1. health and fitness
2. disease

EOC - Unit 8 Review - Human Systems
SC.912.L.14.52 Immune System - What You Need to Know
• You need to know the basic functions of the human immune system.
• You need to understand specific and non-specific immune responses.
• You need to know how the human immune system responds to vaccines and/or antibiotics.
• You need to know how genetic factors, environmental factors, and pathogenic agents affect both individual and public health.
SC.912.L.14.36 Cardiovascular System - What You Need to Know
• You need to know the factors that affect blood flow through the cardiovascular system: blood pressure, blood volume, resistance,
disease and exercise.
• You need to know how these factors affect blood flow.
SC.912.L.14.26 The Brain - What You Need to Know (Section 31.2, pg. 747)
• You will be asked to identify the major parts of the brain on a diagram. Items are limited to the following:
Cerebrum, Cerebellum, Pons, Medulla Oblongata, Brain Stem, Frontal Lobe, Parietal Lobe, Occipital Lobe, Temporal Lobe
SC.912.L.16.13 Reproductive System - What You Need to Know:
• You need to know the basic anatomy and physiology of the human reproductive system.
• You need to know the process of human development from zygote to birth.
• For the male reproductive system, you will need to know the seminal vesicle, prostate gland, vas deferens, urethra, epididymis,
scrotum, penis, and testes.
• For the female reproductive system, you will need to know the ovaries, oviduct (fallopian tube), uterus, cervix, and vagina.
Sample Questions:
1. The illustration below shows four lobes of the human brain. What lobe is designated by label 2?
A. temporal
B. parietal
C. occipital
D. frontal
2. Which lobe of the brain is designated by number 4?
A. occipital lobe B. parietal lobe
C. frontal lobe
D. temporal lobe
3. Which of the following is not one of the four lobes of a primate's cerebral hemisphere?
A. Optic B. occipital lobe C.parietal lobe D. frontal lobe E. temporal lobe
4. A fertilized egg undergoes several stages before it is successfully implanted. In which of the following structures of the female
human reproductive system is the blastocyst implanted during normal human development? Pp996
A. Ovary B. uterus C. vagina D. amniotic sac
5. The drinking of alcoholic beverages by a pregnant woman is harmful to the development of her fetus. This is most damaging early
in a pregnancy because during this time pp1001
A. the lungs of the fetus become functional.
B. alcohol can easily enter the mouth of the fetus.
C. many of the essential organs of the fetus are forming.
D. the fetus cannot excrete wastes
6. Sperm are created through meiosis in an area of the testes called the seminiferous tubules. Through which structure do the sperm
travel to exit the testes? Pp988-991
A. vas deferens B. seminiferous tubules C. scrotum D. epididymis
7. Which of the following is true of a zygote? Pp 995-996
A. It forms into a blastocyst
B. It is an unfertilized egg
C. It produces haploid male gametophytes
D. It is made up of only one cell
8. Which of the following describes fertilization? Pp 995-996
A. cell differentiation to form a blastula
B. formation of germ layers in a deuterostome
C. a sperm joining an egg to form a zygote
D. sperm and egg production
9. Abnormalities present in the cells that line the uterus may prevent the production of offspring by directly interfering with which
process? Pp 995-996
A. the development of the embryo
B. the differentiation of gametes into zygotes
C. the secretion of estrogen by the ovary
D. the production and release of egg cells
10. Below is a diagram of the male reproductive system. Which structure is represented by the letter D? Pp 988-991
A. Scrotum
B. testes
C. prostate gland
D. epididymus
11. What is the human embryo called after the eighth week of development?
Pp995-996
A. a zygote B. an infant C. a fetus
D. a morula
12. Which event happens earliest during pregnancy?
A. The embryo's organs begin to function on their own
B. The embryo stores nutrients and minerals
C. The embryo's cartilage begins to become bone.
D. The embryo reaches approximately fifteen inches in length.
13. Which of the following correctly compares the functions of the vas deferens and the fallopian tubes?
A. Sperm leaves the body through the vas deferens, and eggs leave the body through the fallopian tubes.
B. Sperm travels through the vas deferens, and eggs travel through the fallopian tubes.
C. The vas deferens produces sperm, and the fallopian tubes produce eggs.
D. The vas deferens stores sperm, and the fallopian tubes store eggs.
14. Normally, the temperature inside the scrotum is slightly lower than normal body temperature. What do you predict would
happen if the temperature inside the scrotum were a few degrees higher than normal body temperature instead?
A. Sperm would not be able to travel through the vas deferens.
B. Sperm would be stored in the epididymis rather than in the testes.
C. Sperm would not be able to develop properly.
D. The rate of sperm production would increase.
15. Which of the following correctly explains how crossing over benefits organisms that reproduce sexually?
A. It allows for fewer mutations in offspring.
B. It allows for adjustments in a population's sex ratio.
C. It increases genetic variation in offspring.
D. It increases the number of chromosomes in offspring.
16. Folate is a crucial vitamin for proper development of the neural tube, which eventually becomes the brain and spinal cord.
Which of the following might explain why neural tube defects occur more frequently than other types of birth defects?
