a good report for these charts to be. The trend of the line graph is well described
with the correct detail and the pie chart’s 4 sections are all described with the detail for each
section. There is one small inaccuracy. Age 24 for the line graph is repeated and so 2 separate
percentages are quoted for 1 age. The second percentage should have been for age 28. This
is just a small slip and not vital. Finally the length is fine. It’s actually quite long but there are no
marks taken away for going over the limit. The writer must just be sure that he has given himself
enough time to write the Task 2. This report would get quite a good Task Fulfilment band.
Cohesion and Coherence These two are interrelated which is why they are done together.
Cohesion is how your writing fits together. Does your writing with its ideas and content flow
logically? Coherence is how you are making yourself understood and whether the reader of your
writing understands what you are saying. As pointed out above the structure is good and so helps
the cohesion and coherence. There are 2 good introductory sentences and then the information is
divided up into 2 clear paragraphs. The writing is not very elegant but by using short sentences the
writer avoids referencing problems. These short sentences are the key to this report’s success. In
long sentences, the meaning and “thread” of the writing can get lost and confused. Because the
writer does not give himself “room” to make these errors, the cohesion and coherence are both
quite good.
Vocabulary and Sentence Structure With Vocabulary the examiner looks at the range of words
used and whether they are used in the right place and at the right time. With Sentence Structure,
the examiner looks at the grammar. The vocabulary of this report isn’t bad. There could be more
variety in the second paragraph but the words used to describe the big trend movements are
all accurate and appropriate. There are a few mistakes in the grammar. The verb tenses and
agreements in the verbs are fairly inaccurate (I am describing; the line graph show; the pie
chart show; crimes are done; The pie chart split). There are a couple of missed plurals too
(At 12 year crime; at 16 year old) but there is good grammar too with good use of to be and
superlatives in the last paragraph. This would get a reasonable Vocabulary and Sentence Structure
band.
Task 2
Internet is new thing. When I was young, it was no internet. But now everybody has computer
and everybody can find what they want on internet like news, football, money, wether.
Nowaday we can also find newspaper on internet. I think this is good ting. If you want in
the morning you can go shopping and buy newspaper at shop. This is easy and no expensive.
Then you have newspaper all the day. You can read when you want. But on internet you can
also read when you want and it no cost nothing more. So, why spend money on newspaper in
shop when you can see newspaper when you want on computer and no spend money. It is very
easy. However you can no take computer when you want. You can no take computer to beach
and read newspaper. You can no take computer on bus and train and plane to read newspaper.
Then it is better to take newspaper. Me I prefer to buy newspaper in shop so then I can read
newspaper when I like. So some people like read newspaper on computer and this is OK but
I think that the world always need newspaper on paper as well. Newspaper will no become a
thing of the past.
(212 words)
Estimated IELTS Writing Band 5
IELTS Examiner Commentary
This essay was written by a Korean IELTS student doing an IELTS preparation course.
The Academic Task 2 Writing is marked in 3 areas. Let’s look at these.
Arguments, Ideas and Evidence This band grades the essay on its content, how it structures
its ideas and backs up the ideas with examples. The main problem with this essay is the length. If
an essay for the Academic Writing Task 2 does not equal or exceed 250 words the essay will be
penalised on Arguments, Ideas and Evidence. The maximum band that can be awarded in this
area for under length essays is 5 though it can be lower. The essay is also not set out as an essay.
All the writing is one big chunk. So, the writer has not really produced an “essay”. It is not a thought
out piece of writing. As far as content is concerned the writer has made a reasonable attempt to
answer the question though he has been a bit repetitive. There are a couple of examples to back
up the ideas but really the essay needs more ideas and examples to get a good band. So the
Arguments, Ideas and Evidence band would not be very good for this essay.
Communicative Quality This mark grades the candidate on how easily the reader understands
the essay. This depends on accuracy in structure, grammar, punctuation and vocabulary, as bad
grammar, punctuation and vocabulary will cause a breakdown in communication. Other things
affecting communication would be structure, linking words, prepositions and agreements. As
pointed out above the structure is bad and this does not help the Communicative Quality. Essays
that are set out in easy-to-read paragraphs are much easier to understand for a reader. The
punctuation and vocabulary are fine here but the grammar is not very good. The linking words
however are quite well used (But; Then; So; However; etc…) and this helps the Communicative
Quality a lot. The Communicative Quality band here would therefore be not too good but not too
bad either.
