1. science
2. mathematics
3. arithmetic

SAMPLE TEST PAPER
TARGET : AIIMS-2014
CODE
0
COURSE : MP, MF, MR
Duration : 3½ Hours
Max. Marks : 200
Please read the instructions carefully. You are allotted 5 minutes specifically for this purpose.
INSTRUCTIONS
A. General :
1. This Question Paper contains 200 (60 Physics, 60 Chemistry, 60 Biology & 20 General Knowledge)
questions according to new pattern of AIIMS.
3. Rough work is to be done on the space provided for this purpose in the Test Booklet only. This space is
given at the bottom of each page.
4. Blank paper, clipboard, log tables, slide rules, calculators, cellular phones, pagers and electronic gadgets
in any form are not allowed.
5. The answer sheet, a machine-gradable Objective Response Sheet (ORS), is provided separately.
6. Do not Tamper / mutilate the ORS or this booklet.
7. Do not break the seals of the question-paper booklet before instructed to do so by the invigilators.
8. Write your Name, Roll No. and Sign in the space provide on the back page of this booklet.
B. Filling the bottom-half of the ORS :
9. The ORS has CODE printed on its lower and upper Parts.
10. Make sure the CODE on the ORS is the same as that on this booklet. If the Codes do not match, ask for
a change of the Booklet.
11. Write your Roll No., Name and Name of centre and sig with pen in appropriate boxes. Do not write these
anywhere else.
12. Darken the appropriate bubbles below your registration number with Blue/Black ball pen.
C. Question paper format and Marking scheme :
13. The question paper consists of 4 Parts (Part-A (Physics), PART-B (Chemistry), PART-C (Biology) & Part-D
(General Knowledge)).
14. For each question, you will be awarded 1 marks if you darken the bubble corresponding to the correct
answer and zero marks if no bubble is darkened. In case of bubbling of incorrect answer, minus one third
(–1/3) mark will be awarded.
DO NOT BREAK THE SEALS WITHOUT BEING INSTRUCTED TO DO SO BY THE INVIGILATOR
2. The question paper CODE is printed on the right hand top corner on this sheet of this booklet.
PART–A
4.
SECTION - I
Straight Objective Type
This section contains 40 multiple choice
questions. Each question has choices (a),
(b), (c) and (d), out of which ONLY ONE
On a smooth plane surface (figure) two
block A and B are accelerated up by
applying a force 30 N on A and 5 N on B
as shown in figure If mass of B is same
as that of A, the force on B is
30N
A
B
5N
is correct.
1.
(a) 30 N
(b) 15 N
A ball is released from the top of a tower
of height h meters. It takes T second to
reach the ground. What is the position of
the ball at
T
second1
2
(a)
h
meters from the ground
2
(b)
3h
meters from the ground
4
(c)
h
meters from the ground
4
(d)
7h
meters from the ground
9
2.
In unifrom circular motion
(a) Velocity remains constant
(b) Acceleration remains constant
(c) speed remains constant
(d) none of above
3.
A particle moves in circle of radius 50 cm
a t t wo r e v o l u t i o n s p e r s e c o n d . T h e
acceleration of the particle in meter per
second 2 is
(a) 2
(b) 82
(c) 4 2
(d) 23
RESONANCE
(c) 17.5 N
(d) 5 N
5.
Two pulley arrangements of figure given
are identical. The mass of the rope is
negligible. In fig (a), the mass m is lifted
by attaching a mass 3m to the other end
of the rope. In fig (b), m is lifted up by
pulling the other end of the rope with a
constant downward force F = 3mg. The
acceleration of m in the two cases are
respectively
(a) 3g, g
(b) g/2, 2g
(c) g/3, 2g
(d) g, g/3
STP_AIIMS_C0–1
6.
A motor drives a body along a straight line
wi t h a c o n s t a n t f o r c e . T h e p o we r P
developed by the motor must vary with
distance s according to
(a)
(c)
8.
A disc is rolling (without slipping) on a
horizontal surface.C is its centre and Q
and P are two points equidistant from C.
Let V P ,V q and V C be the magnitude of
velocities of points P, Q and C respectively,
then
(b)
(a) V Q > V C > V P
(b) V Q < V C > V P
(d)
(c) V Q = V P, V C =
7.
A 3 kg ball strikes a heavy rigid wall with a
speed of 10m/s at an angle of 30°. It gets
reflected with the same speed and angle
as shown here. If the ball is in contact with
the wall for 0.20s, what is the average
force exerted on the ball by the wall ?
1
VP
2
(d) V Q < V C < V P
9.
The moment of inertia of a thin square
plate ABCD of unifrom thikness about
given axis passing through will satisfy the
condition.
////////////////////////////////////
30°
30°
(a) 150 N
(b) Zero
(c) 150 3N
(d) 300 N
(a) I 1  I 2
(b) I 3  I 4
(c) I 1= I 2 = I 3 = I 4
(d) I 1 I 2  I 3  I 4
RESONANCE
STP_AIIMS_C0–2
10. Suppose, the acceleration due to gravity
at the Earth’s surface is 10ms –2 and at the
surface of unknown p l a n e t ( s i m i l a r t o
earth) is also 10m/s 2 . A 60 kg passenger
goes from the Earth to the unknown planet
in a spaceship moving with a constant
velocity. Neglect all other objects in the
sky. Which part of figure best represents
the weight (net gravitational force) of the
passenger as a function of time ?
12. Water rises to a height of 5 cm in capillary
tube and mercury falls to a depth of 2 cm
in the same capillary tube. If the density
of mercury is 13.6 and the angle of contact
for mercury is 120°, the approximate ratio
of surface tensions of water and mercury
is (approximate)
(a) 1:0.15
(b) 1 : 3
(c) 1 : 11
(d) 1.5 : 1
13. Magnus effect is based on.
(a) Torricelli’s theorem
(b) bernoulli’s theorem
(c) law of gravitation
(d) conservation of linear momentum.
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
11. Two positive charge particles q 1 and q 2 (q 1
> q 2) and masses m 1 and m 2 (m 1< m 2) are
released from rest from a finite distance.
They start under their mutual electrostatic
repulsion.
(a) acceleration of m 1 is more than that of
m 2.
(b) acceleration of m 2 is more than that of
m 1.
(c) centre of mass of system will remain
at rest in all the reference frame
(d) total energy of system does not remain
constant.
RESONANCE
14. An open and closed organ pipe have the
same length. The ratio of fundamental
mode of frequency of vibration of two
pipes is.
(a) 1 : 2
(b) 2 : 1
(c) 3 : 2
(d) 2 : 3
15. A child swinging on a swing in Standing
position, sits down, then the time period
of the swing will
(a) increase
(b) decreases
(c)remains same
(d) increases of the child is long and
decrease if the child is short
STP_AIIMS_C0–3
16. If ice at 1atmospheric pressure is heated
from –40° C to 35°C water by supplying
h e at a t co n s t a nt r a t e . T h e g r a p h o f
temperature vs time will be.
(a)
(b)
17. When two tuning forks (fork 1 and fork 2)
are sounded simultaneously, 6 beats per
second are heard. Now, some tape is
attached on the prong of the fork 2. When
the tuning forks are sounded again, 8 beats
per second are heard. If the frequency of
fork 1 is 200 Hz, then what was the original
frequency of fork 2 ?
