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EDUCATIONAL MEASUREMENT
AND SCHOOL ACCOUNTABILITY
DIRECTORATE
Selective High Schools Test
Sample
This sample test paper is designed to familiarise candidates with the format and content of the
Selective High Schools Test, but it contains fewer items than the real test.
The test is rewritten every year and candidates should not assume that a high score on the sample
test means that the student will score as highly on the actual test. Conversely, a low score on the
sample test does not necessarily mean a low score on the actual test.
This document is a joint publication of the Department of Education and Training and the Australian
Council for Educational Research (ACER).
The sample test paper is also available on the Internet at: http://www.schools.nsw.edu.au/learning/k6assessments/selectiveschools.php
CONTENTS
GENERAL INFORMATION
Introduction
2
General information
3
Test information
4
How to do your best in the tests
5
Sample reading test
7
Acknowledgements
20
Sample Mathematics test
21
Sample General Ability test
35
Sample answer sheet
45
Answers to sample questions
47
INTRODUCTION
This publication assists applicants for Year 7 entry to selective high schools to become more familiar
with the Selective High Schools Test and its administration procedures.
The publication is based on a previous test although some of the items have not been included for
copyright reasons.
In the actual Selective High Schools Test there will be 45 questions in reading, 40 in mathematics and
60 in general ability. The correct number of questions are shown on the sample answer sheet at the
back of the publication. However, in this publication there will be fewer questions.
IMPORTANT: DO NOT GET DISCOURAGED!
The Selective High Schools Test measures ability and is set to discriminate at a very high level.
Students who are accustomed to answering most questions in tests correctly should not be discouraged
if they get a number of questions wrong. It is very rare for even the highest scoring candidates to score
full marks on all components of the Selective High Schools Test.
Selective high school entry does not depend entirely on a student's performance in the Selective High
Schools Test as school assessment scores in English and mathematics are provided by the primary
schools. Moreover, the mark required for entry varies from school to school.
2
2
GENERAL INFORMATION
YEAR 7 ENTRY
TRANSPORT
Students seeking placement in Year 7 at a selective high
school must take the Selective High Schools Test unless
they have a satisfactory explanation, e.g. illness. (The
application information has details of other assessment
procedures.)
Parents must arrange transport to and from the test
centre. Parents must be ready to collect students from
the test centre by 1.15 pm, the approximate dismissal
time. Parents are asked not to park or wait on school
premises unless invited to do so. If the test finishes early
and parents have not yet arrived to collect their children,
students may return to the examination room and remain
under supervision until 1.15 pm.
TEST COMPONENTS
There are four tests, reading, mathematics, general
ability and writing. The first three tests consist of multipleCLOTHING
choice questions with answers recorded on computermarked answer sheets. The answers sheets are at the Students are asked to wear school uniform to assist in
front of the answer booklet.
the organisation of students into school groups at the
beginning of the test.
The fourth test is a writing task which is done in the
answer booklet provided. All candidates will participate
in the writing task and the marks will be counted towards EQUIPMENT
the profile score.
Students should bring two HB or B pencils, a pencil
Students are given a writing stimulus and have 20 rubber and the letter from the Selective High School and
Opportunity Class Placement Unit which contains their
minutes to complete the writing task.
student number. Students can bring pencil sharpeners
As indicated in the test timetable, the writing task will be if they wish. No other material is to be taken to the
administered after the multiple-choice question section desk. Pencil cases, water bottles and other equipment
of the Selective High Schools Test. All administration should be left in the student's bag. Dictionaries, rulers,
instructions will be given at the time.
calculators, mobile phones and watches that calculate or
are set to beep are strictly prohibited in the test centre.
TEST DATE: Thursday
15 March 2007.
TEST TIMETABLE
The following is a typical timetable for the test.
Activity
Start
Finish
Candidates arrive
Before 9.00 am
COMPUTER-MARKED ANSWER SHEETS
The computer-marked answer sheets are at the front of
the answer booklet. The presiding officer (the person in
charge of the test centre) will show students how to fill
out the computer-marked answer sheets at the beginning
of the first test session. Students will be given a chance
to practise writing their answers. Students who need
further help should raise their hands.
Candidates are seated and rolls
are marked
9.00
9.20 am
Instructions
9.20
9.40 am
Test Practice
9.40
10.00 am
Reading Test (40 minutes)
10.00
10.40 am
Break
10.40
10.45 am
Mathematics Test (40 minutes)
10.45
11.25 am
Break
11.25
11.45 am
Students are seated. Administration
11.45
12.00 noon
General Ability Test (40 minutes)
12.00
12.40 pm
BREAK
Break
12.40
12.45 pm
Writing (20 minutes)
12.45
1.05 pm
1.05
1.15 pm
In the break from approximately 11.25 am to 11.45 am
students will leave the test room. During this period they
will not be allowed to run or play vigorous games, but
they may eat food they have brought with them. The
test centre's canteen facilities may not be available to
candidates.
Students should be encouraged to go to the toilet before
they are called to assemble for the test outside the test
centre.
Candidates are dismissed
Apart from the arrival time and test duration this
timetable is approximate and will vary according to the
size and location of the test centre.
CONDUCT
Students must be careful not to look at the work of
others during the test. Students must follow the presiding
officer's and supervisor's instructions both during the
tests and in the break. Please remember that candidates
for the Selective High Schools Test and their families are
guests at the test centre. Parents are requested not to
remain on the school grounds during the test.
3
GENERAL INFORMATION
Absence from the test
Students unable to take the test will not be
eligible for placement at a selective high
school unless there were exceptional circumstances which prevented them from attending. If your child misses the test because of
exceptional circumstances you should contact
this Unit for an illness/misadventure form and
return the completed form as quickly as
possible to the Unit. Illness/misadventure
forms should generally be lodged within 14
days of the test.
Test centre clocks
If students cannot see the test centre clock,
they should raise their hands and tell the
presiding officer or supervisor.
Allocated test centre
Candidates are required to attend their allocated test centre. In exceptional circumstances where a student does not attend the
allocated test centre a written explanation
may be sought.
Late arrival
Tests will start promptly. Students who arrive
late may be allowed to take the test, but will
be required to finish at the same time as other
students.
TEST INFORMATION
There are three tests with multiple-choice
questions:
Test 1: Reading Test
Test 2: Mathematics Test
Test 3: General ability
Each test lasts 40 minutes.
Each test has multiple-choice questions with
four possible answers which are labelled A, B,
C or D. All questions are answered on a
computer-marked answer sheet which is at
the front of the answer booklet.
Each question number on the answer sheet
has four ovals beside it, one bubble for each
of the letters A, B, C, D. You mark your
answer by filling the bubble containing the
letter of the answer you have chosen.
For each question you must mark on your
answer sheet the ONE answer that you think
is best.
Be SURE you are marking your answers
against the right numbers on your answer
sheet. To remind you about this, an answer
check message is printed several times in
each test.