Vocabulary and Sentence Structure With Vocabulary the examiner looks at the range of words
used and whether they are used in the right place and at the right time. With Sentence Structure,
the examiner looks at the grammar. The Vocabulary choices are not too bad in this essay though
the spelling is not very good. Any minor errors in word choice are still understandable. Grammar is
fairly weak. Articles throughout are not well used and verbs are often faulty. Negatives and plurals
are not good in this essay. The Sentence Structure band for this essay wouldn’t be very good.
Academic Writing Practice Test 4
Task 1
On graph on 1997 11 million dollar is sell on intrnet, on 1998 is small ris to16 million dollar, on
1999 is mor ris to 19 million dollar, on 2000 rise is mor smal 22 million dollar. The 2001 21
million dollar and 2002 24 million dollar. 1997 to 2003 is ris 13 million dollar. On chart is 4
parts most big is englnd 81% books bought on internet, next scotland 10% next wales 8%, last
is northern ireland 1%. This mean that mor money is spend in england on books on intrnet.
(92 words)
Estimated IELTS Writing Band 4
IELTS Examiner Commentary
This report was written by an Indian lady on an IELTS preparation course.
The Academic Task 1 Writing is marked in 3 areas. Let’s look at these.
Task Fulfilment This mark grades you basically on whether you have answered the question or
not. To answer this question correctly the examiner looks to see whether a report has been written
which wholly describes the chart with appropriate, accurate detail. The first thing that one notices
is that the report is considerably under length. By not writing the required 150 words the writer is
not answering the question and so is penalised under Task Fulfilment. If fewer than 150 words are
produced then only a maximum band of 5 (less than 5 can also be given) can be awarded for Task
Fulfilment. Apart from that the writer has made an attempt to describe the two charts. Unfortunately
some of the detail that is included is inaccurate. The 2001 figure from the line graph is wrong and
the writer has also mixed up two of the sections of the pie chart: Scotland is quoted at 10% and
Wales at 8%. The financial detail given in the report is also all given in dollars while the graph gives
the detail in pounds sterling. Because of all these errors this report cannot get a very good Task
Fulfilment band.
Cohesion and Coherence These two are interrelated which is why they are done together.
Cohesion is how your writing fits together. Does your writing with its ideas and content flow
logically? Coherence is how you are making yourself understood and whether the reader of your
writing understands what you are saying. Cohesion isn’t too bad in the report. There is so little
writing that there is not much to join together. The writing consists of short sentences that are not
elegantly put together. There aren’t many cohesion errors but there is little style in the writing. The
coherence is very problematic. The lack of punctuation allows the sentences to run into each other
and it is difficult for the reader to know when one sentence ends and the next begins. This with the
big grammar and spelling errors make it very difficult to understand and read quickly. This report
would get a poor Cohesion and Coherence band.
Vocabulary and Sentence Structure With Vocabulary the examiner looks at the range of words
used and whether they are used in the right place and at the right time. With Sentence Structure,
the examiner looks at the grammar. The vocabulary in the report is very limited in range but there
are no very bad word choices. The grammar in this report is terrible. Most of the verb forms are
inaccurate, there are inaccurate prepositions, plurals are missing, articles are missing, the verb
to be is often missing and comparatives and superlatives are inaccurate. The problem with the
punctuation is that there seem to be commas instead of full stops in many places. The Vocabulary
and Sentence Structure band would be very poor for this report.
The above report is useful as an illustration of how a bad report is written. Below you will find a
good version written by an IELTS examiner answering the same question. Please remember that
there are other ways of approaching this question that are just as good.
In this report I am going to describe 2 charts.
The first is a line graph that records the amount of money (in pounds sterling) spent on books
on the internet in the UK from 1997 to 2002. In 1997 £11 million were spent. This rises by
£5 million by 1998. The increase in money spent then rises less rapidly through 1999 (£19
million), 2000 (£22 million) and 2001 (£23 million) until 2002 when £24 million were spent.