(a) 202 Hz
(b) 200 Hz
(c) 204 Hz
(d) 194 Hz
18. A sound absorber attenuates the sound
level by 10 dB. The intensity decreases by
a factor of
(a) 100
(b) 1000
(c)10000
(d) 10

19. If a dipole of dipole moment p is placed in

a uniform electric field E , then potential
energy of it is given by.
 
(a) u = P  E
 
(c)
(b) u =  P  E


(c) u = | P  E |


(d) u =  | P  E |
(d)
RESONANCE
20. W h i c h o f t h e f o l l o w i n g i s i n c o r r e c t
statement ?
(a) Electric field is always conservative
(b) Electric field due to a varying magneitc
field is non-conservative
(c) Electric field due to stationary charge
is conservative
(d) none of above
STP_AIIMS_C0–4
21. The four capacitors, each of 10 F are
c o n n e c t e d a s s h o wn i n F i g . T h e d c
voltmeter reads 100 V. The charge on
each plate of capacitor is.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
 2 × 10 –3 C
 1 × 10 –3 C
 1 × 10 –2 C
 2 × 10 –2 C
24. A constant voltage is applied between the
two ends of uniform metallic wire. Some
heat is developed in it. The heat developed
will be same.
(a) both the length and radius of wire are
halved
(b)length is quadrupled and radius is
doubled
(c) the radius of wire of doubled
(d) the length of the wire is doubled.
25. I n t h e c i r c u i t s h o w n i n f i g u r e , t h e
5 resistance develops 20.00 cal/s due
to the current flowing through it. The heat
developed in complete network (in cal/s )
is
22. A network of four capacitor of capacity
equal to C 1 =C, C 2 =2C, C 3, = 3C and
C 4 = 4C are conducted to a battery as
shown in the figure. The ratio of the charge
on C 2 and charge given by battery is.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
23.8
40.9
11.9
7.1
26. A rectangular loop (a×b) carries a current

i. A unifrom magnetic filed B =B 0 ˆi exists
s
in space.Then which of the statment is
wrong.
(a)
(b)
(b)
(d)
4//7
3/25
7/4
22/3
23. Two wires of same metal have the length
in ratio 1 : 3 but their cross section area
in the ratio 3:1. They are joined in series.
The resistance of the thicker wire is 10.
The total resistance of the combination is.
(a) 5/2 
(b) 40/3 
(c) 100 
(d) 22/3 
RESONANCE
(a) torque on the loop is iabB 0 sin
(b) torq ue on the loop is in negat ive
y- direction
(c) if allowed to move the loop turn so as
to increase 
(d) if allowed to move the loop turn so as
to decrease 
STP_AIIMS_C0–5
27. Equal current i flows in two segments of
a circular loop in the directions shown in
figure. Radius of the loop is a. Mangetic
field at the centre of the loop is
(a)zero
 2     0 i

   2a
(c) 
28.
 i
0
(b)    2a


   i
0
(d)  2  2a


A c c o r d i n g t o C u r i e ’s l a w m a g n e t i c
susceptibility is related with absolute
temperature T as
(a)  m  T
(b)  m  1/T 2
(c)  m  1/T
(d)  m  T 3
29. The magnetic field lines due to a bar
magnet are correctly shown in
(a)
(c)
RESONANCE
30. Fig represents an area A = 1m 2 situated in
a uniform magnetic field
B = 2.0 weber/m 2 and making an angle of
30° with respect to magnetic field.The
value of the magnetic flux through the area
would be equal to
(a) 2.0 weber
(b)
3 weber
(c)
3 / 2 weber
(d) 0.5 weber
31. A conducting rod AB of length  moves
with constnat speed v parallel to X-axis in
a uniform magnetic field of strength B,
pointing in the positive Z-direction. The
potential difference between A and B would
be
(b)
(d)
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
V A – V B = Bvl
V A – V B = –Bvl
VA – V B = 0
V A – V B = Bvl/2
STP_AIIMS_C0–6
32. Series RLC circuit at resonance known as
(a) Rejector circuit
(b) Acceptor circuit
(c) Rejector if resonance frequency is high
(d) Acceptor circuit if resonance frequency
is low.
35. A nuclear reaction is given by
zX A ZX A +energy, represents
(a) fission
(b) -decay
(c) - decay
(d) fusion
33. An inductance L (2H) having a resistance
R(4) is connected to an alt ernat ing
source
of
angular
frequency
( 1 0 r a d / s ) T h e Q u a l i t y f a c t o r Q o f
inductance is
(a) 80
(b) 20
(c) 5
(d) 8
36. Which represents NOR gate ?
34. Radioactive element decays to form a
stable nuclie, then decayed nuclie (N)
verses time (t) graph will be
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
RESONANCE
STP_AIIMS_C0–7
37. The real time variation of input signals A
and B are as shown below. If the inputs
are fed into AND gate, then select the
output signal from the following.
38. The focal length of a concave mirror are
f V and f R for violet and red light respectively
.Then
(a) f V > f R
(b) f V = f R
(c) f V <f R
(d) any of the three is possible depending
on the value of the average refractive
index 
39. Wavelength of light used in an optical
instrument are  1 = 1000Å and  2 = 9000Å
,then ratio of their respective resolving
powers (corresponding to  1 and  2 ) is
(a) 16 : 25
(b) 9 : 1
(c) 4 : 5
(d) 5 : 4
(a)
40. In YDSE experiment if ratio of maximum
and minimum intensity is 4 :1 then fringe
visibility would be
(b)
(a)
2
5
(b)
5
3
(c)
3
5
(d)
5
2
(c)
SECTION - II
Reasoning Type
This section contains 20 reasoning type
questions. Each question has 4 choices
(a), (b), (c) and (d), out of which ONLY
ONE is correct.
(d)
RESONANCE
STP_AIIMS_C0–8
41. S t a t e m e n t - 1 : P a r t i c l e h a v i n g z e r o
acceleration must have constant speed.
Statement-2 : A particle having constant
speed must have zero acceleration.
(a) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is
True; Statement-2 is a correct explanation
for Statement-1.
(b) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is
Tr u e ; St a t e m e n t - 2 i s N O T a c o r r e c t
explanation for Statement-1
(c) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is
False
(d) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is
True
42. Statement-1 : A rocket moves forward by
pushing the surrounding air backwards.
Statement-2 : It derives the necessary thrust
to move forward according to Newton's third
law of motion.
(a) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;
Statement-2 is a correct explanation for
Statement-1.
(b) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;
Statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation for
Statement-1
(c) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False
(d) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True
43. Statement-1 : A wheel moving down a
perfectly frictionless inclined plane will
undergo slipping (not rolling motion).
Statement-2 : For perfect rolling motion,
work done against friction is zero.
(a) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is
True; Statement-2 is a correct explanation
for Statement-1.
(b) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is
Tr u e ; St a t e m e n t - 2 i s N O T a c o r r e c t
explanation for Statement-1
(c) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is
False
(d) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is
True
RESONANCE
44. Statement-1 : When unltraviolet light is
inc iden t on a p hot o cell , it s st oppi ng
potential is V 0 and the maximum kinetic
energy of the photoelectrons is Kmax. When
the ultraviolet light is replaced by X-rays,
both V 0 and K max increase.
Statement-2 : Photoelectrons are emitted
wi t h s p e e d s r a n g i n g f r o m ze r o t o a
maximum value because of the range of
the range of frequencies present in the
incident light.