Test 4: Writing task
The writing task follows the multiple-choice
questions and is done in the answer booklet
provided. Candidates will be given a writing
stimulus and have 20 minutes to complete the
task.
Candidates should ensure that the writing is
about the stimulus provided in the test. It is
expected that students will produce writing
that is their own original work in response to
the stimulus in the test. Marks will not be
awarded for writing that does not specifically
address the stimulus. Marks will also not be
awarded where the writing of students is
discovered to have elements in common with
writing of other students or published works.
Selection committees have the discretion to
deduct marks if they believe students have
produced work memorised beforehand and
adapted to respond to the stimulus.
The writing will be judged on:
what you have to say
how well you organise the way you say it
and how clearly and effectively you express
yourself.
ANSWER CHECK
Look on your answer booklet was the last bubble you filled in for Question xx?
If it was keep going. If it wasn’t, put your hand up now for help.
44
GENERAL
HOW TO DO
YOURINFORMATION
BEST IN THE TESTS
1. There is nothing you should study especially for 8. It is very important to keep checking that the
the tests. It is most important to think clearly and
number of the question you are working on in
to use your ability to deal with new problems and
the question booklet is the same as the number
situations to arrive at an answer. These skills are
you are marking on the answer sheet. There are
usually developed over a long time, rather than
answer check reminders in each part of the test
through intensive practice or coaching.
to check this. If you find you are answering a
question on the wrong line, put your hand up and
2. Pay attention when the presiding officer (the
tell your supervisor. The supervisor will record
person in charge of the tests) talks to you and
the details and report the problem. Start the next
shows you where to record the answers for each
question at the correct line and come back to fix
test.
the problem if you have time. Do not waste too
much time trying to fix the problem before you
3. Each multiple-choice test takes forty minutes;
have finished the last question. Once the problem
the writing task is 20 minutes. Each test has a
is reported, the selection committee can take it
set of instructions that the presiding officer will
into consideration.
go through with you. At the beginning of the first
4.
5.
6.
7.
session there will be some practice questions 9. If you want to work anything out you can write on
to help you become familiar with the kinds of
the question booklet. The question booklets will
questions on the tests. Work through these when
be collected at the end of the tests, but anything
you are told, and then wait for the presiding
you have written in them will not be counted.
officer to give you the answers.
10. There will be no time warnings during the test.
If you have any problems understanding the
Once the test starts you will need to check the
instructions put your hand up and the presiding
test centre's clock frequently to find out how
officer will answer your questions.
much time you have left. The presiding officer will
tell you which is the test centre clock. Put your
Do NOT open the question booklet until the
hand up if you cannot see it or if you are unsure
presiding officer tells you to do so.
of where it is.
In each test every question has equal value.
Marks are awarded for each correct answer. 11. Put your hand up if you have any problems or any
questions.
Incorrect or blank answers score zero.
Read each test question carefully before you 12. Candidates are not permitted to take any test
materials, either answer or question booklets,
start answering it. Think about what it asks you
from the test centre.
to do. Do not rush or you might make careless
mistakes. Work steadily. Choose the answer
that you think is best. If you find a question too
difficult, do not spend a long time on it. Mark the
answer you think is best and come back to that
question if you have time.
5
6
NSW DEPARTMENT OF EDUCATION AND TRAINING
SELECTIVE HIGH SCHOOLS TEST
SAMPLE QUESTIONS
TEST 1
READING
INSTRUCTIONS
1
There are 35 questions in this sample set. You have 40 minutes to complete the
real test which contains 45 questions.
2
This test contains several passages. In most passages every ﬁfth line is
numbered on the right-hand side to help you answer the questions.
3
Read each passage and then mark your answer to the questions on the answer
sheet.
4
With each question there are four possible answers A, B, C or D. For each
question you are to choose the ONE answer you think is best. To show your
answer, ﬁll the oval for one letter (A, B, C or D) on the separate answer sheet
in the section headed English Language.
5
If you decide to change an answer, rub it out completely and mark your new
answer clearly.
6
If you want to work anything out you may write on the question booklet.
7
If you need the help of the supervisor during the test, raise your hand.
7
7
7
CONNIE HART
This passage about Connie Hart is from a book in which Aboriginal people talk
about their own lives.
No one taught me to make my baskets. I used to watch my mother do
it and when she put her basket down and went outside, I’d pick it up
and do some stitches. When I heard her coming back, I would shove
it away real quick and run away. I was a great one for sitting amongst
the old people because I knew I was learning something just by
watching them. But if I asked a question they would say, ‘Run away,
Connie. Go and play with the rest of the kids.’
They didn’t want us to learn. My mum told me we were coming
into the white people’s way of living. So she wouldn’t teach us. That
is why we lost a lot of culture. But I tricked her. I watched her and I
watched those old people and I sneaked a stitch or two.
I was about seven when I used to have a go at my mother’s work
but I didn’t make a basket until after she died. It must have been 40
years but I remembered the stitch, I remembered the grass. I picked
some grass and I went home and started to do the stitch. The ﬁrst
basket I made was a little one because I was frightened to do it. Then
I went on to make mats. I think if my mother was alive today she
would knock my head off because I have gone on to better things.
My stitching is very tight,
where most basket makers pull
theirs loose.
I put my ﬁnger behind and
pull it tight. Everybody says
my work is ﬁne. I’m growing
my own grass in the garden.
I’m hoping for it to spread
along the fence, and I just go
down and get some whenever I
want it.
To make a good basket,
patience would be the ﬁrst
thing. And to pull tight for that
tight stitch.
Connie with traditional basket for trapping
eels. Hart collection. Courtesy Connie Hart.
8
8
5
10
15
20
25
30
1
Connie’s mother didn’t want Connie to learn how to make baskets because she thought that
Connie
A
B
C
D
2
In what way does Connie say that her baskets are different from the baskets of other basket
makers?
A
B
C
D
3
the type of grass she uses
the type of stitch she uses
the way she makes the stitch
the attitude she has to learning
According to Connie the two ingredients of a good basket are
A
B
C
D
4
should leave her and the old people alone.
could be out playing with the other children.
should only be learning the white people’s way of living.
could never make the sorts of baskets that white people would want.
a vivid memory and strong ﬁngers.
the right attitude and good technique.
determination and an interest in tradition.
a good teacher and access to home grown grass.
With regard to passing on traditions, Connie thinks that
A
B
C
D
the old people’s intentions were good but misguided.
the old people knew that you could not learn simply by watching.
it was the responsibility of the children to learn what they could.
if you were persistent enough people would teach whatever you needed to know.
GO STRAIGHT ON
9
9
9
THE HORSE
5
The horse moves
independently
without reference
to his load.
He has eyes
like a woman and
turns them
about, throws
A
B
C
D
5
6
back his ears
and is generally
conscious of
the world. Yet
he pulls when
he must and
pulls well, blowing
fog from
his nostrils
like fumes from
the twin
exhausts of a car.
