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APES SAMPLE MULTIPLE-CHOICE-day 2
SAMPLE PART A QUESTIONS Directions: Each set of choices below, labeled A-E will refer to a question or a statement directly following the lettered choices. The questions or statements may also refer to a diagram or graph. Each letter answer may be used more than once, only once, or not at all. Choose the one lettered choice you feel best answers the question or statement above. Questions 9-12 refer to the following
For questions 1-5, refer to the answers about biomes.
resources below. A) Marine Pelagic
A) Coal B) Freshwater aquatic
B) Sun C) Tundra
C) Aluminum D) Desert
D) Trees E) Savannah
E) Clay (9) Short growing season in warm, dry
(1) A potentially renewable resource. environment, requiring plants to retain water
(2) A renewable resource, human action (10) Similar to grassland biome but drier
has little to do with the life-‐span of this (11) Occurs at either high latitude or high
resource. altitude
(3) A nonrenewable resource and a fossil (12) Coral reef ecosystem is part of a larger
fuel. biome
(4) A nonrenewable resource and a metallic mineral. Questions 13-15 refer to the following
(5) A nonrenewable resource and a map people.
nonmetallic mineral. A. Rachel Carson
B. Charles Moore
From questions 6-10a refer to the C. Wangari Maathai
pollution terms below. D. Thomas Malthus
A) Persistence E. Garrett Hardin
B) Biodegradable (13) Tragedy of the Commons
C) Cleanup (14) Discovered the Pacific Garbage patch
D) Concentration (15) Wrote the book Silent Spring
E) Prevention (6) The amount per unit volume of air, Questions 16-19 refer to the following
soil, water, or body weight answers about the nitrogen cycle.
(7) Method of dealing with pollution in A) Nitrates
which receives relatively minor funding B) Nitrites
(8) How long a pollution remains in the C) Ammonia
air, soil, water, or body D) Atmospheric nitrogen
(9a) Most efforts to improve E) Nitrogen dioxide
environmental quality have focused on (16) Produced in the atmosphere by
this. lightning
(10a) Capable of being decomposed by (17) Fixation in the nodules of legumes
organisms, such as bacteria produces this form of nitrogen
(18) Full oxidation during secondary sewage
treatment produces these ions
(19) When mixed with water vapor, this
forms acid rain
APES Midterm Review
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APES SAMPLE MULTIPLE-CHOICE-day 2
Questions 20-23 refer to the following
answers about earth science.
A) Convection
B) Conduction
C) Radiation
D) All of the above
E) None of the above
(20) The mechanism(s) by which energy
may be transferred
(21) Carried by photons
(22) Occurs as a result of a collision
between two particles
(23) Occurs as a result of heated material
moving from one place to another
Questions 24-27 refer to the following
answers about rocks.
A) Igneous rocks
B) Metamorphic rocks
C) Sedimentary rocks
D) All of the above
E) None of the above
(24) This type of rock is susceptible to
chemical and mechanical weathering
(25) This type of rock is created by the
cooling of magma within the lithosphere
(26) This type of rock is produced when
small particles, transported by erosion, settle
on top of each other and become
compressed
(27) This type of rock uses heat and pressure
to form new rocks
Questions 28-31 refer to the following
answers about soils.
A) O horizon
B) A horizon
C) E horizon
D) B horizon
E) C horizon
(28) Primarily composed of larger fragments
of weathered parent material that lies
directly above the parent material
(29) Topsoil
(30) Organically rich surface material that
contains partially decomposed plants,
animals, bacteria, and fungi
(31) Subsoil layer that is rich with inorganic
minerals
APES Midterm Review
Questions 32-35 refer to the following
answers about energy flow in ecosystems.
A) Amount of biomass produced
through photosynthesis
B) Amount of herbivore biomass
C) Entropy
D) Inverted pyramid
E) Two of the above
(32) Primary productivity
(33) Secondary productivity
(34) Total productivity
(35) Respiration
Questions 36-39 refer to the following
answers about symbiosis.
A) Mutualism
B) Parasitism
C) Commensalism
D) Interspecific competition
E) Intraspecific competition
(36) Demonstrated by even spacing of
penguins on the shore
(37) Demonstrated by the two organisms
involved in forming lichens
(38) Demonstrated by nectar-producing
flowers
(39) Demonstrated by epiphytes
Questions 40-43 refer to the following
answers about human population growth.