(a) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is
True; Statement-2 is a correct explanation
for Statement-1.
(b) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is
Tr u e ; St a t e m e n t - 2 i s N O T a c o r r e c t
explanation for Statement-1
(c) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is
False
(d) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is
True
45. Statement-1 : The root mean square
velocity of molecules of a gas having
Maxwellian distribution of velocities is
higher than their most probable velocity,
at any temperature.
Statement-2 : A very small number of
m olecules of a g a s m olecules which
posses very large velocities.
(a) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is
True; Statement-2 is a correct explanation
for Statement-1.
(b) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is
Tr u e ; St a t e m e n t - 2 i s N O T a c o r r e c t
explanation for Statement-1
(c) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is
False
(d) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is
True
STP_AIIMS_C0–9
46. Statement-1 : The soldiers marching on a
suspended bridge are advised to go out of steps.
Statement-2 : Frequency of marching steps
may match with the natural frequency of
oscillation of bridge.
(a) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;
Statement-2 is a correct explanation for
Statement-1.
(b) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;
Statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation for
Statement-1
(c) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False
(d) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True
47. Statement-1 : When two vibrating tuning forks
having frequencies 256 Hz and 512 Hz are held
near each other, beats cannot be heard.
Statement-2 : The principle of superposition
is valid only if the frequencies of the oscillators
are nearly equal.
(a) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;
Statement-2 is a correct explanation for
Statement-1.
(b) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;
Statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation for
Statement-1
(c) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False
(d) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True
48. Statement-1 : The ratio of specific heat of a
gas at constant pressure and specific heat at
constant volume for a diatomic gas is more
than that for a monatomic gas.
Statement-2 : The molecules of a monatomic
gas have more degree of freedom than that
those of a diatomic gas.
(a) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;
Statement-2 is a correct explanation for
Statement-1.
(b) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;
Statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation for
Statement-1
(c) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False
(d) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True
RESONANCE
49. St at em en t -1 : The speed of revolution of
an artificial satellite revolving very near the
earth is 8 km s –1.
Statement-2 : Orbital velocity of a
satellite, become independent of height of
satellite.
(a) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is
True; Statement-2 is a correct explanation
for Statement-1.
(b) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is
Tr u e ; St a t e m e n t - 2 i s N O T a c o r r e c t
explanation for Statement-1
(c) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is
False
(d) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is
True
50. Statement-1 : When a girl sitting on a swing
stands up, the periodic time of the swing
decreases.
Statement-2 : When the girl stands up more
weight is felt on the string of swing.
(a) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;
Statement-2 is a correct explanation for
Statement-1.
(b) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;
Statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation for
Statement-1
(c) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False
(d) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True
51. Statement-1 : Violet shift indicates that a star
is approaching the earth.
Statement-2 : Violet shift indicates decrease
in apparent wavelength of light.
(a) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;
Statement-2 is a correct explanation for
Statement-1.
(b) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;
Statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation for
Statement-1
(c) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False
(d) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True
STP_AIIMS_C0–10
52. Statement-1 : Two particles moving in the
same direction do not lose all their energy in a
completely inelastic collision.
Statement-2 : Principle of conservation of
momentum holds true for all kinds of collision.
(a) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;
Statement-2 is a correct explanation for
Statement-1.
(b) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;
Statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation for
Statement-1
(c) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False
(d) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True
55. Statement-1 : Current is passed through a
metallic wire, heating it red. Half of its portion
is cooled (by cold water jacket), then rest of
the half portion become more hot.
Statement-2 : Resistances decreases due
to decrease in temperature and so current
through wire increases.
(a) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;
Statement-2 is a correct explanation for
Statement-1.
(b) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;
Statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation for
Statement-1
(c) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False
53. Statement-1 : Magnetic lines always form a
closed loop.
Statement-2 : Magnetic monopoles may exist.
(a) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;
Statement-2 is a correct explanation for
(d) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True
Statement-1.
(b) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;
Statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation for
Statement-1
(c) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False
(d) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True
54. Statement-1 : A uniformly charged disc has a
pin hole at its centre. The electric field at the
centre of the disc is zero.
Statement-2 : Disc can be supposed to be
made up of many concentric rings. Also electric
field at the centre of uniformly charged ring is
zero.
(a) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;
Statement-2 is a correct explanation for
Statement-1.
(b) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;
Statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation for
Statement-1
(c) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False
(d) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True
56. Statement-1 : For cooking in a microwave
oven, food is always kept in metal containers.
Statement-2 : The energy of microwave is
easily transfered to the food in metal container.
(a) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;
Statement-2 is a correct explanation for
Statement-1.
(b) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;
Statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation for
Statement-1
(c) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False
(d) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True
57. Statement-1 : Although the surfaces of a
goggle lens are curved, it does not have any
power.
Statement-2 : IN case of goggles, both the
curved surfaces have equal radii of curvature.
(a) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;
Statement-2 is a correct explanation for
Statement-1.
(b) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;
Statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation for
Statement-1
(c) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False
(d) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True
RESONANCE
STP_AIIMS_C0–11
58. Statement-1 : Stopping potential depends upon
the frequency of incident light but is independent
of the intensity of the light.
Statement-2 : The maximum kinetic energy
of the photoelectrons is proportional to
stopping potential.
(a) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;
Statement-2 is a correct explanation for
Statement-1.
(b) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;
Statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation for
Statement-1
(c) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False
(d) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True
59. Statement-1 : Diamagnetic materials can
exhibit magnetism.
Statement-2 : Diamagnetic materials have
permanent magnetic moment.
(a) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;
Statement-2 is a correct explanation for
Statement-1.
(b) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;
Statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation for
Statement-1
(c) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False
(d) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True
60. Statement-1 : Although the same current flows
through the line wires and the filament of the
bulb, the filament gets heated up but not the
line wires.
Statement-2 : Line wires are made of copper
and the filaments are made of tungsten.
(a) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;
Statement-2 is a correct explanation for
Statement-1.
(b) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;
Statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation for
Statement-1
(c) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False
(d) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True
RESONANCE
STP_AIIMS_C0–12
65.
PART–B
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
SECTION - I
Straight Objective Type
This section contains 40 multiple choice
questions. Each question has choices (a),
(b), (c) and (d), out of which ONLY ONE is
66.
correct.
61.
VSEPR notation of PCl5, H2O and SF4 are
(Where A is central atom, X is bonded atom
and L is lone pair on central atom) :
PCl5
AX5
AX5L
AX5
AX5L
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
62.
H2O
AX2L
AX2
AX2L2
AX2L2
1
1
1
0
m
0
1
1
0
The temperature of an ideal gas is increased
from 120 K to 480 K. If at 120 K the rootmean-square velocity of the gas molecules
is v, at 480 K it becomes :
(b) 2v
(d) v/4
How many moles of K2Cr2O7 are needed to
oxidise 1 mole of Fe0.93O in acidic medium :
(b) 0.283 moles
(d) 0.158 moles
68.
In which of the following process, energy is
liberated :
(a) Cl(g)  Cl+ (g) + e–
(b) Na(g)  Na+ (g) + e–
(c) Be(g) + e–  Be– (g)
(d) Li(g) + e–  Li– (g)
In a particular transition of electron in a 69.
