Practice Paper – 1 Problem Solving Assessment Time Allowed : 1 ½ Hours Class–XI Max. Marks : 90 General Instructions : (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) (v) (vi) The question paper consists of 60 questions divided into three sections A, B and C. Section A : Qualitative Assessment comprises of 18 questions (27 Marks). Section B : Quantitative Assessment comprises of 18 questions (27 Marks). Section C : Language Conventions comprises of 24 questions (36 Marks). All questions are compulsory and each question has 1½ marks. All questions are multiple choice questions where you are required to select one correct option out of the given four. (vii) Use of calculator is not permitted. Section A : Qualitative Assessment 1. Based on the relationship between the first two words, choose the appropriate answer : Earth : Sun : : Moon ? (a) Orbit (b) Sky (c) Star (d) Earth 2. A and B are brothers. C and D are sisters. A’s son is D’s brother. How in B related to C ? (a) Father (b) Brother (c) Grandfather (d) Uncle 3. If GO is written as 32, SHE = 49 then SOME = ? (a) 56 (b) 58 (c) 62 (d) 64 4. Samander starts from his house and walks 3 km towards south then he turns left and walks 5 km. In which direction he is from his house ? (a) South (b) East (c) South East (d) North east 5. Find out the correct conclusion based on the given statements. Statements : I. All novels are stories. II. All stories are poems. Conclusions : (a) All novels are poems. (b) Some novels are poems (c) Some poems are novels (d) All poems are stories. 6. In a row of boys X is thirteenth, from the left and Y is seventeenth from the right. If in this row X is eleventh from the right then what is the position of Y from the left ? (a) 6th (b) 7th (c) 10th (d) 12th Directions (Q. 7-12) : Study the following information carefully to answer the questions given below : P, Q, R, S, T, U and V are seven professors. Each one teaches a different subject from Physics, Chemistry, Biology, English, Mathematics, Economics and Geography, not necessarily in the same order. Each of them teaches one day each on seven days (79) 80 / Reliable Problem Solving Assessment (PSA) – XI of the week from Monday to Sunday not necessarily in the same order. R teaches Biology on Friday. Q teaches Mathematics on the previous day of the day on which the professor teaches Physics. V teaches on Sunday but does not teach Chemistry or English. S teaches Economics on the previous day on which U teaches. P teaches Geography on Tuesday. T does not teach English. 7. Which subject does T teach ? (a) Chemistry (b) Physics (c) Either Chemistry or Physics (d) Data inadequate 8. Which subject does U teach ? (a) Physics (b) English (c) Either Physics or English (d) Data inadequate 9. On which day does T teach ? (a) Monday (b) Wednesday (c) Thursday (d) Data inadequate 10. On which day does U teach ? (a) Wednesday (b) Thursday (c) Wednesday or Thursday (d) Data inadequate 11. Which subject does V teach ? (a) Chemistry (b) English (c) Biology (d) Data inadequate 12. Which subject is taught on sunday ? (a) Physics (b) Chemistry (c) Biology (d) English Directions (Q. 13-18) : A, B, C, D, E and F are members of a family. Amongst them there are lawyer, doctor, teacher, salesman, engineer and an accountant. There are two married couples in the family. ‘D’ who is a salesman is married to the lady teacher. Doctor is married to the lawyer. ‘F’ who is an accountant is son of ‘B’ and also brother of ‘E’. ‘C’ who is lawyer is dauthterin-law of ‘A’. ‘E’ is an unmarried engineer. ‘A’ is grandmother of ‘F’. 13. What is the profession of B ? (a) Salesman (b) Doctor (c) Lawyer (d) Teacher 14. What is the profession of A ? (a) Teacher (b) Doctor (c) Lawyer (d) Engineer 15. What is the relation of B with D ? (a) Brother (b) Grandson (c) Son (d) Father 16. What is the relation of D with F ? (a) Husband (b) Brother (c) Father (d) Grandfather 17. Which of the following is a married couple ? (a) C and D (b) A and B (c) B and C (d) D and B 18. Who is accountant ? (a) D (b) C (c) F (d) A Reliable Problem Solving Assessment (PSA) – XI / 81 Section B : Quantitative Assessment 19. If one fourth of a number is smaller than one third of its predecessor by 1, then the number is : (a) 5 (b) 16 (c) 20 (d) 25 20. The value of 13 13 13 ... ... ∞ is : (a) 13 (b) 169 (c) 100 (d) none of these 21. The perpendicular distance of a point from