This gives a total increase from 1997 to 2002 of £13 million.
The second is a pie chart that shows the relative percentages of books bought on the
internet in the UK individual countries. England is where by the far the most books are
bought with 81% of the market. Wales comes next with 10% closely followed by Scotland
with 8%. Northern Ireland lies last with only 1% of the market.
This ends my report.
(153 words)
Estimated IELTS Writing Band 9
Task 2
Last 150 year the medecine make too much important cure for bad diseaze. Now you no hear
of people dying of colere, tubercule or other killer. It is because the medecine to stop it is
no expinsive and easily to find. Nowaday we have other diseaze for fight against for example
the AIDS and the cancer. The drugs are use to treat this diseazes and slow there affects
can be find in west but in more poor countrys the people cannot pay it so people are die for
no reazon. I think drug companys should be obliged to make there products at smal prices
in poor countrys or allow cheaper one to be made in those countrys. They are still make the
mony and nevertheless they are make more of mony if many of people buys cheap copies
rather than no one buying the expinsive one. Anyway if they dont, companys in the mor poor
countrys will produce the copies anyway. In Inde many drugs are copy and sell ilegal. The
people from more rich countrys go to there for buy the drugs they want with a more cheap
price. Some drug companys have promissed that they will give the drugs at a more cheap
price. A company promised for example anti AIDS drugs to South Africe. Nowaday it seems
the promises are just the words in the air and no action or drugs go to the millions of AIDS
sufferers there.
Therefor I am really believe that drugs companys should give the low cost drugs to mor
poor countrys. It is a question of people die just to help the business dollar. It is imoral and
indefendable no matter what companys say about there busines interests.
(284 words)
Estimated IELTS Writing Band 6
IELTS Examiner Commentary
This essay was written by a Japanese IELTS student studying in the UK.
The Academic Task 2 Writing is marked in 3 areas. Let’s look at these.
Arguments, Ideas and Evidence This band grades the essay on its content, how it structures its
ideas and backs up the ideas with examples. The structure with the one big paragraph and short
conclusion means this is not set out as a proper essay should be. The content though is mainly
directed at the question and has examples to back up the ideas. In the conclusion the writer draws
on his essay to give his opinion and fully answers the question. The band for Arguments, Ideas and
Evidence will be quite good though the structure does spoil it a bit.
Communicative Quality This mark grades the candidate on how easily the reader understands
the essay. This depends on accuracy in structure, grammar, punctuation and vocabulary, as
bad grammar, punctuation and vocabulary will cause a breakdown in communication. The
Communicative Quality here is not that good. The structure does not help, with most of the writing
being grouped in one paragraph. In addition to this the grammar and spelling are all quite poor and
this makes reading the essay not as easy as it should be. Some of the sentences, expressions and
vocabulary are a bit awkward too. This would lead to a middling Communicative Quality band.
Vocabulary and Sentence Structure With Vocabulary the examiner looks at the range of
words used and whether they are used in the right place and at the right time. With Sentence
Structure, the examiner looks at the grammar. As stated above the Vocabulary and Sentence
Structure are quite weak. The actual vocabulary choices are not too bad but a lot of the spelling
is not very good (medicine; disease; colere; tubercole; expinsive; affects; mony etc.). There
are actual vocabulary mistakes as well though (more of money; Inde; indefendable). With
grammar the article use is often faulty (Last 150 year the medicine), plurals are sometimes
wrong (countrys; companys; other killer; etc.) and verbs are at times wrong in tense choice
and form (the medicine make; are use; can be find; are die; They are still make; etc.). Some
negatives are wrongly expressed (Now you no hear; it is no expensive). There are other
grammar weaknesses: pronouns (there affects; there products; there business interests;),
comparatives (more poor countrys; more rich countrys), prepositions (go to there; with a
more cheap price), the infinitive of purpose (for fight; for buy;) and adjectives/adverbs (and
easily to find; this diseases; and sell ilegal). Some of the errors seem to come from the writer’s
first language. There is though some good grammar in the essay and a lot of the vocabulary is well
chosen. However there are really too many errors to get a good band for Vocabulary and Sentence
Structure.