H-atom, its kinetic energy changes from y
The values of Vander Waals constant "a"
for the gases O2, N2, NH3 & CH4 are 1.36,
1.39, 4.17, 2.253 2 atm mole–2 respectively.
The gas which can most easily be liquified
is :
to
(b) alkalline
(d) acidic
y
. The change in potential energy of
4
electron will be :
3
(a) – y
4
(c) –
64.

(a) 0.79 moles
(c) 0.131 moles
50 mL of 5.6% KOH (w/v) is added to 50
mL of a 5.6% HCl (w/v) solution. The
resulting solution will be :
(a) neutral
(c) strongly alkalline
63.
n
2
2
3
3
(a) 4v
(c) v/2
67.
SF4
AX4L
AX4L
AX4L
AX4L2
The correct set of quantum no. for the
unpaired electron of chlorine.
3
y
8
(d) +
3
y
2
A major source of air pollution years ago
was the metal industry. One common
process involved “roasting” of a metal
sulphide in the air as shown :
2PbS(s)+3O2(g)  2PbO(s)+2SO2(g)
If 2.5 moles of PbS are heated in air, what
volume of air at NTP is required for complete
reaction, if air contains 20% O2 gas by
moles :
(a) 16.8 L
(c) 840 L
RESONANCE
(a) O2
(c) NH3
3
(b) + y
4
(b) 33.6 L
(d) 420 L
70.
A (g) + B (g)
C (g) + D (g)
Above equilibrium is established by taking A
& B in a closed container. Initial concentration
of A is twice of the initial concentration of B.
At equilibrium concentrations of B and C are
equal. Then find the equilibrium constant for
the reaction
C (g) + D (g)
A (g) + B (g).
(a) 3/2
(c) 1/2
71.
(b) N2
(d) CH4
(b) 3
(d) 1/3
Coordination number and oxidation number
of Ni in [Ni(C2O4)3]4– are :
(a) 3, 2
(c) 4, 4
(b) 6, 2
(d) 2, 4
STP_AIIMS_C0–13
72.
If the rate of a reaction is equal to the rate
constant, the order of the reaction is
(a) 2 always
(b) 3 always
(c) 0 always
(d) equal to any order if conc. = 1M
73.
(b) 10.73 JK–1 mol–1
(d) 108.5 JK–1 mol–1
(b) 2
(d) 4
77.
83.
(b) 0.1 M aniline
(d) 0.02 M aniline
Consider the following values of electrode
potentials
EºA/A– = 0.96 V ; EºB/B2– = – 0.12 V
EºC+/C = 0.18 V ; EºD2+/D = – 1.12 V
Which combination of electrodes will result
electrochemical cell with largest cell potential
RESONANCE
Wax is an example of (a) lonic crystal
(b) Covalent crystal
(c) Molecular crystal
(d) Metallic crystal
Aluminium chloride exists as dimer, Al2Cl6
in solid state as well as in solution of nonpolar solvents such as benzene. When
dissolved in water, it gives :
Amongst the following oxo-acids of
phosphorus , how many of them are dibasic
in nature ?
H3PO2 , H3PO3, H3PO4, H4P2O5
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4
The limiting molar conductivities º for NaCl,
KBr and KCl are 126, 152 and 150 S cm2
mol–1 respectively. The º for NaBr is
(a) 128 S cm2 mol–1
(b) 176 S cm2 mol–1
(c) 278 S cm2 mol–1
(d) 302 S cm2 mol–1
Aniline is a very weak base. Which of the
given aniline solution will have highest
degree of dissociation.
(a) 1M aniline
(c) 0.01 M aniline
78.
82.
When 1 mole gas is heated at constant
volume, temperature is raised from 298 to
308 K. Heat supplied to the gas is 500 J.
Then, which statement is correct ?
(a) q = W = 500 J, E = 0
(b) q = E = 500 J, W = 0
(c) q = – W = 500 J, E = 0
(d) E = 0, q = W = – 500 J
(b) Zn, Ag, Au
(d) Au only
(a) [Al(OH)6]3– + 3HCl
(b) [Al(H2O)6]3+ + 3Cl–
(c) Al3+ + 3Cl–
(d) Al2O3 + 6HCl
The half lives of two samples are 0.1 and
0.4 second. Their respective concentrations
are 200 and 50 respectively. What is the
order of the reaction ?
(a) 0
(c) 1
76.
(b) 0.000469
(d) 0.0183
(b) I and III
(d) I and IV
The anode mud in the electrolytic refining of
silver contains :
(a) Zn, Cu, Ag, Au
(c) Cu, Ag, Au
The entropy change in the fusion of one mole
of a solid melting at 27°C (latent heat of fusion
81.
is 2930 J mol–1) is:
(a) 9.77 JK–1 mol–1
(c) 2930 JK–1 mol–1
75.
79.
Calculate the molar solubility of zinc
tetrathiocyanato–N–mercurate () if its KSP 80.
= 2.2 × 10–7.
(a) 0.00380
(c) 0.0095
74.
(a) II and IV
(c) I and II
84.
Which one of the following gives mixture of
SO2 and SO3 on heating ?
(a) ZnSO4
(c) Fe2 (SO4)3
(b) CuSO4
(d) FeSO4
STP_AIIMS_C0–14
85.
86.
Which of the following hydrogen halides is 90.
most volatile ?
Which of the following carbonyl compounds
is most acidic ?
(a) HCl
(c) HI
(a)
(b) HF
(d) HBr
Amongst the following the lowest degree of
paramagnetism per mole of the compound
at 298 K will be shown by:
(c) CH3 – C – Ph
||
O
(a) MnSO4.4H2O
(b) CuSO4.5H2O
(c) FeSO4.6H2O
(d) NiSO4.6H2O
87.
(b)
(d) Ph – CH2 – C – H
||
O
Heavy water is used in nuclear reactors as : 91.
(a) source of a particles.
(b) slowing down the speed of high energy
neutrons.
(c) transporting heat of the reactor.
(d) heating purposes.
The correct decreasing order of electron
density in aromatic ring of following
compounds is :
(I)
(II)
O
||
C – NH – CH3
NH – CH3
88.
(III)
Which of the following alkyl group is not
attached directly to the cyclohexane ring in
this compound ?
89.
O
||
O–C–H
O
||
C–H
(IV)
(a) (II) > (III) > (IV) > (I)
(a) Iso-propyl
(b) Iso-Butyl
(c) t-Butyl
(d) Neo-pentyl
(b) (III) > (II) > (IV) > (I)
In which of the following species, correct 92.
direction of Inductive effect are shown ?
The least and most stable resonating
structure respectively are :
(a)
(c) (IV) > (I) > (III) > (II)
(d) (III) > (II) > (I) > (IV)
(b)
(c)
(a)
(a) 2, 1
(b)
(b) 2, 3
(c)
(c) 3, 1
(d)
(d) 1, 2
(d)
O
RESONANCE
STP_AIIMS_C0–15
93.
94.
Which of the following statements are not 97.
correct ?
The Weakest intermolecular forces are
present in :
(a) Inductive effect causes permanent
polarity in the molecule.
(b) Free radicals have odd electron in a porbital.
(c) All C – C bond lengths are same in Buta1,3-diene.
(d) Hyperconjugation also affects the dipole 98.
moment of the molecule.
(a) Fibres
(b) Thermoplastic polymers
(c) Thermosetting polymers
(d) Elastomers
Re agent
CH3–CH2–CC–CH2–CH3 
 
(a) -D(+) glucopyranose is more stable
than -D(+) glucopyranose.
