1. science
2. social science
3. philosophy
4. ethics

RICH INDIA PRELIMINARY TEST BATCH II - 2015
TEST - 1
GENERAL STUDIES
PAPER-I
Time Allowed: 2 Hours
Maximum Marks: 200
INSTRUCTIONS
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10. Penalty for wrong answers :
THERE WILL BE PENALTY FOR WRONG ANSWERS MARKED BY A
CANDIDATE IN THE OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTION PAPERS.
(i) There are four alternatives for the answer to every question. For each question for
which a wrong answer has been given by the candidate, one-third of the marks
assigned to that question will be deducted as penalty.
(ii) If a candidate gives more than one answer, it will be treated as a wrong answer even if
one of the given answers happens to be correct and there will be same penalty as above
to that question.
(iii) If a question is left blank, i.e., no answer is given by the candidate, there will be no
penalty for that question.
1. Leaching of soil is detrimental to soil
productivity. This is because
a) Water-soluble inorganic nutrients
go down into the soil horizon and
get precipitated as unavailable
salts.
b) Bacterial and other biological agents
can no longer catabolise soil
c) Humification of the soil stops
d) None of the above is an
appropriate answer
2. Consider the following statements
about breeding of animals.
1. Biologically unrelated animals
cannot be breeded (bred)
2. The animals being breeded (bred)
should have common ancestors.
3. Artificial insemination does not
come under breeding practices.
Choose the answer using the codes below
a) 1 and 2
b) 2 and 3
c) 1 and 3
d) None of the above
3. More than 3 billion people in the
World suffer from „Hidden Hunger‟. It can
be caused due to the deficiencies of
1. Micronutrients
2. Proteins
3. Vitamins
Choose the answer using the codes below.
a) 1 and 2
b) 2 and 3
c) 1 only
d) All of the above
4. Which of the following factors may
possibly account for the greater
biological diversity at the tropics?
1. Tropical latitudes have remained
undisturbed for longer durations
than higher latitudes.
2. Tropical environments are less
seasonal.
3. There is more solar energy
available at the tropics.
Choose the answer using the codes below.
a) 1 and 2
b) 2 and 3
c) 3 only
d) All of the above
5.
In agriculture, the biological method of
controlling pests that relies on natural
predation rather than introduced
chemicals. Which of the following
microbes can be used in the method?
1. Bacillus thuringiensis
2. Trichoderma
3. Lady Beetle
4. Dipteran
5. Cordyceps
Choose the answer using the codes below.
a) 1 and 4 only
b) 1, 3 and 5 only
c) 2 and 5 only
d) All of the above
6.
Which of the following features of the
Indian Constitution deal with
maintaining the social fabric, moral values
and national consciousness?
1. Fundamental Rights
2. Fundamental Duties
3. Directive Principles of State Policy
Choose the answer using the codes below.
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) All of the above
7. A recent draft order of the Food Safety and
Standards Authority of India’s (FSSAI) has
proposed to put curbs on the rampant use
of antibiotics as a growth promoter in
food-producing animals in India, such as
chicken. It will help in containing
1. Unregulated entry of antibiotics
into the food-producing
industry
2. Antibiotic resistance
3. Import of chicken from the US
to the Indian market.
Choose the answer using the codes below.
a) 1 and 2
b) 2 and 3
c) 1 and 3
d) All of the above
8. A Delta 2 rocket carrying Soil Moisture
Active Passive (SMAP) satellite has been
recently launched by NASA. How will it
help humanity?
1. It may help residents in low-lying
regions brace for floods
2. It will help farmers to get ready for
drought conditions.
3. It will study the soil profile of
various regions on earth and relay
the data back to the scientific
community to be then transmitted
to the farmers of respective
countries.
Choose the answer using the codes below.
a) 1 and 2
b) 2 and 3
c) 1 and 3
d) All of the above
9. Which of the following category of
constitutional amendments would require
the ratification of the states in India?
1. Citizenship clauses
2. Changes in the Concurrent List
under Seventh Schedule
3. Changes in the state boundaries
4. Changing the number of puisine
judges in the Supreme Court
Choose the answer using the codes below.
a) 1 and 4 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1, 2 and 3 only
d) 2 only
10. Which of the following possibilities can
be found in a Parliamentary Democracy?
1. It can be a constitutional monarchy.
2. President can be the head of the
government.
3. The Prime Minister may belong to
the party without majority in the
legislature.
Choose the answer using the codes below.
a) 1 and 2
b) 2 and 3
c) 1 and 3
d) All of the above
11. Consider the following statements about
the position, powers, functions and
responsibilities of the President of India.