A. Folate is rarely found in common foods and must be supplemented.
B. Since the nervous system forms so late, defects go undetected by early ultrasounds.
C. The neural tube forms in the first three weeks, before most women know they are pregnant.
D. The first and second trimesters of pregnancy use most of the mother's folate supply, leaving a limited amount for neural tube
formation.
17. Sperm cells are mobile and must travel through the female reproductive tract to fertilize an egg.
Which of the following structures enables sperm cells to swim?
A. cilia
B. flagella
C. pseudopods
D. ribosomes
18. Which of the following sequences correctly describes prenatal development?
A. blastocyst implants in uterus, zygote forms, heart begins beating, lungs can breathe air, sex organs become visible
B. blastocyst implants in the uterus, zygote forms, heart begins beating, sex organs become visible, lungs can breathe air
A. zygote forms, blastocyst implants in the uterus, heart begins beating, sex organs become visible, lungs can breathe air
D. zygote forms, blastocyst implants in the uterus, sex organs become visible, heart begins beating, lungs can breathe air
19. Which of the following is NOT a structure of the male reproductive system?
A. fallopian tubes
B. seminal vesicles
C. urethra
D. vas deferens
20. Which of the following correctly describes the function of amniotic fluid as it relates to the development of a human fetus?
A. It provides protection and moisture for the fetus.
B. It carries blood between the fetus and the mother.
C. It is where the first fetal blood cells originate.
D. It provides nutrition and oxygen for the fetus.
21. Spermatozoa are male gametes, which contain haploid DNA. Where are spermatozoa produced?
A. ovaries
B. penis
C. prostate
D. testes
22. Which of the following statements about reproductive hormones is TRUE?
A. Only women produce progesterone.
B. Estrogen levels are highest during early pregnancy.
C. Reproductive hormones affect only the reproductive system.
D. Men and women produce both estrogen and testosterone.
23. Spermatogenesis is the process by which sperm develop and mature. Which of the following sequences correctly describes the
anatomical path of spermatozoa from formation to ejaculation?
A. testes, vas deferens, prostate, urethra
B. testes, urethra, prostate, vas deferens
C. prostate, vas deferens, testes, urethra
D. prostate, urethra, testes, vas deferens
24. In the male reproductive system, gametes are produced in the testicles. Which of the following structures of the female
reproductive system has the same function as the testicles?
A. cervix
B. uterus C. fallopian tubes D. ovaries
25. A normal human gestational period lasts forty weeks.
Which of the following explains why the eighth week of gestation is notable?
A. The gender of the fetus can be determined.
B. The embryo is approximately the size of a lime.
C. The embryo stage ends and the fetal stage begins.
D. Most organ systems are developed and functional
26. The rate at which blood flows through the human body changes in response to many factors.
Which statement describes one of these factors and its effect on blood flow? Pp957-959
A. A high viscosity of blood causes an increased resistance in the blood vessels and leads to slow blood flow.
B. A low blood pH decreases the rate of diffusion through the blood vessels and leads to slow blood flow.
C. Changing the shape of red blood cells to a crescent shape decreases resistance & lead to faster blood flow.
D. The narrowing of blood vessels increases pressure and leads to a faster blood flow.
27. Which of the following factors would most directly affect blood flow through the circulatory system?
A. Blood pressure B. blood sugar C. respiratory rate D. outside temperature
28. What causes blood pressure?
A. cholesterol in the blood
B. stress that exercise puts on heart muscle
C. contraction of the ventricles in the heart
D. removal of oxygen from the blood
29. Which of the following best describes the connection between cardiovascular disease and age?
A. As people age, their blood vessels become more elastic leading to less cardiovascular disease.
B. As people age, the heart becomes more efficient with each pump, increasing cardiac output.
C. As people age, blood pressure decreases leading to more cardiovascular disease.
D. As people age, plaque builds up in the arteries increasing vessel resistance, which leads to disease
30. A large piece of plaque breaks away from the inner wall of the carotid artery in an otherwise healthy
person. Which part of the body would this dislodged plaque most likely affect and how?
A. A narrow region of the superior vena cava could become blocked, restricting blood flow to the heart.
B. A narrow vein in the brain could become blocked, restricting blood flow to capillaries in the brain.
C. A smaller artery in a leg could become blocked, restricting blood flow to capillaries in the leg.
D. The right pulmonary artery could become blocked, restricting blood flow to the right lung.
31. A doctor examines a patient who has high blood pressure and atherosclerosis in the coronary artery
What medical condition connected to blood flow is most likely to affect this patient in the future?
A. The patient may develop headaches and confusion due to cancer in the brain caused by years of low
levels of oxygen supplied to the brain.
B. The patient may develop stiff joints and chest pains from the high blood pressure applied to the
muscle and joint tissues of the body.
C. The patient may show signs of confusion, weakness, and partial paralysis due to high blood pressure
when the plaque dislodges and blocks blood flow to the brain.
D. The patient may suffer a heart attack because of the reduction in blood flow to the heart muscles due
to severe plaque build-up in the coronary artery.