7
20
8
lazy.
efﬁcient.
cheerful.
reluctant.
Lines 5 – 12 suggest that the horse
A
B
C
D
William Carlos Williams
fear
respect
repulsion
amusement
The horse does his work in a way that is
A
B
C
D
10
15
Which one of the following sums up the
poet’s feelings for this horse?
is enslaved by human beings.
has a very unusual appearance.
has its own unique characteristics.
is a typical example of this species
of horse.
The word ‘yet’ (line 12) could be seen as
dividing the poem into two contrasting
parts.
Which of the following pairs of words
summarises the way the horse is
described in the two parts?
10
10
ﬁrst part
(lines 1 – 12)
second part
(lines 13 – 20)
A
happy
unhappy
B
special
ordinary
C
disobedient
dependent
D
unconstrained
controlled
SYDNEY OPERA HOUSE
Jørn Utzon had only a small architecture practice in Denmark when in
1957 he won the international competition to design the Sydney Opera
House. The building was completed in 1973—long after Utzon had
retired in frustration and anger. This spectacular building consists of
two principal elements: a solid rock-like base containing ancillary areas
and a great superstructure of shining tile-covered shells soaring above
it, enveloping the two major halls. The base, surfaced with
reconstructed granite, rises in massive steps to the halls, whose dished
ﬂoors are pressed into the base like great thumbprints. The drama of the
structure dominates all—both externally and internally—the great
shells springing and fanning out from massive point supports. The
functions of the building take place within the spaces left by the
structure.
9
solid.
massive.
dramatic.
functional.
The passage suggests that the ‘two principal elements’ (line 5)
A
B
C
D
12
unexpected choice/ bitter process/ inspired outcome
popular choice/ steady progress/ successful outcome
obvious choice/ quiet resignation/ disappointing outcome
unfortunate choice/ poor performance/ disastrous outcome
By using the words ‘soaring’, ‘springing’ and ‘fanning’ the writer reinforces the idea
that the Opera House is
A
B
C
D
11
10
How does the passage present Jørn Utzon’s involvement with the building of the
Sydney Opera House?
A
B
C
D
10
5
do not ﬁt together in style.
express a single simple vision.
create a successful union through strong contrasts.
are seamlessly joined through common form and material.
The writer’s attitude to the design of the Opera House is generally
A
B
C
D
neutral.
enthusiastic.
disapproving.
condescending.
11
11
11
CAVES
Large caves are most commonly found in limestone because, over
time, limestone dissolves in water. Falling rain absorbs carbon
dioxide from the air and picks up more from plant roots, bacteria and
other organisms as it percolates through the soil. This makes it
slightly acidic and more likely to dissolve the limestone.
The cave formation process begins when limestone is exposed at
the earth’s surface. This might happen when relatively young
limestone is raised above sea level by movements in the earth’s crust
or when older limestone in mountain ranges is uncovered by erosion.
In Australia, caves have formed in rock as old as 1000 million years
and as young as a few thousand years. They are usually a lot younger
than the rocks in which they are formed.
Limestone forms in layers or beds which encourage cave
formation. There are two kinds of openings in this rock: bedding
planes between beds; and joints, which are vertical splits in the beds
caused by tension in the crust of the earth. Deep caves are often
formed in rock that has been split and tilted by the movement of the
earth.
Near the surface, openings contain both air and water, but lower
down they are ﬁlled with water. Here a signiﬁcant stage of the cave
formation process takes place. Sluggish water dissolves the limestone
most quickly and creates large cavities, while fast-moving water
forms complex plumbing systems with rounded cross-sections. When
the water-level in these systems drops and air gets in, the water
begins to behave as it does in streams on the surface, cutting out
meandering courses and canyons in the cave ﬂoor. As cavities get
bigger, losing the support of the water that used to ﬁll them, they can
collapse to form the largest caves.
13
The structure of limestone encourages cave formation because limestone is
A
B
C
D
14
Deep caves are formed in limestone as a result of
A
B
C
D
12
12
able to absorb water.
often exposed to the air.
formed in beds and layers.
often tilted by movements in the earth.
exposure to the air.
particularly acidic water.
splitting and tilting of the rock.
geological movements below the crust of the earth.
5
10
15
20
25
15
Water dissolves limestone most quickly when the
A
B
C
D
16
water is moving slowly.
water is moving swiftly.
limestone is roughly shaped.
limestone has rounded cross-sections.
The largest caves are formed in limestone when the
A
B
C
D
rock is exposed to air.
bigger caves collapse.
water is very acidic.
water is sluggish.
HOW TO RAISE KIDS
17
This cartoon suggests that the father
A
B
C
D
will never become a better parent because his child is always interrupting.
will become a better parent when he has read the book.
is not becoming a better parent by reading the book.
is already a good parent.
13
13
13
RYL AND DUSTY
This passage describes a conversation between Ryl, a teenager, and Dusty, her
grandfather, shortly after they have met for the ﬁrst time and moved into the old
family home.
One night they sat at the top of the tall steps, watching the skyline
stretching in a half-circle about them from Brunswick Heads to
Surfers Paradise.
‘Funny,’ said Dusty, ‘how much you look like my girl that I had
once.’
‘And was she the one called Ryl? Same as me?’
‘That’s right. Your father must have named you after her.’
‘How come you lost track of my father?’
Dusty seemed to shift uncomfortably on the wooden step.
‘Him and me fell out.’
Ryl longed to know why the two had quarrelled, but it was plain
that Dusty had no intention of going into this problem. He talked on,
of how he had fallen on hard times, and how all friends and kin had
dropped out of his life.
Yesterday she would have listened to the story and heard only the
words, and those with impatience. But this evening her mind made
pictures of them. And she saw them blending into one picture, the
one which the old man tried to conceal — of a life whose end was
failure.
And now, her banner began to ﬂy. She would make him a success.
Better late than never. At the age of seventy-four he would, under her
guidance, be set on the road to achievement.
Sitting beside him on the worn wooden step in the lime-scented
night, Ryl made up her mind about it, and became ﬁlled with resolve.
Dusty would make good.
18
The setting of the passage is
A
B
C
D
14
14
lonely.
gloomy.
peaceful.
glamorous.
5
10
15
20
25
19
The discussion about Ryl’s name is signiﬁcant because it
A
B
C
D
20
explains the disagreement between Ryl’s father and Dusty.
shows the part played by coincidence in the story.
establishes a link between Ryl and Dusty.
focuses on how unusual Ryl’s name is.
How does Dusty feel about the ‘falling out’ with Ryl’s father?
He is
A
B
C
D
21
The passage gives the impression that Dusty is
A
B
C
D
22
still angry with Ryl’s father.
upset that Ryl didn’t know about it.
uneasy about discussing the matter.
relieved that the matter has been resolved.
aggressive and overconﬁdent.
proud of his achievements.
trusting and affectionate.
defensive about his past.