Academic Writing Practice Test 5
Task 1
In this report I am going to describe the process that occurs when plants and human beings
create oxygen and carbon dioxide.
Plants make oxygen through photosynthesis. To do this plants need certain things. Firstly
they take in water through their roots from the earth below. Secondly they take in carbon
dioxide from the air around them. Thirdly they absorb sunlight from the sun above. With
these three things plants are able to produce oxygen through photosynthesis.
Humans and animals perform an opposite process. Humans and animals take oxygen into their
lungs through breathing. When humans and animals exhale they breathe out carbon dioxide.
So plants, humans and animals provide services for each other. Humans and animals need the
oxygen that plants produce in order to stay alive. When humans and animals breathe out, they
provide the carbon dioxide that plants need in order to survive.
This ends my report.
(150 words)
Estimated IELTS Writing Band 9
Commentary on the above answer.
This report was written by an IELTS examiner to give an example of a good answer. Please
remember that there are other ways of approaching this question that are just as good.
The Academic Task 1 Writing is marked in 3 areas. Let’s look at these.
Task Fulfilment This mark grades you on basically on whether you have answered the question
or not. To answer this question correctly the examiner looks to see whether a report has been
written which wholly describes the pictures representing the process. Looking at the above, the
report is over the 150 word limit and completely summarises the process with nothing left out. The
report would get a good Task Fulfilment band.
Cohesion and Coherence These two are interrelated which is why they are done together.
Cohesion is how your writing fits together. Does your writing with its ideas and content flow
logically? Coherence is how you are making yourself understood and whether the reader of your
writing understands what you are saying. The cohesion is very good. The introductory sentence
explains what the report is about. The second paragraph uses firstly, secondly and thirdly to
show clearly the stages of the process in the left hand picture. The second paragraph explains the
right hand picture and the final longer paragraph comments on the significance of the process.
Linguistically the cohesion is good too. This leads in turn to good coherence. There are no
ambiguities in the language and the whole report can be read quickly with no problems.
Vocabulary and Sentence Structure With Vocabulary the examiner looks at the range of words
used and whether they are used in the right place and at the right time. With Sentence Structure,
the examiner looks at the grammar. The vocabulary is good in the report. The descriptive language
and the technical language are all used correctly. The grammar is also good. The present simple is
used accurately throughout to describe the process and all other grammar areas are correct.
Task 2
It is true that vast amounts are spent on space exploration for apparently little gain while
people suffer from terrible poverty around the world.
Supporters of space programs say that space exploration has brought inventions to the world
that we would not have had. The famous example is non-stick pans! Supporters also point out
that it is in human nature to strive to discover the unknown and that we can progress in all
ways by unlocking the secrets of the stars. These are all valid points.
On the other hand how can we as human beings justify the billions of dollars spent sending
people into space so we can have non-stick pans while millions of people around the world
are dying of disease and famine? With the money spent on space exploration, wells could be
dug, farmland could be developed, medicine could be bought, schools and colleges could be
built, and teachers, doctors and nurses could be trained. Even if we could justify money on
exploration, wouldn‛t it be better to spend the money on exploring the sea on our own planet
that could offer enough food to provide for the entire world?
From what I have said in this essay it would seem that I would agree that money should be
spent on better things than space exploration. However, this is not the case. I understand
all the reasons for spending money on better things but I also strongly believe that it is
necessary that the human race should continually strive to develop our technology and
broaden our horizons. The money in the long run is well spent on space exploration.
(272 words)
Estimated IELTS Writing Band 9
This essay was written by an IELTS examiner to give an example of a good answer. Please
remember that there are other ways of approaching this question that are just as good.
The Academic Task 2 Writing is marked in 3 areas. Let’s look at these.
Arguments, Ideas and Evidence This band grades the essay on its content, how it structures
its ideas and backs up the ideas with examples. This essay is structured well. There is a short
introductory paragraph followed by the body of the essay in two paragraphs which examine both
sides of the question. Finally the opinion of the writer is given in the conclusion with his justification.
There are plenty of ideas backed up with relevant examples. All these factors would lead to an
excellent band for Arguments, Ideas and Evidence.