(b) Invert sugar is laevorotatory.
(c) Although fructose is a ketone but it is not
give positive Tollen's test.
(d) Starch contains -glycosidic linkage
whereas cellulose contains -glycosidic
linkage.
Which of the following reagent is used for
above conversion :
(a) H2/Ni
99.
Select the incorrect statement out of the
following :
IUPAC name of the following compound is :
(b) NaBH4
(c) H2 + Pd–BaSO4
(d) Na + EtOH
(a) 1,2-Dibromo-3-chlorocycloprop-1-ene
95.
A teritary alcohol
can be prepared
(b) 1,3-Dibromo-2-chlorocycloprop-1-ene
by grignard reagent and :
(a) O2
(b) Epoxide
(c) Acid derivatives (specially acid halide)
(d) All of these
96.
CH 3 –CH 2 –CH=O
dil. NaOH
  
heat
(c) 1,2 Dibromo-3-chlorocycloprop-2-ene
(d) 2,3-Dibromo-1-chlorocycloprop-1-ene
100.
In
the
following
compound
;
major
product (X), X may be :
(a) CH3–CH2–CH=CH–CH2–CHO
(b)
Which of the following R1 and R2 groups will
change the word root ?
(c)
(a) – COOH and – CH3
(b) – SO3H and – OCH3
(c) – OH and – CH2 – CH3
(d) – CH=CH2 and – COOH
(d)
RESONANCE
STP_AIIMS_C0–16
103.
SECTION - II
Reasoning Type
Statement-1 : The species [CuCl4]2– exists
but [CuI4]2– does not.
Statement-2 : Cl– and I– are weak ligend.
This section contains 20 reasoning type
questions. Each question has 4 choices (a),
(b), (c) and (d), out of which ONLY ONE is
correct.
(a) Statement-1 is true, Statement-2 is true;
Statement-2 is the correct explanation of
Statement-1.
(b) Statement-1 is true, Statement-2 is true;
Statement-2 is not the correct explanation
101.
Statement-1 : LiCl is predominantly a
covalent compound.
of Statement-1
(c) Statement-1 is false, Statement-2 is true.
(d) Statement-1 is true, Statement-2 is false.
Statement-2 : Electronegativity difference
between Li and Cl is too small.
104.
(a) Statement-1 is true, Statement-2 is true;
Statement-1 : In ZnS zinc blende structure
Zn2+ form FCC while alternate tetrahedral
voids are occupied by S2–.
Statement-2 is the correct explanation of
Statement-1.
(b) Statement-1 is true, Statement-2 is true;
Statement-2 is not the correct explanation
of Statement-1
(c) Statement-1 is false, Statement-2 is true.
(d) Statement-1 is true, Statement-2 is
false.
Statement-2 : Positions of Zn2+ and S2– in
zinc blende structure are similar.
(a) Statement-1 is true, Statement-2 is true;
Statement-2 is the correct explanation of
Statement-1.
(b) Statement-1 is true, Statement-2 is true;
Statement-2 is not the correct explanation
of Statement-1
102.
Statement-1 : Among K2O2 , KO2 , O2 and
O2[AsF6], compound K2O2 will have the
largest O – O bond length.
Statement-2 : Largest bond order 105.
corresponds to largest bond length.
(c) Statement-1 is false, Statement-2 is
true.
(d) Statement-1 is true, Statement-2 is false.
Statement-1 : The enthalpy of formation of
gaseous oxygen molecules at 298 K and
under a pressure of one atmosphere is zero.
(a) Statement-1 is true, Statement-2 is true;
Statement-2 is the correct explanation of
Statement-1.
(b) Statement-1 is true, Statement-2 is true;
Statement-2 : The entropy of formation of
gaseous oxygen molecule under the same
conditions is zero.
Statement-2 is not the correct explanation
(a) Statement-1 is true, Statement-2 is true;
of Statement-1
Statement-2 is the correct explanation of
(c) Statement-1 is false, Statement-2 is true.
Statement-1.
(d) Statement-1 is true, Statement-2 is
(b) Statement-1 is true, Statement-2 is true;
false.
Statement-2 is not the correct explanation
of Statement-1
(c) Statement-1 is false, Statement-2 is true.
(d) Statement-1 is true, Statement-2 is
false.
RESONANCE
STP_AIIMS_C0–17
106.
Statement-1 : When 2 faraday of electricity 108.
is passed through 0.1 M H2SO4 (aq), 11.2
litre O2 evolved at STP.
Statement-2 : Molecular weight of oxygen
is 32.
Statement-1 : Colloidal solutions are stable
but colloidal particles do not settle down.
Statement-2 : Brownian movement
counters the force of gravity actively on
colloidal particles.
Statement-2 is the correct explanation of
(a) Statement-1 is true, Statement-2 is true;
Statement-2 is the correct explanation of
Statement-1.
(b) Statement-1 is true, Statement-2 is true;
Statement-1.
Statement-2 is not the correct explanation
(b) Statement-1 is true, Statement-2 is true;
of Statement-1
Statement-2 is not the correct explanation
(c) Statement-1 is false, Statement-2 is true.
of Statement-1
(d) Statement-1 is true, Statement-2 is false.
(a) Statement-1 is true, Statement-2 is true;
(c) Statement-1 is false, Statement-2 is true.
(d) Statement-1 is true, Statement-2 is false. 109.
107.
Statement-1 : Electropositive metals like
Mg, Al are extracted by electrolysis of their
salt aquous solutions.
Statement-1 : Silicones are hydrophobic
and used for water proofing of fabrics.
Statement-2 : Silicones having being
surrounded by non-polar alkyl groups are
water repelling in nature.
Statement-2 : Highly electropositive metals
cannot be reduced by normal chemical
reduction methods.
(a) Statement-1 is true, Statement-2 is true;
Statement-2 is the correct explanation of
(a) Statement-1 is true, Statement-2 is true;
Statement-1.
Statement-2 is the correct explanation of
(b) Statement-1 is true, Statement-2 is true;
Statement-1.
Statement-2 is not the correct explanation
(b) Statement-1 is true, Statement-2 is true;
of Statement-1
Statement-2 is not the correct explanation
(c) Statement-1 is false, Statement-2 is true.
of Statement-1
(d) Statement-1 is true, Statement-2 is false.
(c) Statement-1 is false, Statement-2 is true.
(d) Statement-1 is true, Statement-2 is
false.
110.
Statement-1 : Pure phosphine is non
inflammable .
Statement-2 : Impure phosphine is
inflammable owing to the presence of P2H4
or P4 vapours.
(a) Statement-1 is true, Statement-2 is true;
Statement-2 is the correct explanation of
Statement-1.
(b) Statement-1 is true, Statement-2 is true;
Statement-2 is not the correct explanation
of Statement-1
(c) Statement-1 is false, Statement-2 is true.
(d) Statement-1 is true, Statement-2 is false.
RESONANCE
STP_AIIMS_C0–18
111.
Statement-1 : At room temperature oxygen 114.
exists as a diatomic gas, where as sulphur
exists as solid.
Statement -1- Optical diastereomers differ
Statement-2 : The catenated - O - O - O changes are less stable as compared to
O = O molecule.
Statement -2- Optical diastereomers may
have same or opposite signs of rotation or
may be inactive.