1. He has a right to be informed of
all important matters and
deliberations of the Council of
Ministers.
2. The President need not accept the
advice of Council of Ministers if
the advice has been given for the
first time.
3. The only ground for his
impeachment is the violation of
the Constitution.
4. He scrutinizes the annual budget
proposal of the government
before placing it to the
Parliament.
Choose the answer using the codes below.
a) 1 and 2
b) 1, 2 and 3
c) 2 and 3 only
d) All of the above
12. Consider a situation where the Prime
Minister wants to impose „President’s
rule‟ in one State because the State
government has failed to effectively curb
atrocities against the Dalits in that State.
The President does not agree
wholeheartedly on signing the order.
Which of the following courses of action
are available to the President?
1. Tell the Prime Minister that he
will not sign on the order
promulgating
President’s rule.
2. Make a press statement about
how the Prime Minister is
wrong.
3. Discuss the matter with the
Prime Minister and try to dissuade
him from taking this action, but if
he insists, agreeing to sign the said
order.
Choose the answer using the codes below.
a) 1 only
b) 2 and 3
c) 1 and 3
d) 3 only
13. Consider the following statements
about the Mahalwari system.
1. The charge of collecting the
revenue and paying it to the
Company was given to the village
headman, rather than the
zamindar.
2. The revenue demand was to be
revised periodically, not
permanently fixed.
3. It was not applicable to the
Northern part of the country.
Choose the answer using the codes below.
a) 1 and 2
b) 2 and 3
c) 1 and 3
d) All of the above
14. Ancient Indian thinkers had arrived at an
elaborate system of ideas on motion. It was
in a way similar to the laws of motion. In
these Indian systems which of the following
concepts comes closes to the concept of
inertia?
a) The notion of Vega in the
Vaisheshika theory
b) The notion of abhighat in the
Sankhya theory
c) The notion of nodan in the Sankhya
theory
d) The notion of sanskara in
Vaisheshika theory
15. Consider the following statements.
Assertion (A): A body like a ring or a sphere
rolling without slipping over a horizontal
plane will suffer no friction, in principle.
Reason (R): At every instant, there is just one
point of contact between the body and the
plane and this point has no motion relative
to the plane.
In the context of the statements above,
which of these is true?
a) A and R both are true, and R is
the correct explanation for A.
b) A and R both are true, and R is
the NOT the correct explanation
for A.
c) A is correct, R is incorrect.
d) A and R both are incorrect.
16. In the Indian Judiciary, which of the
following factors may work as constraints
over the High Court judges in giving their
rulings?
1. Precedents set by Supreme Court
2. Constitution of India
3. Instructions of the Executive to
the courts
Choose the answer using the codes below.
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) All of the above
17. Consider the following statements.
1. The Subordinate courts in
India deal with both civil and
criminal cases.
2. The High courts can not issue
writs for restoring fundamental
rights.
3. Lok Adalats do not have the
jurisdiction to deal with
criminal cases.
Choose the answer using the codes below.
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) All of the above
18. Which of the following factors do NOT
justify a strong central government in the
Indian federal structure?
1. Balanced regional development
2. Territorial integrity of India
3. Growing financial needs of states
4. Increasing volume and funds
allotted to Social sector schemes
Choose the answer using the codes below.
a) 1 and 3 only
b) 1, 3 and 4 only
c) 3 and 4 only
d) 1, 2 and 4 only
19. Consider the following about the
advisory jurisdiction of the Supreme
Court (SC) under Article 143 of the
constitution.
1. Being a constitutional organ, the SC
is bound to give advice when it is
referred.
2. The SC being the highest court of
Justice, legal advice tendered by
the court is legally binding on the
President.
Which of the above is/are true?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) None
20. Lingayats do not practice funerary rites
such as cremation prescribed in the
Dharmashastras because
a) as per them such practices show
the domination of brahanism
b) they believe on death a devotee will
be united with Shiva and not
return to this world
c) such practices were seen to be
impure by them which dilutes the
sacredness of human body
d) None of the above
21. Consider the following statements
about the Virashiava tradition in
Karnataka in the 12th century
1. They questioned the theory of
rebirth.
2. They encouraged certain practices
disapproved in the Dharmashastras
such as widow remarriage.
3. Wandering monks were revered in
their traditions.
Choose the answer using the codes below.
a) 1 and 2
b) 2 and 3
c) 1 and 3
d) All of the above
22. Consider the following statements
about Film Certification Appellate
Tribunal (FCAT).