Communicative Quality This mark grades the candidate on how easily the reader understands
the essay. This depends on accuracy in structure, grammar, punctuation and vocabulary, as
bad grammar, punctuation and vocabulary will cause a breakdown in communication. The
communicative quality of this essay is excellent. Because there is no inaccuracy in the factors
mentioned that affect communication, the reader can get through the essay without having to stop.
This essay would get an excellent band for Communicative Quality.
Vocabulary and Sentence Structure With Vocabulary the examiner looks at the range of words
used and whether they are used in the right place and at the right time. With Sentence Structure,
the examiner looks at the grammar. In this essay the Vocabulary and Sentence Structure are very
good. All word usage is correctly used and spelt correctly. The grammar is all error free and the
punctuation is good. The Vocabulary and Sentence Structure band for this essay would therefore
be very good.
Commentary on the Example Speaking Recordings for the ieltshelpnow.com
Academic Practice Tests
Below you will find reports by an IELTS speaking examiner on three recordings of example IELTS
test interviews. The questions asked in the recordings are the questions in the Speaking Test
sections of ieltshelpnow.com Academic Tests 1, 2 and 3. While listening to the recordings, it would
be helpful for you to have the question sheets with you to refer to.
The recordings are not real IELTS test recordings but the interviewer is a real IELTS examiner and
the recordings are conducted in the exact way that an IELTS Speaking Test is done. The students
interviewed were IELTS students who were doing an IELTS preparation course in the UK. The
reports on each interview were written by the IELTS examiner who conducted the interviews. The
examiner has tried to analyse the strong and weak parts of each of the students and this will give
you a better understanding into how give a better performance in the IELTS Speaking Test.
To further help you, if you have not done so already, please look at the right hand side of the
ieltshelpnow.com Home Page where you will find a series of free Academic Test Tutorials
including Speaking. Here you will find advice on how to do and prepare for the IELTS Speaking
Test.
Speaking Practice Test 1
Examiner’s Commentary
The student interviewed was Ilaria, an Italian female. The Speaking Test is in three sections.
Let’s first look at the each of these sections in turn to identify the strong points as well as the
weaknesses.
Section 1
Ilaria was very confident and gave full answers to all the questions. It started well when Ilaria gave
a very full answer to the first question about her family and, without being prompted, went on to
talk about where her family lived as well. This kind of full answer going further than the question
asks is a good sign that the student is comfortable in English and can talk with easy fluency.
The rest of Section 1 went equally well. Ilaria was not sporty so the questions from Topic 1 on
Health and Exercise could not have suited her that well. In spite of this Ilaria gave full answers
to all the questions. This is important as Ilaria showed that she could speak capably on a subject
about which she knew little and had little interest in. On the other hand in Topic 2 Ilaria showed
the examiner that she could answer the questions at length in English. Because of this Ilaria
only needed 2 questions to be asked in Topic 2. Also in reply to the second question in Topic 2,
Ilaria answers Yes, absolutely and then goes on to explain her answer without the need for the
examiner to have to ask Why. This is often a good sign of a good, fluent candidate. Section 1 was
very well answered by Ilaria and I do not feel that there were any bad points.
Section 2
Ilaria continued with the same fluency as Section 1. The examiner allowed Ilaria to talk for the full
2 minutes and she had no problem doing this. Not all IELTS interviews are this long but it is always
up to the examiner to decide the length of the interview and not the candidate. Ilaria hardly took
any of the one available minute for preparation. This is absolutely no problem. It is wholly up to the
candidate to decide to take all or part of the minute. It does not affect the marking of the test in any
way. However, the longer that a student has to prepare the talk, then the easier it will probably be for
the student to speak well. Therefore I would always advise candidates to take advantage of the full
minute. Ilaria does not talk that fast, says erm quite a lot and has frequent, short hesitations. None
of these is a problem. It is not a mistake to speak slowly. Indeed, if candidates talk slowly, then they
are less likely to make any fluency, grammatical or vocabulary errors and subsequently are more
confident and comfortable. The hesitations and erms are only normal features of someone who has
to talk for 2 minutes on a quickly prepared subject. Ilaria talked with some fluency on the subject
in the question and covered the areas that the question asked to be talked about with detail and
relevant examples. Finally the examiner asked a question to finish off Section 2. Ilaria gave a short
answer to this and that is all that is required. This Section 2 is shorter than a lot of others but this is
because Ilaria did not use the minute available for preparation. Again there are no bad parts in this
section.