(a) Statement-1 is true, Statement-2 is true;
(a) Statement-1 is true, Statement-2 is true;
Statement-2 is the correct explanation of
Statement-1.
(b) Statement-1 is true, Statement-2 is true;
Statement-2 is the correct explanation of
Statement-1.
(b) Statement-1 is true, Statement-2 is true;
Statement-2 is not the correct explanation
of Statement-1
(c) Statement-1 is false, Statement-2 is true.
112.
Statement-2 is not the correct explanation
of Statement-1
(c) Statement-1 is false, Statement-2 is true.
(d) Statement-1 is true, Statement-2 is false.
(d) Statement-1 is true, Statement-2 is false.
Statement-1 : The free gaseous chromium
115.
atom has six unpaired electrons
Statement 1 : Coupling of PhN2 with aniline
is faster than with phenol.
Statement-2 : Half filled orbital has greater
stability than fully filled
(a) Statement-1 is true, Statement-2 is true;
Statement-2 is the correct explanation of
Statement 2 : –NH2 group at aniline is more
electron donating than that of –OH at
phenol.
Statement-2 is not the correct explanation
(a) Statement-1 is true, Statement-2 is true;
Statement-2 is the correct explanation of
Statement-1.
(b) Statement-1 is true, Statement-2 is true;
of Statement-1
Statement-2 is not the correct explanation
(c) Statement-1 is false, Statement-2 is
of Statement-1
true.
(c) Statement-1 is false, Statement-2 is true.
(d) Statement-1 is true, Statement-2 is false.
(d) Statement-1 is true, Statement-2 is false.
Statement-1.
(b) Statement-1 is true, Statement-2 is true;
113.
in specific rotation.
Statement-1 : Calgon is used in
manufacture of soft water being used for
laundry purpose.
Statement-2 : Ca2+ and Mg2+ ions present
in hard water are rendered ineffecetive by
calgon forming their soluble complexes.
(a) Statement-1 is true, Statement-2 is true;
Statement-2 is the correct explanation of
Statement-1.
(b) Statement-1 is true, Statement-2 is true;
Statement-2 is not the correct explanation
of Statement-1
(c) Statement-1 is false, Statement-2 is true.
(d) Statement-1 is true, Statement-2 is false.
RESONANCE
STP_AIIMS_C0–19
116.
Statement-1
is having higher heat 118.
of hydrogenation than
Statement-2 
(cinnamaldehyde) fails to undergo aldol
condensation.
.
Statement 2: This is due to the fact that
cinnamaldehyde does not have acidic
 – H.
is resonance
stabilised.
(a) Statement-1 is true, Statement-2 is true;
Statement-2 is the correct explanation of
Statement-1.
(b) Statement-1 is true, Statement-2 is true;
Statement-2 is not the correct explanation
of Statement-1
(c) Statement-1 is false, Statement-2 is true.
(d) Statement-1 is true, Statement-2 is false.
(a) Statement-1 is true, Statement-2 is true;
Statement-2 is the correct explanation of
Statement-1.
(b) Statement-1 is true, Statement-2 is true;
Statement-2 is not the correct explanation
of Statement-1
(c) Statement-1 is false, Statement-2 is true.
119.
(a) Statement-1 is true, Statement-2 is true;
Statement-2 is the correct explanation of
Statement-1.
(b) Statement-1 is true, Statement-2 is true;
Statement-2 is not the correct explanation
of Statement-1
(c) Statement-1 is false, Statement-2 is
true.
(d) Statement-1 is true, Statement-2 is false.
Statement-2 :In vinyl chloride, the –Cl is
bonded to sp-hybridized carbon of an alkene.
(a) Statement-1 is true, Statement-2 is true;
Statement-2 is the correct explanation of
Statement-1.
(b) Statement-1 is true, Statement-2 is true;
Statement-2 is not the correct explanation
(c) Statement-1 is false, Statement-2 is true.
is less stable than
Statement-2 : Positive charge on more
electronegative atom creates unstablity for
structure.
Statement-1 : Ethyl chloride is more
reactive than vinyl chloride towards
nucleophilic substitution reaction.
of Statement-1
Statement-1 :
.
(d) Statement-1 is true, Statement-2 is false.
117.
Statement-1 :
120.
Statement-1 : Propene and butene have
same empirical formula.
(d) Statement-1 is true, Statement-2 is
false.
Statement-2 : Compounds having same
general formula, always have same
empirical formula.
(a) Statement-1 is true, Statement-2 is true;
Statement-2 is the correct explanation of
Statement-1.
(b) Statement-1 is true, Statement-2 is true;
Statement-2 is not the correct explanation
of Statement-1
(c) Statement-1 is false, Statement-2 is true.
(d) Statement-1 is true, Statement-2 is
false.
RESONANCE
STP_AIIMS_C0–20
PART C
125. In Drosophila the XXY condition leads to
femaleness whereas in human beings the
Straight Objective Type
This section contains 60 multiple choice
questions. Each question has choices (a),
(b), (c) and (d), out of which ONLY ONE is
same condition leads to Klinenfelter
syndrome in male. It prove
(a) In human beings Y- chromosome is active
in sex determination
(b) Y-chromosomes is active in sex
correct.
determination in both human beings and
121. Grafting is not possible in monocots because
drosophila
(a) Vascular bundles are scattered
(c) In drosophila Y-chromosome decides
(b) Vascular bundles are closed
femaleness
(c) Hypodermis is sclerenchymatous
(d) Y-chromosomes of man have genes for
(d) Vascular bundles are open
syndrome
126. The sexual reproduction in spirogyra can be
122. Quinine important in the treatment of malaria
is extracted from
described as –
(a)
(a) Bark of Cinchona
Morphological
anisogamy
and
physiological isogamy
(b) Bark of Cinnamon
(b) Morphological as well as physiological
(c) Stem of Hevea
isogamy.
(d) Leaves of Ocimum
(c) Morphological as well as physiological
anisogamy.
123. Cycas and Pteris resemble each other in the
(d) Morphological isogamy and physiological
anisogamy.
presence of–
(a) Vessels and seeds
I
(b) Ciliated sperm and seed
(c) Vessels and Cambium
B
127. CO2 + H2O
II
(d) Ciliated sperms and circinate Ptyxis
in the above diagram
(a) I is photosynthesis, II is respiration ‘B’ is
124.The arrangement of outer microtubules in
carbohydrates only
(b) I is respiration, II is photosynthesis ‘B’ is
a cilium is found.