1. It is a statutory body.
2. It comes under the aegis of
Ministry of Information
and Broadcasting.
3. Any applicant can file an appeal
before the tribunal for a certificate
in respect of a film who is
aggrieved by an order of the
Central Board of Film
Certification (CBFC).
Choose the using the codes below.
a) 1 and 2
b) 2 and 3
c) 1 and 3
d) All of the above
23. Block mountains are created when
a) There is intense volcanic activity
in nearby regions consistently for
longer durations
b) Large areas are broken
and displaced vertically
c) Tectonic plates converge and
displace each other
marginally
d) Downward erosion of high plateau
regions
24. If the periods and timings of summer
and winter seasons change for the earth,
it may lead to which of the following
changes in the long-run?
1. Climate Change
2. Biodiversity
3. Geomorphological features
Choose the using the codes below.
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) All of the above
25. Consider the following statements
about the interior of earth.
1. The continental mass of the crust is
made up of silica and magnesium.
2. Crust is thicker at the ocean floors.
3. The innermost core of the earth is
made only of molten iron.
Choose the answer using the codes below.
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) None of the above
26. The growth of natural vegetation
depends on which of the following
factors apart from temperature and
moisture?
1. Slope
2. Thickness of Soil
3. Presence of weeds and other
vegetation around
Choose the answer using the codes below.
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) All of the above
27. Consider the following statements.
1. They are commonly found along the
eastern margin of continents in the
mid-latitudinal coastal regions.
2. They comprise both hard and soft
wood trees.
3. These regions experience a lot of
seasonal changes.
Which of the above match the description of
Temperate Evergreen forests?
a) 1 and 2
b) 2 and 3
c) 1 and 3
d) All of the above
28. The higher concentration of dust particles is
found in subtropical and temperate regions
than equatorial and polar regions due to
a) Dry winds in comparison to
equatorial and Polar Regions.
b) Moist winds in comparison to
equatorial and polar regions
c) More seasonal rainfall in
comparison to equatorial and
polar regions.
d) More even temperature ranges in
comparison to equatorial and
polar regions
29. Consider the following.
1. The river is famous for its
badland
topography
called
ravines.
2. It flows through Rajasthan
finally joining Yamuna.
3. It rises in the Malwa plateau.
The river with the above description is
a) Chambal
b) Gandak
c) Luni
d) Ramganga
30. Arrange the following space
expeditions of India in correct
chronological order.
1. Aryabhatta
2. Rohini
3. INSAT
4. GSAT
Choose the answer using the codes below.
a) 1234
b) 2143
c) 2134
d) 1243
31. Which of the following can be termed as
major causes of biodiversity loss?
1. Habitat fragmentation
2. Co-extinction
3. Alien species invasion
4. Global warming
Choose the answer using the codes below.
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 3 and 4 only
c) 1, 2 and 4 only
d) All of the above
32. Catalytic converted is used in
automobiles for reducing emission of
poisonous gases. It converts
a) Unburnt
hydrocarbons
into
carbon dioxide and water
b) Unburnt
hydrocarbons
into
vapour and nitrogen dioxide
c) Poisonous sulphur in the fuel into
sulphur dioxide
d) Poisonous lead in the fuel into lead
oxide and water
33. Consider the following statements
about Ziyarat.
1. It is Pilgrimage to the tomb of sufi
saints.
2. This practice is an occasion for
seeking the sufi‟s spiritual grace
(barakat).
3. The practice was restricted to a
certain class of Muslims.
Choose the answer using the codes below.
a) 1 and 2
b) 2 and 3
c) 1 and 3
d) All of the above
34. Consider the following statements
about the ideas of Kabir.
1. He described the ultimate reality as
the formless one.
2. His idea of God being shunya
(emptiness) relates to that of yogic
traditions.
3. His poems often attack Hindu
polytheism and idol worship.
Choose the answer using the codes below.
a) 1 and 2
b) 2 and 3
c) 1 and 3
d) All of the above
35. Which of the following factors led to the
decline of the Vijayanagar Empire?
1. Strain in the imperial structure
following the death of Krishnadeva
Raya‟s
2. Rebelliousness in military chiefs
3. Invasion of the Mughals
Choose the answer using the codes below.
a) 1 and 2
b) 2 and 3
c) 1 and 3
d) All of the above
36. Optical fibres used for communication
purposes are based on the principle of
a) Total internal reflection
b) Rectilinear propagation of light
c) Diffraction of light
d) Dispersion of light
37. Consider the following statements
about bio-magnification.
1. It refers to an increase in
concentration of the toxicant
at successive trophic levels.