32. After an initial infection, B-cells recognize the measles virus. How is this helpful in human immune response?
A. The B-cells use this recognition to defend the body against other pathogens, such as bacteria.
B. The B-cells more quickly recognize and respond to any other virus that invades the body.
C. The B-cells produce antibodies more quickly if the measles virus is encountered again.
D. The B-cells transfer this recognition to T-cells, which will then devour the viruses
33. What is immunity?
A. The body's ability to produce cells that inactivate foreign cells or substances.
B. The body's ability to regulate homeostasis through feedback loops.
C. The body's ability to produce the "fight or flight" response.
D. The body's ability to use the endocrine system to fight disease
34. Which of the following explains why people need to get a flu shot each year?
A. Antibodies for the flu virus only last for one year.
B. The flu virus eventually breaks down the vaccine.
C. The flu virus is constantly mutating and changing.
D. There are not enough antibodies in the vaccine to kill the entire virus.
35. What is the body's first line of defense against infection by foreign organisms?
A. Antibodies
B. lymph nodes
C. white blood cells D. the skin
36. Which of the following statements best describes the relationships among possible environmental influences,
the p53 gene, and cancer?
A. Environmental influences can lead to mutations in the p53 gene, which can cause certain cancers.
B. Increased levels of p53 protein, rather than environmental influences, can cause certain cancers.
C. Mutations in the p53 gene increase environmental influences that can cause certain cancers.
D. Genes such as p53 are less casual than environmental influences in stimulating certain cancers
37. Many times people visit the doctor requesting antibiotics to treat colds and viral infections. How is the
doctor justified in offering the patient treatment options that do not include antibiotics for these cases?
A . Antibiotics can weaken the immune system when used for colds and viruses, whereas other
medications are not so hard on the immune system during these types of illnesses.
B. Colds and viruses should be first treated with viral therapies and then when the body begins to
recover, antibiotics can be used. Otherwise, the use of antibiotics is not effective at all.
C. If a doctor provides an antibiotic to treat colds and viruses, any bacteria in the patient's body will be
killed, but a few will survive. Those few survivors may become resistant to antibiotics needed for real bacterial illnesses.
D. Side effects from antibiotics are severe when used for colds and viruses. Any use of antibiotics for
colds and viruses will only make the patient more ill and ultimately make the patient's recovery time
longer.
38. Which of the following would be the best way to detect whether someone was infected with a virus, like HIV?
A. Check for an inflammatory response in the body.
B. Check for the presence of antibodies in the blood.
C. Check for the presence of histamines in the body.
D. Check for the presence of white blood cells in the blood
39. How does a vaccine work?
A .It prevents the disease-causing agent from entering the body.
B. It attacks the disease-causing agent as soon as it enters the body.
C. It triggers the immune system to produce antibodies to fight the disease-causing agent.
D. It allows the blood to filter out the disease-causing agent.
40. White blood cells are an important part of the human immune response. Two types of white blood cells,
neutrophils and macrophages, act as phagocytes. Phagocytes perform which of the following functions in
the human body?
A. They produce antibodies.
B. They bind to antigens and develop into plasma cells.
C. They form a barrier against pathogens. D. They engulf and destroy bacteria
41. An activity that occurs in the human body is shown below. This activity helps to do which of the following
A. provide protection against pathogens
B. produce antibiotics to control disease
C. eliminate harmful gene alterations
D. regulate production of ATP by the cell
42. Which of the following describes a way that a person's health can be affected by heredity?
A. A person with a family history of obesity is more likely to catch a common cold.
B. A person with a family history of high blood pressure is more likely to have heart disease.
C. A person with a family history of obesity is less likely to enroll in a weight loss plan.
D. A person with a family history of cancer is less likely to be screened for cancer
43. Although vaccines cannot be used to treat a person who is sick, they can help to prevent infections.
Vaccinations tell the body to create "memory cells", which will function later to create antibodies against certain pathogens.
When a person is vaccinated, what are they injected with?
A. antibodies to a disease bacterium
B. live, inactive viruses
C. weakened viruses or antigens from the virus
D. blood from a person who has had the disease
44. Many species of bacteria have become resistant to antibiotics because antibiotics have been so widely used.
Now, bacteria that used to be killed by antibiotics are more difficult to treat. What is the best way to proceed
in dealing with this public health problem?
A. Antibiotics should no longer be used.
B. Antibiotics should be made available to anyone without a prescription.
C. Antibiotics should only be prescribed to people with bacterial infections.
D. Anti-viral medications should now be used instead of antibiotics
45. How do human diseases caused by bacteria and diseases caused by viruses react to antibiotics?
A. Neither responds to antibiotics.
B. Both respond to antibiotics.
C. Viral diseases respond to antibiotics; bacterial diseases do not.
D. Bacterial diseases respond to antibiotics; viral diseases do not
46. The immune system has both specific and nonspecific defenses against viral infections. Which statement
describes a nonspecific response of the immune system in fighting viral infections?
A. T cells are produced to search out and destroy the viruses.
B. Memory B cells are activated to rapidly respond to the viral infection.
C. Plasma cells quickly replicate and release antibodies that bind to the viruses.
D. Virus-infected cells produce interferons that lead to the inhibition of viral replication