A) Fertility
B) Infant mortality rate
C) Demographic transition
D) Crude birth rate
E) Total fertility rate
(40) The number of children born to an
average woman during her entire
reproductive life
(41) The number of births in a year per
thousand people
(42) Can be altered by education and
contraception
(43) The change in birth rates, death rates,
and growth of a population
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APES SAMPLE MULTIPLE-CHOICE-day 2
Refer to the following terms for questions 44-46 A) Data B) Theory C) Control group D) Hypothesis E) Experimental group (44) A well-‐tested and widely accepted idea, principle, or model (45) Contains the chosen variable that is changed in a known way. (46) Controlled experiment group in which no variable is changed. For questions 47-51, refer to the following choices A) NH4+ B) NO2-‐ C) NO3-‐ D) NH3 E) HNO3 47. Nitrate ion 48. Ammonium ion 49. Nitric Acid 50. Nitrite ion 51. Ammonia Refer to the following locations for question 52-56 a) Yellowstone National Park b) Yosemite National Park c) Cuyahoga River d) Hudson River e) Lake Tahoe (52) Oil-‐polluted, caught fire in 1969. (53) Hetch-‐Hetchy Valley is located here. (54) Oligotrophic system struggling with cultural eutrophication from suburbanization. (55) Grey wolves were reintroduced here after their eradication by man. (56) The place where GE dumped millions of tons of PCB’s SAMPLE PART B QUESTIONS
Five answer choices, lettered A-E will follow each one of the following questions or incomplete
statements below. The questions or statements may refer to a graph, diagram, or table. Choose
the one answer that best fits each question or completes the statement.
(57) Which of the following statements (58) The level below which a potentially regarding developed countries and developing renewable resource can be used without countries is true? reducing its available supply throughout the A) Developed countries are home to twice world or in a particular area: as many people as developing countries. A) sustainable yield B) Developed countries are home to four B) economic depletion times as many people as developing C) resource partitioning countries. D) symbiosis C) Developed countries have more rapid E) carrying capacity population growth rates than developing countries. D) Developed countries have lower per capita GNPs than developing countries. E) Developed countries generally have safer water supplies. APES Midterm Review
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APES SAMPLE MULTIPLE-CHOICE-day 2
(59) The global human population is closest to which of the following? A) 5 billion B) 6 billion C) 7 billion D) 10 billion E) 12 billion (60) Human population growth over the last 4,000 years can best be described as A) linear B) negative C) oscillating D) inverted E) exponential (61) The maximum population of a particular species that a given habitat can support over a given period of time: A) succession capacity B) impact capacity C) doubling capacity D) carrying capacity E) reserve capacity (62) If a nation has a growth rate 3.5 %, how many years will it take for the population to double in size? A) 2 years B) 10 years C) 20 years D) 35 years E) 350 years (63) Which of the following is an example of a non-‐point pollution source? A) A smoke-‐stack at a coal-‐ burning power plant. B) An automobile junk yard. C) A drain-‐pipe coming from a paint manufacturing factory. D) Runoff of nitrogen fertilizers from an agriculture area. E) The chimney on a hospital incinerator. (64) Which of the following choices contains only fossil fuels? A) Oil, solar, coal B) Oil, coal, wind C) Coal, water, natural gas D) Natural gas, coal, uranium E) Coal, natural gas, oil APES Midterm Review
(65) The first law of thermodynamics states that: A) doing work always creates heat. B) altering matter is the best source of energy C) energy cannot be recycled D) energy is neither created nor destroyed. E) Entropy tends to increase (66) Earth is essentially a(n) system regarding matter and a(n) system regarding energy. A) open; open B) open; closed C) closed; closed D) closed; open E) open; self-‐sustaining (67) The major renewable form of energy used in developing countries is: A) hydroelectric B) geothermal C) biomass D) solar E) coal (68) The pyramid (ecological pyramid) which best explains why there are typically only four or five links in a food chain is the pyramid of : A) Biomass B) Matter C) Numbers D) Energy E) Inversion (69) The amount of energy transferred from an organism on one trophic level to the next trophic level is approximately________% A) 1 B) 10 C) 30 D) 50 E) 90 (70) The form of nitrogen most usable to plants is A) Ammonia B) Nitrogen gas C) Proteins D) Nitrates E) Nucleic acids (71) All of the following increase the amount
of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere except :
A. respiration
B. photosynthesis
C. combustion
D. decomposition
E. volcanic eruptions
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APES SAMPLE MULTIPLE-CHOICE-day 2
For questions 72-74, refer to the energy flow diagram below
Consumer (Human)
Y
Consumer (Perch)
Consumer (Zooplankton)
Consumer
Producer (500,000 kcal)
(72) If there are 500,000 kilocalories (kcal) in
the producer level, how many kcal will
become incorporated in the tissues of the
secondary consumers?