x-axis is called : (a) Abscissa (b) Ordinate (c) Mantissa (d) Coordinate 22. Number of edges of a cuboid is : (a) 12 (b) 6 (c) 8 (d) 9 Observe the following table and give the answer of the questions from 23 to 26 : Crop Rice Wheat Pulses Potatoes Other grains Production (Lac ton) — Year 2006 2007 2008 2009 2010 2011 44.0 21.8 10.0 4.8 28.8 39.6 24.1 10.5 6.3 26.1 48.7 28.8 13.0 7.3 30.4 41.9 29.9 11.4 8.1 28.9 52.7 31.8 12.0 8.3 30.0 51.1 37.0 12.2 10.2 30.2 23. Production of which crop was increased by more than 10 lac ton from its previous year production ? (a) Wheat (b) Pulses (c) Potatoes (d) Rice 24. In which year sum of production of wheat and rice is maximum ? (a) 2006 (b) 2007 (c) 2008 (d) 2011 25. Production of which crop is increasing and decreasing alternatively in the succeeding years ? (a) Wheat (b) Other grains (c) Pulses (d) Rice 26. Production of which crop is least in the year 2011 as compare to the year 2006 ? (a) Wheat (b) Rice (c) Other grains (d) Potatoes 27. What is the probability of losing a game, if the probability of winning the game is 0.945 ? (a) 1 (b) 0 (c) 0.055 (d) 1.345 28. Which of the following is the greatest integer ? (a) – 1111 (b) – 111 (c) – 11 (d) – 1 29. There is a list of numbers 42.2, 28.4, 47.4, 36.4, 33.2, 40.0, 36.1 and 32.3. If the number 33.2 is replaced by 37.2 in the list, then the mean of the numbers is : (a) 37 (b) 37.5 (c) 51.5 (d) 38.5 30. If C.P. of an article is ` 500 and gain is 5%, then gain is : (a) ` 10 (b) ` 15 (c) ` 20 (d) ` 25 82 / Reliable Problem Solving Assessment (PSA) – XI Study the following figure and answer the questions (31 to 34) : Y R(3, 7) B(7, 8) A(5, 6) Q(4, 5) P(2, 3) X X¢ Y' 31. In Cartesian coordinate system the number of quadrants is : (a) 8 (b) 6 (c) 4 (d) none of these 32. The distance between the points A(5, 6) and B(7, 8) is : (a) 2 2 (b) 4 (c) 6 (d) – 2 2 33. Area of ΔPQR formed by the points P(2, 3), Q (4, 5) and R (3, 7) is : (a) 12 unit2 (b) 3 unit2 (c) 6 unit2 (d) 10 unit2 34. Slope of the line AB, when A(5, 6) and B(7, 8) is : (a) 30° (b) 60° (c) 45° (d) 90° 35. An joker’s cap is an example of a : (a) cube (b) cuboid (c) cone (d) sphere 36. There are 200 students in a hostel. Food for all of them is for 30 days. 40 more students join them. Now, food will last for : (a) 4 days (b) 16 days (c) 20 days (d) 25 days Section C : Language Conventions Read the passage carefully and answer the questions that follow by picking up the right option : The green house effect is experienced when the temperature rises because the sun’s heat and light is trapped in the earth’s atmosphere. This is like when heat is trapped in a car. On a very hot day, the car gets hotter when it is out in the parking lot. This is because the heat and light from the sun can get into the car, by going through the windows, but it can’t get back out. This is what the green house effect does to the earth. The heat and light can get through the atmosphere, but it can’t get out. As a result, the temperature rises. The green house effect makes the earth appropriate for people to live on. Without it, the earth would be freezing, or on the other hand it would be burning hot. It would be freezing at night because the sun would be down. During the day, especially during the summer, it would be burning because the sun would be up with no atmosphere to filter it, so people, plants, and animals would be exposed to all the light and heat. Although the greenhouse effect makes the earth able to have people living on it, if there get to be too many gases, the earth can get unusually warmer, and many plants, animals, and people will die. Plants like corn, wheat, and other vegetables and fruits Reliable Problem Solving Assessment (PSA) – XI / 83 would not be able to take the heat. This would cause us to have less food to eat, but it would also limit the food that animals have. With less food, like grass, for the animals that we need to survive (like cows) we would even have less food. Gradually, people, plants, and animals would all die of hunger. 