Section 3
In Topic 1 Ilaria’s answers were not as full as earlier. She does say though often that she didn’t know
much about the subject. Despite this she still managed full answers to all the questions. However,
as long as a student answers each question to some extent, the student can then wait for the
question(s) that they can really take advantage of and speak longer about. Then in Topic 2 she had
more to say and spoke at greater length in reply to the questions. So, although some answers were
shorter than others, there are no bad parts to Section 3.
Marking
The marking of the IELTS Speaking Test is done in 4 parts. Below is how the examiner evaluates
this student.
Pronunciation
Ilaria’s pronunciation of English is excellent which allows her to be easily understood at all times.
There is a trace of an accent in her English but this does not interfere with intelligibility at any time.
Grammatical Range and Accuracy
Ilaria accurately and appropriately uses a wide range of grammatical structures.
Lexical Resource
There is the occasional slightly inappropriate word choice but this does not happen very often and it
does not affect the listener’s understanding.
Fluency and Coherence
Ilaria’s fluency and coherence is very good. Ilaria’s language is appropriate and the joining language
is all correctly used. Ilaria’s answers to questions are logically developed and there is little repetition
or self-correction.
Estimated IELTS Speaking Band:
9
Speaking Practice Test 2
Examiner’s Commentary
The student interviewed was Sandra, a Colombian female. The Speaking Test is in three sections.
First of all let’s look at each of these sections in turn to identify the strong and weak parts of the
interview.
Section 1
Sandra was a little bit nervous and not very confident in her speech. She answered all the
questions but some of the questions, particularly in Topic 2, could have been longer and better
developed. Most people find that Section 1 of the IELTS Speaking Test is the easiest section and
therefore students should take the opportunity to talk as long and as fully as they can while the
questions are at their simplest. For example, the examiner asks Sandra about the advantages
and disadvantages of living in her area. She talks about the climate as an advantage, which is
good, and then mentions that her area is near other good places but she does not talk more about
this. She could talk about other good things regarding her area and she did not even mention
one disadvantage. This was wasting an opportunity. On the other hand she answered most of the
questions quite well and this was certainly no disaster.
Section 2
In Section 2 Sandra managed to get over the one minute mark without any problems but it
appeared as though it would have been hard for her to go any longer than she did. Like Ilaria
in the recording for the Academic Speaking Test 1, Sandra did not make use of the one minute
preparation time. It sounds as though the examiner got her started early but it was Sandra who
indicated that she was ready to begin. By not taking the time to make notes on each part of the
question, Sandra’s talk was a bit disjointed and lost coherence at times. Here is an example
where using the one minute preparation time would have had great benefit. On the other hand
Sandra did manage to answer most parts of the question. Looking at her actual speaking, Sandra
often had long hesitations as she searched for things to say and to connect her ideas. The
connections were not always clear and she shifted subject a couple of times in one sentence. If
she could have finished each of the sentences by developing the subjects of each sentence and
then change the subject coherently, it would have been a much better talk. Again, preparation
would have benefited her. She did not lose marks for not preparing but the lack of coherence in
her talk that the lack of preparation caused affected her score.
Section 3
Section 3 started very well with Sandra giving long and full answers to the questions in Topic 1. In
Topic 2 however the answers were not as long and could have been better developed, speaking
about the subjects in more depth. For example the last question was not really answered
properly at all with Sandra only saying that holidays would change by having more amenities. If
Topic 2 could have been answered as fully as Topic 1 then she would have made a much better
impression.
Marking
The Marking of the IELTS Speaking Test is done in 4 parts. Below is how the examiner evaluates
this student.
Pronunciation
Sandra’s pronunciation was not that clear. There were areas where there were no problems but
there were also times when her strong accent, intonation and stress problems caused difficulties for
the listener.