A. 2
B. 50
C. 500
D. 5,000
E. 50,000
(73) How many kcal will become incorporated in the tissues of the tertiary consumers? A) 5 B) 50 C) 500 D) 5,000 E) 50,000 (74) The consumer group represented by the perpendicular bar labeled “Y” is known as the: A) carnivores B) decomposers C) omnivores D) keystones E) herbivores (75) Ants, Bees, Wolves, and Alligators are examples of organisms that are disproportionately important compared to their biomass in an ecosystem, and are therefore termed: A) Golden Species B) Specialist Species C) Indicator Species D) Generalist Species E) Keystone Species (76) The biggest stores for carbon are found in these “sinks”: A) Living organisms (especially plants) and troposphere B) Ocean water and living phytoplankton C) The African continent and Antarctica D) Greenland and the Boreal Forests E) The ocean floor and continents APES Midterm Review
(77) The energy of the sun is primarily the result of: A) the fusion of two helium atoms to form carbon B) the fission of two hydrogen atoms to form helium C) the fusion of two carbon atoms to form neon D) the fission of two neon atoms to form carbon E) the fusion of two hydrogen atoms to form helium (78) What is Net Primary Productivity? A) is the rate at which produces manufacture chemical energy through photosynthesis B) is the rate at which producers use chemical energy through respiration C) is the rate of photosynthesis plus the rate of cellular respiration D) is the rate at which energy for use by consumers is stored in biomass E) is the rate at which plants and other producers use photosynthesis to make more plant materials (79) The shorter the food chain, the A) smaller the loss of usable energy. B) fewer the number of organisms supported. C) lower the net primary productivity. D) smaller the gross primary productivity. E) greater the heat loss (80) Which of the following ecosystems has the lowest level of kilocalories per square meter per year? A) savanna B) tropical rain forest C) agricultural land D) lakes and streams E) open ocean 5
APES SAMPLE MULTIPLE-CHOICE-day 2
(81) Nonrenewable resources are: (86) The air pressures in the equatorial
A) Inexhaustible. latitudes tend to be higher than the pressure at
B) Always clean-‐burning. the same altitude about 30 degrees north or
C) Finite in supply. south because:
D) Replenishing in human time frame. A) The area 30 degrees north and E) Always solids at room temperature. south of the equator tends to (82) The degradation of spaces on and have more seasons, which cause surrounding Earth which are outside of the those areas to have more storms domain/ ownership/ rule of any country is and lower air pressures. known as: B)
The area 30 degrees north and A) The common curve south tends to be deserts, which B) The tragedy of the commons are hotter and tend to have lower C) The circle of the sustainability. D) The imminent domain. pressures than equatorial E) The tragedy of the cheese. regions. (83) In the equation, I = P A T, I represents: C) The equatorial region gets more A) resource technology sun, which causes the air to B) inertia of a population expand and to move north and C) introduced species south along the surface of the D) environmental impact of a population earth. E) infant mortality D) The equatorial region gets more (84) Which if the following trophic levels
sun, which expands the air, would contain the greatest amount of biomass
lowers the air pressure, and in a given ecosystem?
causes the air to rise. A) Bacteria E) The equatorial region gets more B) Photosynthetic algae sun, which causes the air to heat C) Herbivores up and increase pressure; D) Primary carnivores equatorial regions actually have E) Top carnivores higher pressures than areas that (85) Most of the property damage from
are 30 degrees north and south. hurricanes occurs from:
(87) The crude birth rate for a population is 32
A) Storm surges births
per 1,000people, and the crude death
B) Winds rate is 14 deaths per 1,000 people. Calculate
C) Tornadoes the percent growth of the population.
D) Looting crashing waves A) 3.2% B) 18% C) 1.8% D) 2.8% E) 14% APES Midterm Review
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APES SAMPLE MULTIPLE-CHOICE-day 2
(88)A major oil tanker has run aground and
(91) Which of the following describes the
spilled millions of barrels of oil. Even though
process by which one community outcompetes
the oil company spends many of millions of
another community for a habitat?
dillars on the clean-up effort, and there is less
A) Natural selection profit for the oi company, the GMP actually
B) Adaptive radiation increases as a result because:
C) Convergent evolution A) Other oil companies will make D) Primary succession more money as a result of out E) Secondary succession competing the oil company (91) Which of the following units are
whose tanker ran aground. equivalent to the units, ppm?