37. Greenhouse effect can best be described as __________. (a) rise of temperature (b) trapping of certain amount of heat and light (c) trapping of heat in a car (d) allowing the sun through the window 38. The global temperature is rising as __________. (a) more heat is coming on earth (b) more gasses are there in the atmosphere (c) the heat is unable to get out of earth (d) the presence of gases blocks the heat from escaping 39. Greenhouse effect is essential for our existence because it __________. (a) maintains a balance of heat and light (b) maintains the cold temperature (c) maintains the sun’s heat (d) acts like a filter 40. We would have less food to eat as __________. (a) crops will die of heat (b) there will be too many people to share (c) animals also would want their share (d) cows won’t have anything to eat 41. Eventually everyone will die of hunger as we __________. (a) are all part of a chain (b) will not be able to take the heat (c) would disturb the ecological cycle (d) would not be able to work in the heat 42. Without the green house effect, the earth would be __________. (a) in normal temperature (b) freezing or burning hot (c) unaffected (d) none of these 43. The word ‘exposed’ means : (a) harmful (b) sophisticated (c) unprotected (d) didactic 44. The greenhouse effect makes the earth __________. (b) warmer (c) unaffected (d) fertile (a) colder 45. Can you explain the central idea of the poem. The underline word(s) mean : (a) great idea (b) unnecessary details (c) exact meaning (d) theme 46. Theology was an important subject at school in old days. It taught students respect values and religions. Theology means here : (a) psychology (b) the study of markets and shares (c) the study of God and religion (d) ideology 84 / Reliable Problem Solving Assessment (PSA) – XI 47. Our education is not what it ought to be. Who is responsible for deteriorting condition of our education ? The underline word may mean here : (a) grading (b) improving (c) declining (d) building 48. The person concerned should be contacted in the office before meeting the chairman. What should be the opposite of concerned ? (a) related (b) unrelated (c) sorrow (d) exclaimed 49. Tut was the lost heir of the powerful Pharaoh family which ruled over Egypt thousands of years ago. What may be the synonym of heir (a) a person who inherits his ancestors property. (b) influential person. (c) educated person. (d) rich person. 50. When we shifted from village to the city, my grandmother became disturbed. That was a turning point in our friendship. Turning point means : (a) understanding (b) an important incident (c) an unimportant happening (d) a useless point 51. What we need now is sustainable development. Not the one which is senseless. Which phrase best describe the underlined words : (a) development which is not harmful for environment (b) irresponsible development (c) insensitive attitude (d) never ending 52. What I want my son to be is that he should stand on his own feet. The underlined expression says : (a) to stand straight (b) to be happy (c) to be physically strong (d) to be independent 53. Fill correct articles in the blanks. Uneasy lies __________ head that weans __________ crown. (a/an/the) (a) the, a (b) the, the (c) a, an (d) an, the 54. Fill in the correct modal. One __________ obey one’s parents. (must/should/ought) (a) must (b) should (c) ought (d) none 55. Spot the error. The smell/of these rose/flowers are/very sweet. (a) (b) (c) (d) 56. Fill in the correct option from those given in bracket. Rachna __________ lovely paintings. (make/making/makes) (a) make (b) made (c) makes (d) none 57. Fill in the correct modal. One __________ obey one’s parents. (must/should/ought) (a) must (b) should (c) ought (d) none Reliable Problem Solving Assessment (PSA) – XI / 85 58. Fill correct preposition in the blank. It is four O’clock __________ my watch. (a) at (b) on (c) by (d) in 59. Fill appropriate connector in the blank. He behaves __________ he were a lord. (a) but (b) and (c) so (d) as if 60. Choose the correct option to complete the following passive voice sentence : Six camels __________ for our works. (a) needed by us (b) are needed by us (c) need us (d) are needing Ans. 1. (d), 2. (d), 3. (a), 4. (c), 5. (a), 6. (b), 7. (a), 8. (b), 9. (a), 10. (b), 11. (c), 12. (a), 13. (b), 14. (a), 15. (c), 16. (d), 17. (c), 18. (c), 19. (b), 20. (a), 21. (b), 22. (a), 23. (d), 24. (d), 25. (d), 26. (c), 27. (c), 28. (d), 29. (b), 30. (d), 31. (c), 32. (a), 33. (b), 34. (c), 35. (c), 36. (d), 37. (b), 38. (c), 39. (b), 40. (a), 41. (b), 42. (b), 43. (a), 44. (b), 45. (d), 46. (c), 47. (c), 48. (b), 49. (a)., 50. (b), 51. (a), 52. (d), 53. (a), 54. (b), 55. (c), 56. (c), 57. (d), 58. (c), 59. (d), 60. (b).