2. It can happen only in
aquatic bodies.
3. Only those toxic substances that
cannot be metabolised or
excreted by the organism cause
bio-magnification.
Choose the correct using the codes below.
a) 1 and 2
b) 2 and 3
c) 1 and 3
d) All of the above
38. The relation between the Biological
Oxygen Demand (BOD) and pollution
level of water is
a) More the BOD , more polluted
the water will be of biologically
degradable material
b) More the BOD, less polluted the
water will be of biologically
degradable material
c) More the BOD, more polluted
the water will be of both
biologically
non-degradable
material
d) More the BOD, less polluted the
water will be of biologically
non-degradable material
39. The Poona pact between Ambedkar and
Gandhi gave the scheduled castes
reserved seats in
1. Provincial legislative councils
2. Central Legislative Councils
3. Local body councils
Choose the answer using the codes below.
a) 1 and 2
b) 2 and 3
c) 1 and 3
d) All of the above
40. Before cooperating in the British war
effort during Second World War, the
Congress put some basic condition(s)
against the British. These were
1. After the war, a constituent
assembly should be convened to
determine the political structure of a
free India.
2. Immediately some form of
responsible government should be
established at the Centre.
Which of the above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) None
41. According to Buddhist philosophy
1. The world is soulless.
2. In the earliest forms of Buddhism,
whether or not god existed was
irrelevant.
3. Buddha advocates penance to get
salvation.
Choose the answer using the codes below.
a) 1 and 2
b) 2 and 3
c) 1 and 3
d) All of the above
42. Algal bloom can affect water bodies in
which of the following ways?
1. By depleting the oxygen
availability
2. Fish morbidity
3. Reducing the amount of sunlight
available to the water body
Choose the t answer using the codes below.
a) 1 and 2
b) 2 and 3
c) 1 and 3
d) All of the above
43. Consider the following statements.
Assertion (A): Gravity is always attractive,
while electromagnetic force can be attractive
or repulsive.
Reason (R): Matter is mostly electrically
neutral (net charge is zero). Thus, electric
force is largely zero and gravitational force
dominates terrestrial phenomena.
In the context of the statements above,
which of these is true?
a) A and R both are true, and R is
the correct explanation for A.
b) A and R both are true, and R is
the NOT the correct explanation
for A.
c) A is correct, R is incorrect.
d) A and R both are incorrect.
44. Consider the following.
1. These are made on the steep
slopes so that flat surfaces are
available to grow crops.
2. They can reduce surface run-off.
3. They can minimize soil erosion.
The technique of soil conservation with
the above features is
a) Contour ploughing
b) Terrace farming
c) Shelter belts
d) Contour barriers
45. Consider the following matches of the
minerals with the regions they are
largely mined in North America.
1. Iron – Canadian Shield
2. Coal – Appalachian regions
3. Copper – Western Cordilleras
Which of the above matches is/are correct?
a) 1 and 2
b) 2 and 3
c) 1 and 3
d) All of the above
46. The crop of Jute requires
1. Light rainfall
2. Alluvial Soil
3. High Temperature
4. Bright Sunshine at time of harvest
Which of the above match the description of
Temperate Evergreen forests?
a) 1 and 2
b) 2 and 3
c) 2, 3 and 4
d) 1, 3 and 4
47. Consider the following statements
about the 1857 revolt.
1. It did not spread to South India.
2. It was a reaction to the British
reforms in the religious and social
sphere of Indians.
3. The revolt did not receive any royal
patronage.
4. The Government of India Act 1858
was passed as a reaction by the
British government to the revolt.
Choose the answer using the codes below.
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 3 and 4 only
c) 1, 2 and 4 only
d) All of the above
48. Consider the following statements
about Jainism.
1. Jainism believes that the entire
world is animate.
2. According to Jaina teachings, the
cycle of birth and rebirth is shaped
through karma.
3. Monastic existence is a necessary
condition of salvation.
Choose the answer using the codes below
a) 1 and 2
b) 2 and 3
c) 1 and 3
d) All of the above
49. The action of the endogenic forces are not
uniform and thus the tectonically
controlled original crustal surface is
uneven. This can be attributed to factors
like
1. Variation in crustal thickness
2. Variation in geothermal gradients
3. Volcanism in lithosphere
Choose the answer using the codes below.
a) 1 and 2
b) 2 and 3
c) 1 and 3
d) All of the above
50. Which of the following can be the
adverse consequences of El-Nino?
1. The
distortion
of
equatorial
atmospheric
circulation.
2. Irregularities in the evaporation of
sea water.