B) The increased price that results A) Molarity from a decrease in supply will B) Mg/kg cover the loss that was paid to C) Mg/L clean up the spill D) g/L C) The clean-‐up companies made E) Mg more money than the oil (92) Ecosystem complexity is most easily
measured by
company lost A) The number of species in the D) Additional money is spent on the ecosystem clean-‐up that would not B) The number of individuals in the ordinarily be spent ecosystem E) The GNP doesn’t actually C) The number of species at each increase in this scenario (89) Which of the following would NOT be
trophic level in the ecosystem considered a strategy used by a population that
D) The total number of producers in demonstrated logistic growth?
an ecosystem A) Give careful care to the young E) The total number of top B) Evolve into a relatively large carnivores in an ecosystem organism (93) A government agency is considering the
C) Take more time to reach sexual costs and benefits of a project that would
produce pollution in an area. A true cost
maturity analysis would include:
D) Produce a large number of A) Analyzing only the medical costs offspring of people affected by the E) Be a carnivore pollution. (90) Large water projects that low the flow of
rivers may show many economic benefit, but
B) Comparing the profit and such projects in warm climates can also lead
expenses of the project to:
C) The cost of materials, in addition A) Schistosomaisis to the administrative costs of the B) Malaria project C) Valley fever D) Analyzing the costs of medical D) HIV care and loss of happiness and E) River blindness productivity of the people who would be harmed by the project, in addition to the cost of the materials. APES Midterm Review
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APES SAMPLE MULTIPLE-CHOICE-day 2
(94) Which of the following is NOT a train
(99) Which of the following occurs when
that would put a species at risk of being
freshwater is too quickly removed from a well
endangered now or in the near future?
near the coast, and saltwater begins to come
out of the well?
A) The species is migratory and A) Infiltration depends on the availability of B) Transpiration healthy ecosystems in more than C) Intrusion one area D) Compaction B) The species competes with E) Depression humans for food (100) A solution has a hydrogen ion
C) The species has a high concentration of 1.0 x 10-3 moles per liter.
reproductive rate The pH of this solution is:
D) The species is higher on the food A) 1 chain B) 3 E) The species has low genetic C) 7 diversity D) 11 (95) Which of the following organisms would
E) 14 be most art risk for fat-soluble pollutants?
(101) Once radiant energy has penetrated the
A) Fish clouds and has been absorbed by Earth, which
B) Birds of the following occurs?
C) Small herbivores A) All the energy is eventually re-‐
D) Insects radiated as long-‐wavelength in-‐
E) Algae fared light. (96) Which of the following would be a good
B) All the energy is re-‐radiated as measure of primary productivity?
short-‐wavelength UV light. A) The mass if insect excrement C) The energy is entirely absorbed B) The mass of green leaves by the atmosphere to created produced on one acre of land convection cycles. C) The volume of oxygen used D) The energy is trapped by through respiration greenhouse gasses. D) The number of animals born or (102) The equator is warmer than the poles
hatched in a given season because:
E) The number of species that con A) The equatorial regions live in one area experience hot downdrafts in (97) Which of the following represents the
atmospheric convections cycles. nutrient-rich portion of a lake that is closest to
B) The equatorial regions are closer the bottom?
to the sun. A) Littoral Zone C) The oblique angle of the sun B) Limnetic Zone spreads the energy out over a C) Proundal Zone larger area in polar regions. D) Benthic Zone D) The sun spends less time shining E) Pelagic Zone on polar regions. (98) Which of the following water
compartments contains the greatest amount of
fresh water?
A) Ice and snow B) Rivers and lakes C) Lakes and reservoirs D) Groundwater E) Atmospheric water vapor APES Midterm Review
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APES SAMPLE MULTIPLE-CHOICE-day 2
(103) The number of species that a singe
(106) Which of the following ha the greatest
ecosystem can support is most related to:
impact in reducing population in the US?
A) The over amount of resources A) Demographic transition available B) The Great Depression B) The amount of competition C) Post WWII era between species D) The flu of 1918 C) The amount of sunshine available E) Post WWI ear (107) All of the following practices help
to the ecosystem conserve freshwater EXCEPT:
D) The amount of water available to A) Not ordering a newspaper the ecosystem B) Buying food in bulk that uses less E) The abundance of top carnivores packaging in the system. C) Putting silt dams around (104) How many years will it take for a
construction sites population to quadruple in size if it
demonstrates an 8% annual rate of growth?
D) Choosing drought-‐resistant A) 3 years plants for landscaping projects B) 4.5 years E) All of the above help conserve C) 9 years water D) 18 years (108) Which of the following is NOT a unit of
energy?
E) 36 years A) Joule (105) In the wastewater treatment process,
aluminum sulfate is used to help precipitate
B) Watt suspended toxins in a process called:
C) BTU A) Flocculation D) Kg x m2 / sec2 B) Absorbtion E) All of the above are units in C) Stripping energy. D) Incineration E) Bacterial remediation APES Midterm Review
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