(a) 9
(b) 2
(c) 0
(d) 9 + 2
carbohydrates only
(c) I is photosynthesis, II is respiration ‘B’ are
CO2 and H2O
(d) I is respiration, II is photosynthesis and ‘B’
are carbohydrates and oxygen
RESONANCE
STP_AIIMS_C0–21
128. Rhizobium lives symbiotically with root
132. Which of the following was used by Hershey
nodules and fixes atmospheric nitrogen. It
and Chase to prove that DNA is the chemical
gives nitrogenous compound to host and
basis of heredity?
inturn takes food from host. This food taken
(a) TMV
by bacterium is-
(b) Cauliflower mosaic virus
(a) Fats
(b) proteins
(c) Dahlia mosaic virus
(c) Carbohydrates
(d) Any of these
(d) T2 bacteriophage
129. The respiration of young maturing seeds is
133. The rhizoids of Riccia are
quite high but as water content decreases
(a) Multicelled, smooth & tuberculated type
during further maturation repiration
(b) Unicelled and tuberculated
(a) Decrease steadily
(c) Unicelled unbranched smooth walled and
(b) Increases steadily
tuberculated type
(c) Stops completely
(d) Unicelled branched and smooth type
(d) Remains high
134. In decapitated plants, axillary buds are
130. A classification based on all similarities &
difference which take into consideration all
important similarties between plants is
(a) Artificial
(b) Natural
(c) Phylogenic
(d) Quantitative
activated because(a) Amount of cytokinin increases in them
(b) Auxin is made available to them
(c) They get more light
(d) More food material is available to them
131. Which of the following is most likely cause
for wider opening of stomata
(a) Atmosphere outside the stomata is
becoming less humid
(b) Secretion of salt molecules by adjacent
guard cells is talking place
(c) Water molecules enter the guard cells from
adjacent cell
(d) The night temperature is going to fall
135. W hich among the following is the most
appropriate reason for storing green coloured
apples at low temperatures
(a) The rate of photosynthsis is reduced
(b) The rate of respiration is reduced
(c) The rate of photosynthesis and respiration
are reduced
(d) Respiration and photosynthesis are
completely inhibited
RESONANCE
STP_AIIMS_C0–22
136. A woman with normal vision marriage a man
139. Difference between recombinant cells from
with normal vision and gives birth to a
non-recombinants on the basis of their ability
coulourblind son. Her husband dies and he
to produce colour in presence of a
marriage a colourblind man, what is the
chromosgenic substance. In this process an
probabality of her children having the
enzyme gene become inactivate which is
abnormality :-
reffered as –
(a) 50% colourrblind sons + 50% colourblind
(a) Insertional Inactivation
daughters
(b) Insertional activation
(b) All sons colourblind & daughter carrier
(c) Chromosomal abberation
(c) All daughter colourblind and sons normal
(d) Inverson
(d) 50% sons colourblind and all daughters
normal
140. One of the key factors, which makes the
137. Find out the incorrect statement-
plasmid as vector in genetic engineering is
(a) Balbiani rings (puffs) are the sites of RNA
that –
synthesis.
(a) It is resistant to antibiotics
(b ) Cytokinesis refers to the division of
(b) It is resistant to restriction enzymes
cytoplasm.
(c) Its ability to carry a foregin gene
(c) Tetrad is made of two homologous
(d) Its ability to cause infection in the host
chromosomes each with two chromatids
(d) The chromosome end is called nucleolus
141. Cellulose, the most important constituent of
138. During translation, peptide bond is formed
plant cell wall is made of
between -
(a) Unbranched chain of glucose molecules
(a) NH2 - group of P-site amino acid and -
linked by  1, 4 glycosidic bond
COOH group of A- site amino acid
(b) Branched chain of glucose molecules
linked by  1, 4 glycosidic bond in straight chain
(b) - COOH group of P-site amino acid and -
and  1, 6 glycosidic bond at the site of
NH2 group of A-site amino acid
branching
(c) Unbranched chain of glucose molecules
(c) - NH2 group of P-site amino acid and - NH2
linked by  1, 4 glycosidic bond
group of A-site amino acid
(d) Branched chain of glucose molecules
linked by 1, 6 glycosidic bond at the site of
(d) - COOH group of P-site amino acid and -
branching
COOH group of A-site amino acid
RESONANCE
STP_AIIMS_C0–23
142. Partial removal of liver is not harmful because
146. Mammary glands are without teats (nipples)
(a) Liver being a large organ can suffice the
in
functions even if a part is removed
(a) Metatheria
(b) Prototheria
(b) Liver is not a very essential organ of the
(c) Theria
(d) Eutheria
body
147. The 24 hour (diurnal) rhythm of our body such
(c) Liver has regenerative capacity and will
grow after partial hepatectomy
as the sleep-wake cycle is regulated by the
hormone :
(d) The function of liver can be taken over by
(a) calcitonin
(b) prolactin
kidneys
(c) adrenaline
(d) melatonin
148. The cerebellum is concerned with the
143. When a man inhales air containing normal
concentration of O2 with CO he suffers from
suffocation because
(a) CO reacts with O2 reducing its percentage
in air
(a) Co-ordination of muscular movements
(b) Perception
(c) Memory
(d) Vision
(b) haemoglobin combines with CO instead
of O2 and forms carboxyhaemoglobin
(c) CO affects diaphragm and intercostal
149. Joint between femur and tibio–fibula (knee
muscles
joint) is
(d) CO affects the nerves of the lungs.
(a) Hinge joint
(b) Saddle joint
(c) Pivot joint
(d) Imperfect joint
144. The most active phagocytic white blood cells
distribution in the egg will affect-
are
(a) Neutrophils and monocytes
(b) Neutrophils and Eosinophils
(c) Lymphocytes and macrophages
(d) Eosinophils and Lymphocytes.
145. Connecting linked between Annelida and
(a) Formation of zygote
(b) Fertilisation
(c) Pattern of cleavage
(d) Implantation
151. In human which of the following is used to
confirm implantation of embryo ?
Mollusca is
(a) Neopilina
(b) Chiton
(c) Peripatus
(d) King Crab
RESONANCE
150. A change in the amount of yolk and its
(a) Gastrula
(b) Trophoblast
(c) Inner mass of cell
(d) Blastocyst.
STP_AIIMS_C0–24
152. Nebenkern is a part of
158. Hallucinogens
(a) Foetus
(a) Are nerve depressants
(b) Graafian follicle
(b) Are nerve stimulants
(c) Alter thoughts, feelings and perceptions
(c) Human ovum
(d) Are pain relievers
(d) Human sperm
159. Broad spectrum antibiotic is that which
153. Coacervates are
(a) Acts on both pathogens and hosts
(a) Protein aggregates
(b) Acts on all bacteria and niruses
(b) Protein and lipid aggregates
(c) Acts on a variety of pathogenic micro-
(c) Chemical aggregates
organisms
(d) Protobionts with polysaccharides, proteins
(d) Is effective in very small amounts
and water
160. The employing of artificial arteries is termed
154. Darwin’s finches are an excellent examples of
(a) Brood parasitism
(a) Autograft
(b) Allograft
(c) Vascular graft
(d) Xenograft
(b) Seasonal migration
(c) Connecting links
Directions for Questions 161 to 180 :
(d) Adaptive radiation
Read the Assertion (A) and Reason (R)
carefully to mark the correct option out
155. Human ancestors, who left cave paintings
of the options given below–
were -
(a) If both A and R is true and R is the correct
(a) Neanderthal man
explanation of A
(b) Java ape man
(b) If both A and R is true but R is NOT the
(c) Cro-magnon man
correct explanation of A
(d) Peking man
(c) If A is true and R is false
(d) If A is false and R is true or false
161. Assertion : Ribosomes are the site of protein
156. Theory ‘Ontogeny recapitulates Phylogeny’
was proposed by
synthesis.
Reason: In prokaryotes ribosomes are
(a) Mendel
(b) Haeckel
(c) Erasmus Darwin
(d) Weismann
associated with the plasma membrane.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
157. The cancer of the epithelial cells is called
(a) Leukemia
(b) Lipoma
(c) Sarcoma
(d) Carcinoma
RESONANCE
STP_AIIMS_C0–25
162. Assertion : The inner membrane of
167. Assertion : Embryo sac of mostly
mitochondria contains systems involving
angiosperms become 8–nucleated structure.
electron transport.