3. Reduction in the amount of
planktons which further
reduces the number of fish in
the sea.
Choose the answer using the codes below.
a) 1 and 2
b) 2 and 3
c) 1 and 3
d) All of the above
51. Genetic Engineering Appraisal Committee
(GEAC) under the Environment Ministry
had permitted field trials of GM food in
India. Despite that states can either allow
or ban GM crop trials in their states. This
is because
a) Genetic research and development
comes under List – II (State List)
of seventh schedule of the
Constitution.
b) The GEAC order had inserted a
mandatory condition of separate
permission from states for GM
crop trials.
c) No agricultural scheme or
policy can be launched in India
without the consent of the
states.
d) None of the above
52. Which of the following articles
(provisions) of the Indian Constitution
provides a safeguard against the excesses
of the legislature and the executive?
1. Article 13
2. Article 19
3. Article 21
4. Article 32
Choose the answer using the codes below.
a) 1 and 4 only
b) 2 and 4 only
c) 1, 2 and 3 only
d) All of the above
53. Consider the following statements.
1. The Judiciary cannot initiate the
process of constitutional
amendment but can effectively
change the Constitution by
interpreting it differently.
2. Elected representatives alone have
the power to amend the
Constitution.
Which of the above is true?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) None of the above
54. Consider the following statements about
the proportional representation system of
election.
1. The entire country may be a single
constituency in this system.
2. Candidate who wins the election
gets majority of votes.
3. A party may get more seats than
votes in the legislature.
Choose the answer using the codes below.
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) All of the above
55. Consider the following tasks.
1. Finalisation of the list of people
below poverty line (BPL) in the
village
2. Constructing check-dams and
tanks
3. Scrutinizing the accounts of the
funds allotted under major social
sector schemes
Which of the above can be done by
the authorization of Gram Sabha?
a) 1 and 2 b) 2 and 3
c) 1 and 3
d) All of the above
56. India has agreed to provide fund of Rs
1500 crore to Nepal‟s Pancheshwar
multi-purpose project on Mahakali river.
The major benefits to India from this
project will be
1. The containment of Kheri floods
in Uttar Pradesh
2. Procuring
additional
electricity produced by the
project
3. Irrigation of the Terai regions
in India
Choose the answer using the codes below.
a) 1 and 2
b) 2 and 3
c) 1 and 3
d) All of the above
57. Union government has launched a
Heritage City Development and
Augmentation Yojana (HRIDAY)
scheme to preserve and rejuvenate
the rich cultural heritage of the
country. Which of the following
cities are covered in the initial phase
of the scheme?
1. Amritsar
2. Puri
3. Warangal
4. Badami
5. Mathura
Choose the using the codes below.
a) 1, 4 and 5 only
b) 2 and 5 only
c) 1, 2 and 3 only
d) All of the above
58. Indian National Congress leaders did
not attend the first round table
conference because
a) It was called to discuss a vague
„dominion status‟ for India
b) No offer of discussing about
a future constitution was
made
c) Congress was not invited to the
conference
d) The British government had invited
Dalit and Muslim leaders to the
conference which were against the
Congress‟ definition of „swaraj‟
59. The Salt march and the Civil Disobedience
movement raised which of the following
issues about salt in India?
1. Government monopoly of salt
production
2. High tax on salt
3. Government restrictions on
obtaining salt only from sea water
Choose the answer using the codes below.
a) 1 and 2
b) 2 and 3
c) 1 and 3
d) All of the above
60. Consider the following statements about the
Light Combat Aircraft (LCA) recently
handed over to the Indian Air Force.
1. It is the first indigenously built
LCA.
2. It has a tailless design.
3. It has been manufactured by a joint
venture between public and private
defence research organizations.
Choose the answer using the codes below.
a) 1 and 2
b) 2 and 3
c) 1 and 3
d) All of the above
61. Consider the following statements with
reference to the status of J&K in the
Indian federal structure.
1. The Central legislation in the Union
list and Concurrent list applies to
J&K only after the consent of the
state government.
2. The Directive Principles of State
Policy do not apply to the state.
3. Amendments to the Indian
Constitution (under Art. 368) can
only apply in concurrence with the
government of J&K.
Choose the answer using the codes below.
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) All of the above
62. Under the 123 agreement signed
recently between India and USA
1. India has waived nuclear
liability for Companies from the
US.
2. US has waived the requirement of
tracking
nuclear
material
provided by it to India.
Which of the above is correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) None of the above
63. The economic justification of subsidies in
agriculture is, at present, a hotly debated
question. Which of the following
arguments would justify agricultural
subsidies?