‘Yesterday she would have listened to the story and heard only the words . . .’
In lines 15 – 19, Ryl
A
B
C
D
23
‘And now, her banner began to ﬂy’ (line 20) means that Ryl has just
A
B
C
D
24
wants to draw Dusty’s portrait.
feels increasingly bored by Dusty’s reminiscences.
is beginning to understand Dusty’s way of talking.
is making sense of Dusty’s experiences in her imagination.
become ﬁred with her new idea.
understood the sadness of Dusty’s life.
realised how much Dusty cares for her.
conﬁrmed her ﬁrst impression of Dusty.
‘Dusty would make good’ (line 25) refers to
A
B
C
D
Dusty’s intention to improve his life.
Ryl’s intention to improve Dusty’s life.
Ryl’s hope that Dusty will take care of her.
Dusty’s hope that Ryl will take care of him.
15
15
15
THE PALM TREE
feel the sigh:
from above grey streets
and hard-baked bricks
that bind the soul;
between choking dust
and roar of car
and rattling tram,
beyond hard winter’s
crush and crack
that chills the heart;
hear the call:
whispering, murmuring,
seething, roaring, rolling
like hot tropical thunder,
booming like ocean swells
on atolls
out in the sea.
climb with leaden eyes
up
the sleek, slim trunk,
up
grasp, feel, the warm sap
pulse, promise, pull,
up
into ocean blue,
a thousand miles away.
From here to there, simply,
shattering silly realities of
ﬂat, hard nothings,
far below . . .
the palm tree rises through the rot of
seething city life;
its lusty howl seduces souls
and bears them for
a precious while,
away to paradise.
G J Wightman
16
16
5
10
15
20
25
30
35
25
The poem suggests that climbing the palm tree
A
B
C
D
26
The ‘sigh’ and ‘call’ (lines 1 and 11) are likely to come from
A
B
C
D
27
ﬂexible and sticky.
alive and inviting.
brittle and rough.
hard and lifeless.
The ‘ocean blue’ mentioned in line 25 is a reference to the
A
B
C
D
30
remind the poet of the beauty of the city.
make even louder the noise of the city.
transport the speaker to another place.
frighten and confuse the speaker.
The speaker ﬁnds the trunk of the palm tree to be
A
B
C
D
29
the sounds of trafﬁc.
wind in the narrow streets.
a thunderstorm passing overhead.
wind in the leaves of the palm tree.
The ‘call’ (line 11) serves to
A
B
C
D
28
offers a short but worthwhile break from the city’s harshness.
offers a permanent escape from the grim reality of city life.
is a useless exercise that can only end in disappointment.
is bad because it means not facing up to life’s problems.
sky above.
Paciﬁc Ocean.
blue-grey streets.
thick dust of the city.
For the speaker the palm tree represents mainly
A
B
C
D
regret.
reality.
escape.
beauty.
17
17
17
DR MICHAEL ARCHER
This passage comes from a history textbook.
Dr Michael Archer, a palaeontologist from the University of New
South Wales, has been in charge of excavations at Riversleigh in
north-western Queensland. He has uncovered the fossils of many
animals that have never been known before. On the dig one morning:
Archer looked down at the rock he was standing on — and
almost passed out with excitement; the rock was literally
bristling with the teeth and jaws of mammals of every kind
imaginable.
The events of the next ﬁve minutes remain a bit of a blur in
all of our memories. The whole group, responding to the
incoherent and decidedly unscientiﬁc shouts of its leader,
descended on the area. Despite the carpet of prickly
spinifex grass which almost covered the rocks, everyone
was crawling around on hands and knees shouting out to
each other all of the new delights they were ﬁnding. In that
brief handful of moments, in a mere 10 square metres of
area, we spotted well over 100 mammal specimens
representing about 30 species that no one had ever seen
before.
One of the fossils discovered at Riversleigh is a ‘weird thing’. It
was a small animal the size of a rabbit. It had only cutting cheek
teeth. This means it would not have been able to grind its food before
swallowing it. The animal has been nicknamed ‘Thingodonta’.
31
The passage suggests that in research of this sort it is unusual to ﬁnd
A
B
C
D
32
Archer was excited by what he saw on the rock because he
A
B
C
D
18
18
plant specimens.
mammal specimens.
so many unusual species in one place.
so many examples of a single species in one place.
found so many fossils in a single site.
had never before sighted a ‘Thingodonta’.
was the ﬁrst member of the group to ﬁnd anything.
believed that he would ﬁnd more fossils in the area.
5
10
15
20
33
In the phrase ‘On the dig one morning’ (line 4) the word ‘dig’ refers to
A
B
C
D
34
The writer included lines 5 –19 in the passage to
A
B
C
D
35
the site being excavated.
a kind of rock formation.
the remains of an animal’s burrow.
the base camp of the palaeontologists.
give more detail about the fossils.
give a detailed description of the site.
give a vivid impression of the excitement.
convey the careful work required of palaeontologists.
The fossil was called ‘Thingodonta’ because
A
B
C
D
it has an unusual size and shape.
it did not ﬁt any known classiﬁcation.
‘Thingodonta’ is the translation of ‘weird thing’.
the group thought it must have been a pet in ancient times.
END OF READING SAMPLE QUESTIONS
LOOK BACK OVER YOUR WORK
19
19
19
ACKNOWLEDGMENTS
‘Connie Hart’: extract from Living Aboriginal History of Victoria: Stories in the Oral Tradition, by Alick
Jackomos and Derek Fowell. Copyright  1991 Museum of Victoria. Reprinted by permission of
Museum of Victoria.
‘The Horse’ by William Carlos Williams from Collected Poems 1909-1939 Volume 1. Copyright 
1938 by New Directions Publishing Corporation, New York. Reprinted by permission of New
Directions Publishing Corporation.
‘Sydney Opera House’: extract adapted from ‘50s & ‘60s Style by Polly Powell & Lucy Peel. Copyright
 1988 Quintet Quantum Books, London. Reprinted by permission of Quintet Quantum Books.
‘Caves’: adapted from an article by Armstrong Osborne in The Australian Geographic, no. 10,
1988. Copyright  1988 Australian Geographic. Reprinted by courtesy of Australian Geographic
www.australiangeographic.com.au.
‘How to Raise Kids’: cartoon by Ron Tandberg from The Age of Tandberg, Edward Arnold Australia,
1981. Reprinted by permission of the author.
‘Ryl and Dusty’: extract adapted from Pastures of the Blue Crane by H.F.Brinsmead, Penguin
Australia, Ringwood, 1978. Reprinted by permission of the author.
‘The Palm Tree’ by G.J. Wightman. Copyright  1995 Australian Council for Educational Research.
