Symantec 250-441 Exam Dumps
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Symantec 250-441 Exam
Administration of Symantec Advanced Threat Protection 3.0
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1.What is the second stage of an Advanced Persistent Threat (APT) attack?
A. Exfiltration
B. Incursion
C. Discovery
D. Capture
Answer: B
2.Which SEP technology does an Incident Responder need to enable in order to enforce
blacklisting on an endpoint?
A. System Lockdown
B. Intrusion Prevention System
C. Firewall
Answer: A
3.An Incident Responder wants to create a timeline for a recent incident using Syslog in
addition to ATP for the After Actions Report.
What are two reasons the responder should analyze the information using Syslog?
(Choose two.)
A. To have less raw data to analyze
B. To evaluate the data, including information from other systems
C. To access expanded historical data
D. To determine what policy settings to modify in the Symantec Endpoint Protection
Manager (SEPM)
E. To determine the best cleanup method
Answer: BE
4.Which SEP technologies are used by ATP to enforce the blacklisting of files?
A. Application and Device Control
B. SONAR and Bloodhound
C. System Lockdown and Download Insight
D. Intrusion Prevention and Browser Intrusion Prevention
Answer: C
5.What is the role of Insight within the Advanced Threat Protection (ATP) solution?
A. Reputation-based security
B. Detonation/sandbox
C. Network detection component
D. Event correlation
Answer: A
Reference: pass
6.What are two policy requirements for using the Isolate and Rejoin features in ATP?
(Choose two.)
A. Add a Quarantine firewall policy for non-compliant and non-remediated computers.
B. Add a Quarantine LiveUpdate policy for non-compliant and non-remediated
C. Add and assign an Application and Device Control policy in the Symantec Endpoint
Protection Manager (SEPM).
D. Add and assign a Host Integrity policy in the Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager
E. Add a Quarantine Antivirus and Antispyware policy for non-compliant and nonremediated computers.
Answer: AD
7.Which section of the ATP console should an ATP Administrator use to evaluate
prioritized threats within the environment?
A. Search
B. Action Manager
C. Incident Manager
D. Events
Answer: B
8.Which stage of an Advanced Persistent Threat (APT) attack does social engineering
A. Capture
B. Incursion
C. Discovery
D. Exfiltration
Answer: B
9.Why is it important for an Incident Responder to analyze an incident during the
Recovery phase?
A. To determine the best plan of action for cleaning up the infection
B. To isolate infected computers on the network and remediate the threat
C. To gather threat artifacts and review the malicious code in a sandbox environment
D. To access the current security plan, adjust where needed, and provide reference
materials in the event of a similar incident
Answer: D
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CCNP 300-101,300-115,300-135
CompTIA A+ 220-1001,220-1002
Storage C1000-016, C1000-020, C1000-021, C1000-022
Azure Architect AZ-300, AZ-301
Coating Inspector NACE-CIP1-001, NACE-CIP2-001
HCIP-R&S H12-322-ENU, H12-322-ENU, H12-322-ENU
HCIP-Storage H13-621-ENU, H13-622-ENU, H13-623-ENU
365 Certified: Enterprise Administrator Expert MS-100, MS-101
365 Certified: Teamwork Administrator Associate H12-322, H12-322
365 Certified: Modern Desktop Administrator Associate H12-322, H12-322
NSE 5 Network Security Analyst NSE5_FMG-6.0, NSE5_FAZ-6.0
Certified: Azure Data Engineer Associate H12-322, H12-322
MCSA: Windows Server 2016 H12-322,70-741,70-742
CCNA Data Center 200-150,200-155
CCNA Cyber Ops 210-250,210-255
HCIP-Security H12-721-ENU, H12-722-ENU, H12-723-ENU
HCIP-Cloud Computing H13-522-ENU, H13-523-ENU, H13-524-ENU
CCNP Data Center 300-160,300-165,300-170,300-175
CCNA 200-105,100-105
CCNP Security 300-206,300-208,300-209,300-210
CCNA Collaboration 210-060,210-065
TOGAF 9 Certified OG0-091, OG0-092
CompTIA A+ New 220-901,220-902
LX0-103, LX0-104
SymantecC-1 101-400,102-400
SymantecC-2 201-450,202-450
HCIP-WLAN H12-321-ENU, H12-322-ENU
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