1. Farming in India continues to
a risky business.
2. Most farmers are very poor and
they will not be able to afford
the required inputs without
subsidies.
3. Eliminating subsidies will
increase the inequality between
rich and poor farmers and violate
the goal of equity.
4.
Choose the correct answer using the
codes below.
a) 1 and 2
b) 2 and 3
c) 1 and 3
d) All of the above
64. Tweaking the Minimum Support Prices
(MSP) for water-intensive crops in India
will affect which of the following?
1. Food inflation levels
2. Groundwater levels
3. Crop diversification
Choose the answer using the codes below.
a) 1 and 2
b) 2 and 3
c) 1 and 3
d) All of the above
65. In the policy of liberalisation 1991,
deregulation of the Industrial sector
meant that
1. Controls on price fixation would be
relaxed.
2. Some of the goods reserved for
small scale industries could be
produced by bigger corporations
too.
3. Industrial licensing was made
more relaxed and flexible.
Choose the answer using the codes below.
a) 1 and 2
b) 2 and 3
c) 1 and 3
d) All of the above
66. Consider the following statements
about the „Beti Bachao-Beti Padhao‟
campaign.
1. It will be implemented all over the
country.
2. It will target improving the
efficiency of delivery of welfare
services meant for women.
3. The state governments will not
have any role to play in the
campaign.
Choose the answer using the codes below.
a) 1 and 2
b) 2 and 3
c) 1 and 3
d) 2 only
67. Which of the following factors may
possibly have been responsible for
growing agrarian distress in the country
for cotton farmers?
1. Opening up of domestic markets
due to globalization
2. High production costs yet low and
unstable yields
3. Decline in public investment in
agriculture in the last two
decades
Choose the answer using the codes below.
a) 1 and 2
b) 2 and 3
c) 1 and 3
d) All the above
68. All of the above The woman-oriented
organization
„Kudumbshree‟ is
a) Large informal bank
b) A self-help group to promote
income generation activities
amongst women
c) A local informal agency started by
NABARD in Kerala
d) A pressure group of woman
activists for the cause of
financial inclusion of women
69. Which of the following can be the
benefits of organic farming to the
farmers and consumers?
1. Good
returns
on
locally
produced organic inputs
2. Land conservation
3. Income
generation
through
exports
Choose the answer using the codes below.
a) 1 and 2
b) 2 and 3
c) 1 and 3
d) All of the above
70. Consider the following statements.
Assertion (A): When it comes to regular
salaried employment, men are found to be
engaged in greater proportion than women.
It
may be explained by the fact that
Reason (R): Since regular salaried jobs
require
skills and a higher level of literacy, women
might not have been engaged to a great
extent.
In the context of the statements above, which
of these is true?
a) A and R both are true, and R is
correct explanation for A.
b) A and R both are true, and R is the
NOT the correct explanation for A.
c) A is correct, R is incorrect.
d) A and R both are incorrect
71. Which of the following are NOT the
major issues facing the electricity
sector in India presently?
1. State Electricity boards are facing
huge financial losses
2. India‟s installed capacity is not
sufficient to generate electricity to
feed an annual economic growth of
around 8-9 per cent.
3. Thermal power plants are facing
large shortage of coal supply
Choose the correct answer using the codes below.
a) 1 only
b) and 3
c) 2 only
d) All are major issues
72. Currency notes and coins cannot be
refused by any citizen of the country
for settlement of any kind of
transaction. This is because currency
notes and coins are
a) Legal tenders
b) They have an intrinsic value
c) The government makes it compulsory by
law to accept payment by cash mode.
d) It has purchasing power equivalent to
the amount printed on it
73. If the Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR) is
made zero, how will it affect the
banking system and public finances?
1) Government may find it difficult to raise
money from the market
2) Banks will have more money to lend.
3) Banks may be able to reduce interest
rates on their loans to customers.
Choose the correct answer using the codes
a) 1and 2
b) 2and 3
c) 1and 3
d) All the above
74. Consider the following statements.
Assertion (A): If all the account-holders of
all commercial banks in the country want
their deposits back at the same time, the
banks will not have enough means to
satisfy the need of every accountholder and
there will be bank failures.
Reason (R): The total amount of deposits
held by all commercial banks in the
country is much larger than the total size
of their reserves..
In the context of the statements above,
which of these is true?
a) A and R both are true, and R is
the correct explanation for A.
b) A and R both are true, and R is
the NOT the correct explanation
for A.
c) A is correct, R is incorrect.
d) A and R both are incorrect
75. Consider the following statements.
Assertion (A): A high bank rate reduces
the potential for credit creation in the
economy.