‘Dr Michael Archer’: extract from History Begins: Ancient History for Junior Students by Sheena Coupe
and Barbara Scanlon. Copyright  1986 Pearson Education Australia. Reprinted by permission of
Pearson Education Australia www.pearsoned.com.au
20
20
NSW DEPARTMENT OF EDUCATION AND TRAINING
SELECTIVE HIGH SCHOOLS TEST
SAMPLE QUESTIONS
TEST 2
MATHEMATICS
INSTRUCTIONS
1
There are 38 questions in this sample set. You have 40 minutes to complete the
real test which contains 40 questions.
2
With each question there are four possible answers A, B, C or D. For each
question you are to choose the ONE answer you think is best. To show your
answer, ﬁll the oval for one letter (A, B, C or D) on the separate answer sheet in
the section headed Mathematics.
3
If you decide to change an answer, rub it out completely and mark your new
answer clearly.
4
If you want to work anything out you may write on the question booklet.
5
If you need the help of the supervisor during the test, raise your hand.
21
21
21
1
Lena is tiling a square ﬂoor with each
side 3 metres long. Tiles cost $45 per
square metre.
Which calculation gives the total cost of
tiling the ﬂoor (in dollars)?
45 × 6
45 × 9
45 ÷ 6
45 ÷ 9
A
B
C
D
2
12
4
3
If the pattern in the three boxes above is
repeated in the three boxes below
6
Q
2
then Q =
A
B
C
D
3
2
3
4
12
When George and Athena were married,
120 of the guests were Athena’s family or
friends. This was 60 per cent of the total
number of guests.
How many guests were there altogether?
A
B
C
D
22
22
180
192
200
720
Questions 4 – 6 refer to the following information:
This is part of the timetable for the bus to the city.
Stop
number
1 (Depot) 6:50
2
6:55
3
6:58
4
7:04
5
7:07
6
7:10
7
7:15
8
7:19
9
7:22
10
7:26
11
7:31
12
7:33
13
7:36
14
7:38
15 (City) 7:41
4
BUS TIMES TO THE CITY
7:10
7:15
7:18
7:24
7:27
7:30
7:35
7:39
7:42
7:46
7:51
7:53
7:56
7:58
8:01
7:30
7:35
7:38
7:44
7:47
7:50
7:55
7:59
8:02
8:06
8:11
8:13
8:16
8:18
8:21
7:50
7:55
7:58
8:04
8:07
8:10
8:15
8:19
8:22
8:26
8:31
8:33
8:36
8:38
8:41
Kylie can walk from home to bus stop
number 6 in eight minutes.
What is the latest time she can leave
home to be sure of getting to the city by
8:30?
A
B
C
D
7:22
7:42
7:50
8:02
8:10
8:15
8:18
8:24
8:27
8:30
8:35
8:39
8:42
8:46
8:51
8:53
8:56
8:58
9:01
8:30
8:35
8:38
8:44
8:47
8:50
8:55
8:59
9:02
9:06
9:11
9:13
9:16
9:18
9:21
6
Which one of these statements about the
bus timetable is correct?
A
B
C
D
5
Peter travels from stop number 8 to the
city each morning. His return journey
each evening takes the same time as his
morning bus ride.
9:00
9:05
9:08
9:14
9:17
9:20
9:25
9:29
9:32
9:36
9:41
9:43
9:46
9:48
9:51
9:30
9:35
9:38
9:44
9:47
9:50
9:55
9:59
10:02
10:06
10:11
10:13
10:16
10:18
10:21
The longest time between stops is
5 minutes.
The total trip from the depot to the
city always takes 61 minutes.
From 8:30 onwards it takes
10 minutes longer to get from the
depot to the city.
From 8:30 onwards it is 10 minutes
longer between buses leaving the
depot.
If he leaves the city at 5:41 pm what time
will he reach stop number 8?
A
B
C
D
5:19 p.m.
6:03 p.m.
6:19 p.m.
7:03 p.m.
23
23
23
7
The numbers 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 8, 9, 10 and
12 can be arranged around this star so
that the sum along each straight line is
the same. Four of the numbers are
missing.
9
Rita and Minh look at some blocks from
opposite sides.
Rita
Minh
8
Minh sees
5
6
3
10
What does Rita see?
S
A
9
The number missing at S is
A
B
C
D
B
1
2
4
12
C
8
A piece of cardboard is folded to make
six strips the same size. The strips are
numbered as shown. The cardboard is
bent along the folds and joined to make a
hexagonal tube.
D
10
1
2
3
4
5
6
Irene’s grandfather arrived in Sydney
from Athens at 10 pm on Friday after a
25-hour trip. The ﬂight began at 12 noon
on Thursday, Athens time.
What is the time difference between
Athens and Sydney?
When the tube is made the side numbered
6 is opposite the side numbered
A
B
C
D
1
2
3
4
A
B
C
D
24
24
Athens time is 9 hours behind
Sydney time.
Athens time is 9 hours ahead of
Sydney time.
Athens time is 15 hours behind
Sydney time.
Athens time is 15 hours ahead of
Sydney time.
Questions 11–13 refer to the following
information:
Information for Question 13
The following chart is called a Vedic Square.
Each number in the chart is found by
multiplying the number at the top of its column
by the number at the left of its row.
Scholars and artists use this Vedic
Square to draw a design. A row of numbers
and an angle of rotation are selected. Each
number in the row gives the length of the line
to be drawn.
When a product has more than one digit in it,
these are added to give a single digit.
For example, 8 × 2 = 16; 1 + 6 = 7.
For example, using an angle of rotation of
90 degrees and the number sequence in row 3
gives:
1
1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
9
1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
9
2
2
4
6
8
1
3
5
7
3
3
6
9
3
6
9
3
6
4
4
8
3
7
2
6
1
5
5
1
6
2
6
6
3
9
6
7
7
5
3
1
8
8
7
6
9
9
9
11
12
9
3
3
90
o
6
6
o
90
3
o
90
Continuing this sequence of numbers and
rotation leads eventually to this design.
6
P
9
9
The Vedic Square shown is incomplete.
The number missing at P is
A
B
C
D
9
0
1
2
7
3
Different designs result when a different angle
of rotation or a different row from the Vedic
Square is chosen.
13
Which row was used to create this
design?
The complete pattern for row 7 is
A
B
C
D
7
7
7
7
5
5
5
5
3
3
3
3
1
1
1
1
2
7
8
8
4
5
6
6
6
3
4
4
8
1
1
2
1
7
9
9
A
B
C
D
row 2
row 4
row 6
row 8
25
25
25
Questions 14–15 refer to the following information:
The numbers 1, 7, 19, 37, . . . are sometimes called snowﬂake numbers because they
can be pictured as a pattern of dots, like this:
1
7
19
37
A second number sequence is obtained by counting the number of dots on the lines
shown in the pictures.
snowflake number
(number of dots)
number of dots
on the lines
first
1
–
second
7
7
third
19
13
fourth
37
19
?