Grammatical Range and Accuracy
Sandra’s grammar was often faulty. Sandra’s basic sentences were controlled fairly well but more
complex grammar often broke down. There were lots of mistakes scattered throughout her speech
as well, some of them quite basic.
Lexical Resource
Sandra’s vocabulary was good enough to discuss familiar and unfamiliar topics but she had limited
flexibility. There were quite a few pauses where she had to stop to search for the right word and not
always with success.
Fluency and Coherence
Sandra’s fluency and coherence was sometimes quite good and she showed the ability to talk
independently and at some length to questions. On areas that she was not so sure about though
her fluency and coherence sometimes broke down and this led to quite a lot of hesitation and a bit
of repetition.
Estimated IELTS Speaking Band:
5
Speaking Practice Test 3
Examiner’s Commentary
The student interviewed was Tina, a Chinese female. The Speaking Test is in three sections. First
of all let’s look at the each of these sections in turn to identify the strong and weak parts of the
interview.
Section 1
Tina was a bit nervous and hesitant at the start but she gave full answers that addressed the
questions. She talked quite slowly but that is no problem. In fact talking slowly allowed Tina to
consider what she was saying and so she was less likely to make grammar mistakes and lose
control of her coherence. The fact that Tina did not need all the questions from Section 1 to finish
the section shows how well and fully she answered the questions.
Section 2
Tina is lucky as she says she is interested in this topic and so she finds it easy to talk about.
Candidates in IELTS are not allowed to ask for a change in topic so, if you are given a topic you
know little about, you will just have to do the best you can. The topics are all of general interest
and anyone should be able to talk about the topics for 2 minutes. The first important thing in this
interview was that Tina took full advantage of the 1 minute preparation time. This allowed Tina
to make notes on all parts of the question. At one point at the end of her talk Tina had finished a
sentence and did not know how to continue. She checked her notes and saw that she had written
something about how often she went to the restaurant. Therefore, after the short gap to check her
notes (which is fine) she was able to continue confidently with her talk. This shows the value of using
the 1 minute preparation time and making the notes on the paper provided. In Section 2 Tina again
spoke quite slowly and, as pointed out above, there is nothing wrong with this. Sometimes though
she was a bit overly hesitant and stopped in the middle of sentences which affected the fluency
of the talk a little. On the other hand, Tina covered the areas required in the question and talked
without any problems until the examiner asked her to stop.
Section 3
Tina continued to give reasonable answers in Section 3. Where she sometimes went wrong was
in trying to say too much. Occasionally she finished a sentence but wanted to continue in order
to make a better impression. This is good of course but only if you have more to say. If you have
no further ideas and you try to carry on, there will most likely be a lot of hesitations and eventually
repetition of ideas. This is what happened sometimes to Tina. If you have no further ideas, it is better
to stop with the good things that you have already said and wait for a new question. Nevertheless
Tina had a lot of good things to say though she was more hesitant and had more breakdowns in
fluency and accuracy due to the more complicated nature of the questions. She often hesitated at
the start of answering questions while she thought momentarily about her answer. This is fine. The
examiner does not expect everyone to be able to answer every question instantly without thinking
for a short time.
Marking
The Marking of the IELTS Speaking Test is done in 4 parts. Below is how the examiner evaluates
this student.
Pronunciation
Tina’s pronunciation was fairly clear. Most of her speech was easily understood and, although she
has a Chinese accent, this does not interfere too much with the listener’s comprehension.
Grammatical Range and Accuracy
Tina’s grammar was often good but there were basic errors as well. The errors became more
frequent in Section 3 as the questions became more demanding and the language became more
complicated to answer them.
Lexical Resource
Tina used quite a variety of vocabulary. It was easily sufficient to cope with familiar topics and
some unfamiliar topics and, although sometimes she did not know the right word, she could come
up with an acceptable alternative and attempted to paraphrase quite successfully.
Fluency and Coherence
Tina’s fluency and coherence was fine in Section 1 and parts of Section 2 but as the questions and
language became more demanding, her speech broke down from time to time and hesitancy came
in. However, she showed the ability to talk at length and clearly answered the questions asked her.
Estimated IELTS Speaking Band:
6