Reason (R): A high bank rate encourages
banks to keep smaller (or greater)
proportion of their deposits as reserves,
since borrowing from RBI is now costlier
than before.
In the context of the statements above,
which of these is true?
a) A and R both are true, and R is
the correct explanation for A.
b) A and R both are true, and R is
the NOT the correct explanation
for A.
c) A is correct, R is incorrect.
d) A and R both are incorrect.
76. In which of these regions, the thickness
of the weathering mantle would be the
greatest?
a) Taiga zone
b) Semi-desert regions
c) Tropical forest zone
d) Grasslands
3. Western coasts of Gujarat
4. Northern Uttar Pradesh
Choose the answer using the codes below.
a) All of the above
b) 1 and 3 only
c) 2 and 4 only
d) 3 only
77. Kilkari, a IVRS based application is being
piloted by Government of India under
which
a) Information on maternal and child
health care is being disseminated to the
needy.
b) Information is sent by Primary health
care centres to the panchayats about
maternal health care
c) A mother can register her grievances
against the institutional delivery
facilities under public health care
centres.
d) None of the above
80. In winter months, the weather
conditions over India are generally
influenced by
78. In the state government, the Governor
exercises more discretion that the President
can exercise in the case of Central
government. This is because
a) Indian federalism provides for a
strong central government, and
comparatively weaker states.
b) The constitutional provisions limit the
overall discretion of the President,
which is not so clearly defined for the
Governor.
c) The Governor derives greater authority
from the orders of the Central
government with respect to the states
whereas no such system exists for the
President.
d) The state politics is much more
vulnerable to Governor‟s discretion that
the central politics is to President‟s
discretion.
81. Which of the following are non-debt
creating capital receipts of the
Government of India?
1. Disinvestment in PSUs
2. Interest payments received on
loans previously forwarded by
Government of India
3. Borrowing from RBI
Choose the answer using the codes below.
a) 1 and 2
b) 2 and 3
c) 1 and 3
d) 1 only
79. Which of the following regions in
India comes under the “Very High
damage risk zone” for tropical cyclones?
1. Eastern J&K
2. Western Kerala
1. Distribution of pressure in
Central Asia
2. Rainfall in Mediterranean region
3. Tibetan highlands acting as
a barrier to jet streams
Choose the answer using the codes below.
a) 1 and 2
b) 2 and 3
c) 1 and 3
d) All of the above
82. Primary deficit in annual budget
(public finances) in India is the
a) Difference
between
fiscal
deficit and net interest
liabilities
b) Difference between revenue deficit
and net interest liabilities
c) Difference
between
fiscal
deficit and budgetary deficit
d) Difference between revenue deficit
and budgetary deficit
83. Which of the following actors participate
in the Foreign Exchange market?
1. Monetary authorities
2. Commercial banks
3. Sovereign governments
Choose the answer using the codes below.
a) 1 and 2
b) 2 and 3
c) 1 and 3
d) All of the above
84. Consider the following statements about
the Harappan civilization.
1. They practiced agriculture.
2. Most Harappan sites are located in
semi-arid lands.
3. There is evidence of use of water
storage structures.
Choose the answer using the codes below.
a) 1 and 2
b) 2 and 3
c) 1 and 3
d) All of the above
85. Consider the following statements.
1. Both Mahavira and the Gautam
Buddha questioned the authority of
the Vedas.
2. None of the Buddha‟s speeches
were written down during his
lifetime.
3. The basic philosophy of the Jainas
was already in existence in north
India before the birth of Mahavira.
Choose the answer using the codes below.
a) 1 and 2
b) 2 and 3
c) 1 and 3
d) All of the above
86. Which of the following regions in the
World is NOT a bio-diversity hotspot?
1. Sri Lanka
2. Indo-Burma Region
3. Eastern European region
4. New Zealand
Choose the answer using the codes below.
a) 1 and 3 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 4 only
d) 3 only
87. There are many factors, other than
income and assets, which are associated
with poverty. These can be
1. Accessibility to basic education
2. Health care
3. Drinking water
4. Sanitation
Choose the answer using the codes
below.
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1, 3 and 4 only
d) All of the above
88. The High Level Committee (HLC) for
Restructuring of Food Corporation of
India (FCI) chaired by Shanta
Kumar has submitted its report to the
Prime
Minister.
The
major
recommendations include
1. Outsourcing stocking operations
of FCI to private sector
2. FCI should hand over all
procurement operations of wheat,
paddy and rice to Andhra Pradesh,
Chhattisgarh, Haryana, Madhya
Pradesh, Odisha and Punjab .