?
fifth
14
The ﬁfth snowﬂake number is
A
B
C
D
26
26
49
55
61
67
15
How many dots on the lines would there
be in a picture showing the ﬁfth
snowﬂake number?
A
B
C
D
19
25
31
37
Questions 16 – 18 refer to the following information:
140
130
The air above the Earth’s surface
is divided into different layers.
The temperature of the air at
different heights above sea level
and the positions of the different
layers are shown in this graph.
120
110
thermosphere
height above 100
Earth's surface
(km)
90
80
70
mesosphere
60
50
40
stratosphere
30
20
10
troposphere
sea level
16
What is the approximate air
temperature 40 km above sea level?
A
B
C
D
17
0 20
o
temperature C
40
60
33°C
20°C
–20°C
–33°C
According to the graph, if the
temperature is –60°C, the height above
sea level is
A
B
C
D
18
-120 -100 -80 -60 -40 -20
– 25 km.
85 km.
either 77 km or 93 km.
either 71 km or 98 km.
According to the graph the lowest
temperature normally reached in the
mesosphere is
A
B
C
D
105°C.
50°C.
2°C.
–95°C.
27
27
27
19
The number pattern in triangle P is
repeated in triangle Q.
3
A
B
C
D
20
2
51
102
408
40
15
P
Q
What is the value of X?
B
C
D
204 ÷ 102 = ∆ ÷ 204.
∆=
X
45
A
21
22
The area of this door
1
--2
2
3
20
198 cm
20
Four children each made a pattern by
folding paper and punching holes through
all the layers.
81 cm
Here is Duong’s pattern.
in square centimetres (cm2), is about
Which one of these is Duong’s folded
paper?
28
28
A
C
B
D
A
280 cm2 .
B
560 cm2 .
C
1 600 cm2 .
D
16 000 cm2 .
Questions 23– 24 refer to the following information:
The lines on this graph give a way to convert between the metric system of length units and the British
system of length units. The metric system uses units of centimetres, metres and kilometres. The British
system uses units of inches, yards and miles. For example, point X on the graph shows that 80 metres
in metric units is 88 yards in British units.
100
cent
50
40
es
to
X
om
etr
ime
60
s
rd
kil
tres
70
mi
le
ches
to in
80
METRIC UNITS
s
90
o
st
ya
e
etr
m
30
20
10
0
0
10 20 30 40 50 60 70 80 90 100 110
BRITISH UNITS
23
An English tourist has a map which shows the distance from Gosford to
Hornsby as 40 kilometres.
The graph shows that this distance in British units is
24
A
25 miles.
C
65 miles.
B
44 miles.
D
100 miles.
This diagram is from an American book. The measurement is in inches.
30"
How tall is the dog in centimetres?
A
12 cm
C
48 cm
B
28 cm
D
76 cm
29
29
29
Questions 25–27 refer to the following information:
Photocopying paper is sold by the ream. A ream is 500 sheets of paper. The most
common size of paper used is A4. An A4 sheet measures 297 mm × 210 mm. It is
part of the ‘A’ series of paper sizes which is based on the A0 size. An A0 sheet
measures 1189 mm × 841 mm and is almost exactly 1 square metre in area.
25
How many A4 sheets are needed to cover
an A0 sheet?
A
B
C
D
A1
26
8
16
32
64
Most photocopying paper weighs
80 grams per square metre.
How much does one sheet of A4
photocopying paper weigh?
1189 mm
A3
A
B
C
D
A2
A5
5g
20 g
32 g
50 g
A4
A6
27
The length of the longer side of an A5
sheet is closest to
841 mm
An A0 sheet of paper
As the diagram shows,
an A1 sheet is half the area
of an A0 sheet
an A2 sheet is half the area
of an A1 sheet
an A3 sheet is half the area
of an A2 sheet
and so on.
30
30
A
B
C
D
420 mm
297 mm
210 mm
149 mm
28
A cubic container this size will hold 1000
litres (or 1 kilolitre) of water.
30
Paul is making a cabinet. He has drawn a
sketch to show its size.
The timber he needs is 600 mm wide.
1030 mm
1m
1m
1m
950
The swimming pool shown is ﬁlled to a
depth of 2 metres.
600 mm
10 m
Altogether the length of timber he needs
is about
25 m
Swimming pool: top view
A
B
C
D
Swimming pool: side view
How much water is there in the pool?
A
B
C
D
29
50 kilolitres
140 kilolitres
250 kilolitres
500 kilolitres
57 × 29 + 57 × 11 = 57 × (50 – ∆) .
∆=
A
B
C
D
0
10
40
319
31
3 metres.
4 metres.
5 metres.
6 metres.
Gina estimated that it cost her about $45
per week for petrol for her car. She had
the car converted so that it would also run
on gas. Gas is much cheaper than petrol
so it only cost her about $20 per week for
gas. The conversion cost about $1000.
How long will it take for the savings in
using gas to equal the cost of the
conversion?
A
B
C
D
about 15 weeks
about 40 weeks
about 50 weeks
about 65 weeks
31
31
31
Questions 32 – 33 refer to the following
information:
34
So, 10 ÷ 0.25 =
The letter H has half turn symmetry. If it is
rotated about its centre through 180° it appears
unchanged.
32
Which one of these letters A E S U
has half turn symmetry?
A
B
C
D
A
E
S
U
Note that 100 ÷ 2.5 = 40 .
A
B
C
D
35
0.40
4.0
40
400
This is the net for a closed rectangular
box.
40 cm
20 cm
33
Greg is making a crossword puzzle grid
with half turn symmetry.
He has
completed the ﬁrst four rows. He has two
more squares to colour black to complete
his grid.
1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
The two squares to colour black are
32
32
20 cm
The volume of the completed box will be
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8
A
B
C
D
15 cm
15 cm
row 5, column 4 and row 7, column 2
row 5, column 5 and row 5, column 8
row 8, column 7 and row 2, column 4
row 4, column 1 and row 5, column 8
A
B
C
D
280 cubic centimetres
900 cubic centimetres
1 800 cubic centimetres
12 000 cubic centimetres
36
The diagram shows the area of one
hectare and one acre, drawn to scale.
38
Trang is helping the P.E. teacher. She
wants to ﬁll the long jump pit with sand
about 0.3 metres deep.
100 m
5 metres
ONE HECTARE
100 m
63.6 m
ONE ACRE
How much sand does she need?
63.6 m
Which of these four areas is the biggest?
A
B
C
D
37
2 metres
200 metres × 200 metres
2 hectares
3 acres
30 000 square metres
Zanna is making a magic hexagon using
this design and the numbers 1 to 19. The
numbers in each diagonal and column
must add up to 38.