Reason : Active megaspore goes to 3–mitotic
Reason : The mitochondrial matrix contains
division and develop the embryo sac
enzymes of Kreb's cycle.
(a)
(b)
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(c)
(d)
168. Assertion : Pollen grains are developed
163. Assertion:Biosynthetic
phase
of
inside the microsporangia.
photosynthesis does not directly depend on
Reason :Microsporangia is 7–celled structure only
the presence of light.
(a)
(b)
Reason : Biosynthetic phase take place in
(c)
(d)
thylakoid and stroma part of chloroplast.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
169. Assertion : The plant cells have inherent
capacity to develop into complete plant.
164. Assertion : Diad of cells in seen is telophase-I
Reason :Nucelar membrane and nucleolus
reappears and cytokinesis follows in
telophase-I
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Reason : Tissue culture is one of the latest
and promising methods of crop improvement.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
170. Assertion : In plants, which flower in shortday length, the flowering response is primarily
165. Assertion:z–gene of lac operon makes –
due to the length, of the light period.
Reason : The vegetative buds of SDP are
galectosidase.
Reason : –galectosidase participate in
converted into flower primordia in the dark
period.
metabolism of lactose.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
171. Assertion : Hormones are similar to enzymes
166. Assertion : Replication occur within a small
in their action and chemical nature.
opening of the DNA.
Reason : Hormones and enzymes are
Reason : Two strands of DNA cannot be
proteinaceous in nature and act as
separated in its entire length due to very high
informational molecules.
energy requirement.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
RESONANCE
STP_AIIMS_C0–26
172. Assertion : Emphysema is a chronic disorder
176. Assertion : A sperm sticks to an egg for
in which alveolar walls are damaged.
fertilization and is species specific.
Reason : Emphysema is closely related to
Reason : Interaction of surface receptors,
cigarette smoking.
fertilizin of the egg and antifertilizin on the
(a)
(b)
sperm head,
(c)
(d)
adhere together and are as enzyme-substrate
173. Assertion : An artificial pacemaker can
makes
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
them
replace the sinoatrial node of heart.
Reason : This is because, an artificial
177. Assertion : The earth originally had a reducing
pacemaker is capable of stimulating the heart
atmosphere
electrically to maintain its beats.
Reason : There was no life on the earth when
(a)
(b)
it came into existence
(c)
(d)
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
174. Assertion : Urinary tract infection is less
178. Assertion: Human ancestors never used
common in women than in men.
their tails so that tail expression gene has
Reason : Urethra is longer in women than in
disappeared in them.
men.
Reason: Lamarck's theory of evolution is
(a)
(b)
popularly called theory of continuity of
(c)
(d)
germplasm.
175. Assertion : A woman passes out HCG in the
urine after conception or implantation.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
179. Assertion : Rabies is infectious disease of
Reason : Excess hormones are either
warm blooded mammals characterised by
metabolised or excreted by the kidneys.
involvement of central nervous system
Presence of HCG in urine is the basis for
resulting in paralysis and finally death.
pregnancy test.
Reason : This is caused due to neurotropic
(a)
(b)
filterable bacteria in saliva of rabid animals.
(c)
(d)
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
RESONANCE
STP_AIIMS_C0–27
180. Assertion : Ranikhet disease is the disease
185. 'World Literacy Day' is celebrated on
of poultry.
(a) Sep. 5
(b) Aug. 5
Reason : It is caused by a virus.
(c) Sep. 8
(d) Oct. 8
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
PART - D
* GENERAL KNOWLEGDE AIIMS*
Straight Objective Type
This section contains 20 multiple choice
questions. Each question has choices (a),
(b), (c) and (d), out of which ONLY ONE is
correct.
186. 'Mohiniattam' dance developed originally in
which state ?
(a) Tamil Nadu
(b) Orissa
(c) Kerala
(d) Karnataka
187. Which of the following food grain crops
occupies the largest part of the cropped area
in India ?
(a) Maize
(b) Soybean
(c) Rice
(d) Wheat
181. Who is the founder of 'Arya Samaj'
(a) Anand Mohan Bose
188. The members of Lok Sabha hold office for a
(b) Syed Ahmand Khan
terms of
(c) Rajaram Mohan Roy
(d) Swami Dayanand Saraswati
(a) 3 year
(b) 4 year
(c) 5 year
(d) 6 year
182. Which of the following is incorrect match.
(a) Foundation of Indian National congress–
1875
(b) Khilafat movement lauched–1920
189. Produce gas is
(a) CO + N2
(b) CO + H2
(c) CO2 + N2
(c) CO2 + H2
(c) Gandhi Irwin Pact–1931
(d) Government of India Act–1935
190. Which of the following is incorrect(a) Baking Soda – NaHCO3
183. Kaziranga National Park is situated at.
(b) Washing Soda – Sodium Crabonante
(a) Mysore, Karnataka
(c) Alum – K2SO4Al2(SO4)3 24H2O
(b) Jorhat Assam
(d) Bleacing Powder– CaOCl
(c) Nainital, Uttrakhand
(d) Junagarh, Gujarat
184. The Indian Institute of science is located at
(a) Kerala
(b) Madras
(c) Bangalore
(d) New Delhi
RESONANCE
STP_AIIMS_C0–28
191.
Vitamin
C
(ii)
K
Chemical Name
(i)
Tocopherol
Phylloquinone
Deficiency
Scurvy
Loss fertility
(iii)
(i), (ii) & (iii) are respectively.
(a) Pyrodoxine, Vitamin B6 & Pellagra
(b) Riboflavin, Vitamin E & Nonclotting of
195. Who composed the famous song "Sare
Jahan Se Achcha"
(a) Mirza Ghalib
(b) Shakeel Badayuni
(c) Naqsh Lyalpuri
(d) Mohmmad Iqbal
Blood
(c) Ascorbic Acid, Vitamin E & Swelling of
gums
(d) Ascorbic Acid, Vitamin E & Non clotting of
196. Neelam is a variety of(a) Grape
(b) Papaya
(c) Mango
(d) Apple
Blood
197. The name of the white revolution name is
associated with
192. What is SAARC
(a) Verghese Kurien
(a) South Asian Association for regional
(b) C. Rangarajan
corporation
(c) M.S. Swaminathan
(b) South African association for regional
(d) J.V. Narlikar
corporation.
(c) South Asian association for religion
198. At what point the centigrade and the
corporation
fahrenheit temperature are the same
(d) South Asian Arrangment for Regional
(a) 0°
(b) 10°
corporation
(c) –10°
(d) –40°
193. International year of water cooperation is
(a) 2011
(b) 2012
(c) 2013
(d) None
199. Dhanraj Pilay is associated with(a) Hockey
(b) Cricket
(c) Football
(d) Lawn Tennis
200. Granite is the example of–
194. 'Pichhola Lake' is situated at
(a) Jaipur
(b) Ahmedabad
(c) Udaipur
(a) Igneous Rock
(b) Sedimentary Rock
(c) Metamorphic Rock
(d) None
(d) Jammu-Kashmir
RESONANCE
STP_AIIMS_C0–29
Name of the Candidate
Roll Number
I have read all the instructions and
shall abide by them.
I have verified all the information
filled in by the Candidate.
--------------------------------
--------------------------------
Signature of the Candidate
Signature of the Invigilator
(Space for rough work)