3. Defer implementation of National
Food Security Act (NFSA) in
states that have not done end to
end computerization.
Choose the answer using the codes below
a) 1 and 2
b) 2 and 3
c) 1 and 3
d) All of the above
89. Consider the following statements
about the Hydroponics technique.
Which of these is NOT true?
1. Nutrients enter through the
roots of plants in this technique.
2. The technique cannot be used for
commercial production of
vegetables, fruits etc.
3. The nutrient solution used is
unaerated.
Choose the answer using the codes below.
a) 1 and 2
b) 2 and 3
c) 3 only
d) All of the above
90. Consider the following statements about
Plant Growth Regulators (PGRs).
1. They play an important role in the
flowering and seed formation also
with plant growth.
2. They can help the plant in healing
with wounds.
3. Auxin and Cytokinin are widely
used PGRs.
Choose the answer using the codes below.
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) All of the above
91. Innate Immunity against non-specific
diseases in human beings can consist of
which of the following?
1. Tears in eyes
2. Acid in the Stomach
3. Saliva in the mouth
4. Facial hairs
Choose the answer using the codes below.
a) 1 and 4 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1, 2 and 3 only
d) 1 and 3 only
92. Francois Bernier was a traveller to
India in the 17th Century who wrote detailed
accounts of India‟s social customs and
religious practices. As per Bernier
1. India‟s trading system was outdated.
2. In comparison to Europe, situation
in India was bleak.
3. Europeans were qualified enough
to rule India.
Choose the answer using the codes below.
a) 1 and 2
b) 2 and 3
c) 1 and 3
d) 2 only
93. Consider the following statements
about Alvars and Nayanars.
1. They used Tamil for promoting
their messages and singing
hymns in praise of God.
2. They did not believe in caste
based discrimination then
prevailing in the Hindu society.
3. They later merged with
the Vaishnavites and
Shaivites.
Choose the answer using the codes below
a) 1 and 2
b) 2 and 3
c) 1 and 3
d) 2 only
94. The Health Ministry has introduced
web-based name based tracking system
called Mother & Child Tracking System
(MCTS) across all the
States and UTs. Consider the following
statements about it.
1. Immunization details of the
child are tracked.
2. The system captures personal
details of both the mother and
child up to five years of age.
3. The system ensures that the
child
also
gets
proper
adolescent care.
Choose the answer using the codes below
a) 1 and 2
b) 2 and 3
c) 1 and 3
d) All of the above
95. The Home Rule league of Tilak aimed at
a) a reform of the British
administration
b) Overthrowing
the
British administration
c) Organizing freedom struggle
in only the western regions of
the country
d) Getting political power and
entering the councils to break
the British political structure
from within
96. Which of the following points of differences
between the moderates and extremists led to
the Surat split?
1. Moderates were not in favour of
extending the boycott movement
beyond Bengal.
2. Moderates were totally opposed to
the boycott of councils, extremists
were not.
3. Different meanings of „swaraj‟
Choose the answer using the codes below.
a) 1 and 2
b) 2 and 3
c) 1 and 3
d) All of the above
97. In 1917, Gandhi organised a satyagraha to
support the peasants of the Kheda district
of Gujarat as they were affected by
1. Crop failure
2. Plague epidemic
3. Inability to pay revenue to the
British government
Choose the answer using the codes below.
a) 1 and 2
b) 2 and 3
c) 1 and 3
d) All of the above
98. The British had enacted the Rowlatt Act and
implemented it nationwide in 1919. Gandhiji
decided to launch a nationwide satyagraha
against the act because the Act provided for
1. Ban on political activities
2. Unreasonable detention of political
prisoners without trial
3. Allowed the government to ban all
the local language newspapers and
radio
Choose the correct answer using the codes
below.
a) 1 and 2
b) 2 and 3
c) 1 and 3
d) All of the above
99. The belief of Dalit leaders during the
Freedom movement that “Political
empowerment would resolve the
problems of their social disabilities”
resulted in which of the following
demands?
1. Separate electorates
2. Reserved
seats
in
education institutions
3. Organising dalits in major national
associations by dalit leaders
Choose the correct answer using the
codes below.
a) 1 and 2
b) 2 and 3
c) 1 and 3
d) All of the above
100. As
per
Mahanaya
Buddhism,
Bodhisattvas were those who
a) Worked out their salvation
with their own efforts
b) Accumulated merit through their
efforts but did not attain salvation
c) Accumulated merit through their
efforts but did not attain salvation
to help others
d) None of the above