A
B
C
D
30 cubic metres
20 cubic metres
4 cubic metres
3 cubic metres
END OF MATHEMATICS
SAMPLE QUESTIONS
LOOK BACK OVER YOUR WORK
3
17
16
7
*
10
18
5
8
15
The number that goes at position * is
A
B
C
D
2
4
12
17
33
33
33
34
34
NSW DEPARTMENT OF EDUCATION AND TRAINING
SELECTIVE HIGH SCHOOLS TEST
SAMPLE QUESTIONS
TEST 3
GENERAL ABILITY
INSTRUCTIONS
1
There are 58 questions in this sample set. You have 40 minutes to complete the
real test which contains 60 questions.
2
With each question there are four possible answers A, B, C or D. For each
question you are to choose the ONE answer you think is best. To show your
answer, ﬁll the oval for one letter (A, B, C or D) on the separate answer sheet in
the section headed General Ability.
3
If you decide to change an answer, rub it out completely and mark your new
answer clearly.
4
If you want to work anything out you may write on the question booklet.
5
If you need the help of the supervisor during the test, raise your hand.
35
35
35
1
Which one does not belong?
6
SCISSORS PIN KNIFE AXE
A
B
C
D
A
B
C
D
AXE
KNIFE
PIN
SCISSORS
7
2
3
What group of letters comes next in this
series?
EG
FH
A
B
C
D
JK
JL
KM
LN
____
8
UNFRIENDLY
UNFAIR
DEPRESSED
AFRAID
What group of letters comes next in this
series?
LCW
HOW
LOT
PLY
STY
2 kilograms
4 kilograms
6 kilograms
8 kilograms
Trevor
Nadine
Samira
Daniela
The word HOSTILE is most nearly the
same as
A
B
C
D
9
SQUARE
POLYGON
OCTAGON
PENTAGON
Trevor is taller than Daniela, and Nadine
is taller than Hamish. If Samira and
Nadine are both shorter than Daniela,
who is second-tallest?
A
B
C
D
RAPID
HURTFUL
RECKLESS
ACCIDENTAL
A case of fruit weighs 53 kilograms, and
another weighs 41 kilograms. How much
weight must be removed from the ﬁrst
case and placed in the second so that they
are both of equal weight?
A
B
C
D
36
36
IK
In a certain code, VEDCXJKISWTO
means EXIT. In the same code, what does
PHSLOTYWY mean?
A
B
C
D
5
HJ
The word CAREFUL is most nearly the
opposite of
A
B
C
D
4
GI
THREE is to TRIANGLE as FIVE is to
A
B
C
D
10
MEU
NGS
OIQ
____
QKO
PLR
RLR
PKO
If 10 hens can lay 100 eggs in 10 days,
how long would it take 4 hens to lay 28
eggs?
A
B
C
D
1 day
7 days
14 days
28 days
11
The numbers in each of the three patterns
follow the same rule. Find the missing
number.
6
2
9
5
2
A
B
C
D
3
15
A ﬁgure is missing in the following
sequence. Which one of the answer
ﬁgures would best replace the question
mark?
21
7
4
3
?
2
?
7
8
9
10
A
12
SUBTRACTION
–
DIVISION
–
MULTIPLICATION –
A
B
C
D
13
SUBTRACT
DIVIDE
__________
16
MULTIPLES
MULTIPLICITY
MULTIPLE
MULTIPLY
C
D
DEFINE
DESCRIBE
RECOGNISE
DETERMINE
What group of letters comes next in this
series?
The word ARID is most nearly the
opposite of
A
B
C
D
The word IDENTIFY means most nearly
the same as
A
B
C
D
14
B
These words run in pairs. Insert the
missing word to complete the third pair.
17
DESERT
MOIST
OILY
REGULAR
If the word SHAVING is coded 7392410
then the word VANISH would be coded
A
B
C
D
294173
291437
291743
291473
JLP LNR NPT PRV ____
A
B
C
D
RVX
STX
RTX
SVZ
37
37
37
18
Sheng thinks of a number, doubles it,
then subtracts half the original number,
then adds three.
21
He ﬁnishes with the number 39.
A
B
C
D
Sheng’s original number was
A
B
C
D
19
21
24
27
36
90
8
6
2
A
B
C
D
20
22
The numbers in each of the three patterns
follow the same rule. Find the missing
number.
64
9
3
121
7
11
?
3
8
9
10
11
my like belong chips the computer I in
only
38
38
b
c
l
t
K
R
E
S
The word VINDICATE is most nearly the
same as
A
B
C
D
23
If you arrange the words below to make
the best sentence, what letter would the
LAST word begin with?
A
B
C
D
Add one letter to the word HIRES.
Rearrange the letters to make a word
meaning scream. The added letter is
JUSTIFY
IMPROVE
SPICE
SATISFY
What group of letters comes next in this
series?
AZB EDF IHJ MLN ____
A
B
C
D
PRQ
POS
QPR
QPS
24
A ﬁgure is missing in the following
sequence. Which one of the answer
ﬁgures would best replace the question
mark?
27
A
B
C
D
28
?
B
A
C
D
A
B
C
D
26
741390827
741930287
751309827
751930287
30
Michael was 1.0 metres tall, and could
only reach up to the 1st ﬂoor lift button.
From the 1st ﬂoor, he had to walk up 100
steps to reach the 6th ﬂoor.
A
B
C
D
90
80
70
50
PUFF
BLOW
DRIFT
GALE
Four parcels have a total weight of
22 kilograms. Parcel 1 is four times the
weight of Parcel 3. Parcel 4 is half the
weight of Parcel 2.
If Parcel 1 weighs 8 kilograms, how much
does Parcel 4 weigh?
A
B
C
D
Vinh was 1.4 metres tall, and could reach
the 5th ﬂoor button. He had to walk up
20 steps to reach the 6th ﬂoor.
Lucy was 1.1 metres tall. To reach the
6th ﬂoor, how many steps did she have to
walk up?
OS
OSL
ON
CON
BREEZE is to WIND as WIND is to
A
B
C
D
SOMERSAULT is to 9271894530 as
MAELSTROM is to
AUNT
NIECE
UNCLE
DAUGHTER
Remove some letters from the word
CONSOLE. Rearrange the letters to make
a word meaning to shut. The removed
letters are
A
B
C
D
29
25
MOTHER is to SISTER as
GRANDMOTHER is to
31
3 kilograms
4 kilograms
6 kilograms
12 kilograms
LEVER is to REVEL as DRAWER is to
A
B
C
D
CUPBOARD
PAINT
REWARD
WRITER
39
39
39
32
Add one letter to the word REIGNS.
Rearrange the letters to make a word
meaning choir. The added letter is
A
B
C
D
36
What does YVZW mean?
A
B
C
D
E
L
R
S
37
33
What group of letters comes next in this
series?
CEF
A
B
C
D
GIJ
KMN
OQR
BELT
BEAT
BEAD
BART
What group of letters comes next in this
series?
ABL
____
A
B
C
D
TVW
UWX
STU
SUV
38
34
In a certain code DZMG means WANT.
A ﬁgure is missing in the following
sequence. Which one of the answer
ﬁgures would best replace the question
mark?
BCH
CDD
DEZ
____
EFV
FGW
EGT
EFW
A ﬁgure is missing in the following
sequence. Which one of the answer
ﬁgures would best replace the question
mark?
?
A
B
C
?
D
A
35
The word FEEBLE is most nearly the
opposite of
A
B
C
D
40
40
ANGRY
STRONG
VIOLENT
GENUINE
B
C
D
39
In a foreign language,
41
TAYO YETI means OLD MAN,
ALI SOTI means YOUNG WOMAN,
and ALI YETI means OLD WOMAN.
A ﬁgure is missing in the following
sequence. Which one of the answer
ﬁgures would best replace the question
mark?
What is the foreign word for YOUNG?
A
B
C
D
40
ALI
TAYO
SOTI
YETI
?
Use each of the numbers 3, 4, 6, 7, 8 and
9 once only. Fill the empty squares so that
each row, column and diagonal adds up to
15.
A
B
C
D
1
42
5
2
In a certain code,
I WANT TO BE
becomes
O TNEW UT IB.
In this code the message
HOW MANY TIMES would become
The numbers that add up to 15 are
A
B
C
D
row 1
row 2
row 3
618
816
816
618
753
753
357
354
942
492
492
972
A
B
C
D
43
WOH YNAM SEMIT
WUH YNEM SIMOT
WUH YNEM SOMIT
HUW MENY TOMIS
Christin’s age is equal to three times her
age in 3 years’ time minus three times her
age 3 years ago.
How old is Christin?
A
B
C
D
10
12
15
18
41
41
41
44
STUPID is to ASTUTE as CLUMSY is to
A
B
C
D
45
46
The word CORPULENT is most nearly
the same as
A
B
C
D
50
GENEROUS
DELIBERATE
ANGRY
HELPFUL
INTERIOR
BLOODY
CORRUPT
FLESHY
The numbers in each of the three brackets
follow the same rule. Find the missing
number.
[10, 50, 15] [37, 120, 23] [16, 56, ?]
A
B
C
D
The word DESTINY is most nearly the
opposite of
A
B
C
D
47
AWKWARD
SKILLED
DENSE
ABILITY
The word WILFUL is most nearly the
same as
A
B
C
D
49
CHOICE
CHANGE
FATE
FINISH
51
8
10
12
14
A ﬁgure is missing in the following
sequence. Which one of the answer
ﬁgures would best replace the question
mark?
Stephen is 18 years old. In 14 years’ time
he’ll be half the age his father will be
then.
?
How old is his father now?
A
B
C
D
48
48
50
58
64
These words run in pairs. Insert the
missing word to complete the third pair.
MEMORY
FAMILIAR
DEFIANT
A
B
C
D
42
42
A
–
–
–
DEFIANCE
DEFENCE
DEFY
DEFEND
MEMORISE
FAMILIARISE
_____________
52
B
C
D
In a certain code TGFYWOAG means
SECURITY.
In the same code what does GGHHGGJS
mean?
A
B
C
D
FINANCES
CARRIAGE
RETAINER
FEEDBACK
53
The word DETRIMENT is most nearly
the opposite of
A
B
C
D
54
[19, 25, 3] [4, 26, 11] [?, 51, 9]
55
20
31
33
34
SHOUT is to TALK as TALK is to
A
B
C
D
CHALLENGE
IMPROVEMENT
CONSUMPTION
DEPARTURE
The numbers in each of the three brackets
follow the same rule. Find the missing
number.
A
B
C
D
57
58
SPEAK
CRY
LAUGH
WHISPER
If you arrange the words below to make
the best sentence, what letter does the
LAST word begin with?
the below roof the carpet leaked onto the
through rain
A
B
C
D
b
c
l
t
Which one does not belong?
HEAT TEPID COLD FREEZING
A
B
C
D
56
END OF GENERAL ABILITY
SAMPLE QUESTIONS
LOOK BACK OVER YOUR WORK
TEPID
HEAT
FREEZING
COLD
A ﬁgure is missing in the following
sequence. Which one of the answer
ﬁgures would best replace the question
mark?
?
A
B
C
D
43
43
43
44
NSW DEPARTMENT OF EDUCATION AND TRAINING
SELECTIVE HIGH SCHOOLS TEST
TEST 4
WRITTEN EXPRESSION
INSTRUCTIONS
This booklet contains one writing task. You are to write in response to the topic
in the space provided in the booklet.
You have 20 minutes to complete the task.
When you are told, open the booklet and begin.
There is blank planning space in the answer booklet where you may jot ideas or
make a plan.
Remember the amount you write is not as important as the quality of what you
write.
If you finish writing before time is up, use the rest of the time to go over your
work and to make changes you feel might improve it.
Sample test paper
DO NOT OPEN THIS BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE TOLD
Writing task
Write a response to the following question about changes you would like to see.
What changes would you like to see in your neighbourhood,
suburb, town, or in Australia as a whole?
Your writing will be judged on:
what you have to say
how well you organise the way you say it and
how clearly and effectively you express yourself.
You are encouraged to use the blank space for planning and rough work.
Work on this page will not be marked.
START YOUR RESPONSE ON THE NEXT PAGE.
45
44
46
SELECTIVE HIGH SCHOOLS TEST SAMPLE QUESTIONS: ANSWERS
READING
No. Answer
1
C
2
C
3
B
4
A
5
B
6
B
7
C
8
D
9
A
10
C
11
C
12
B
13
C
14
C
15
A
16
B
17
C
18
C
19
C
20
C
21
D
22
D
23
A
24
B
25
A
26
D
27
C
28
B
29
A
30
C
31
C
32
A
33
A
34
C
35
B
MATHEMATICS
No. Answer
1
B
2
B
3
C
4
B
5
B
6
D
7
C
8
C
9
A
10
A
11
B
12
D
13
A
14
C
15
B
16
C
17
D
18
D
19
A
20
B
21
D
22
D
23
A
24
D
25
B
26
A
27
C
28
D
29
B
30
C
31
B
32
C
33
A
34
C
35
D
36
A
37
A
38
D
GENERAL
ABILITY
No. Answer
1
C
2
B
3
C
4
A
5
C
6
D
7
D
8
A
9
D
10
B
11
C
12
D
13
C
14
C
15
C
16
B
17
D
18
B
19
A
20
B
21
A
22
A
23
C
24
B
25
A
26
B
27
A
28
C
29
D
30
B
31
C
32
D
33
D
34
C
35
B
36
C
37
A
38
D
39
C
40
C
41
A
42
B
43
D
44
B
45
B
46
A
47
B
48
C
49
D
50
C
51
C
52
D
53
B
54
C
55
B
56
D
57
D
58
A
47
47
47
48
4