1. law, govt and politics
2. law enforcement
3. police

This is a sample of questions that may be used
for the Criminal Justice Quiz Bowl. You may or
may not be asked these questions. However
students that study these questions along with
the curriculum adopted by the Texas Education
Agency for Criminal Justice programs should be
able to participate successfully in this
competition.
These questions come from the TECLOSE
program. The answer key is not available.
You may also see questions regarding SkillsUSA
Texas information along with professional
development questions. These questions will
come from the SkillsUSA Leadership Handbook.
1. Punishable by imprisonment for 2 - 10 years in the institutional division; in addition to, may
be fined up to $10,000.
A. Capitol Felony
B. 1st Degree Felony
C. 2nd Degree Felony
D. 3rd Degree Felony
E. State Jail Felony
2. COERCION means a threat, however communicated. Which of the following would not be
coercion?
preventing another from acquiring information likely to affect his judgment in a
A.
transaction
B. to accuse a person of any offense
C. to expose a person to hatred, contempt, or ridicule
D.
to take or withhold action as a public servant, or to cause a public servant to take or
withhold action
E. all of the above are coercion
3. When a person causes the penetration of the anus or female sexual organ of another person
who is not the spouse of the actor by any means, without that person's consent, they have
committed the offense of:
A. Assault
B. Sexual Assault
C. Aggravated Sexual Assault
D. Rape
4. Vic, the local salesman, refuses to leave a residence after being informed to leave by the
owner. Vic is arrested for Criminal Trespass. What penalty group would this fall under?
A. Felony 3rd Degree
1. R-1 2.1.1
August Volmer can best be remembered for:
A. identifying police corruption
B. developing foot patrol methods
C. creating the FBI
his contribution to the goal of professionalizing the police
D.
2.1.1
2. Police professionalism became a major issue in ____________.
A. the late 40s
B. the late 50s
C. the late 60's
the late 70's
D.
2.1.1
3. A study of 289 agencies in 1986 on entry-level educational requirements, reported that
____________.
A. 0.9 percent had no minimum educational requirement
B. 84.8 percent had a high school or G.E.D. requirement
C. 0.6 percent required a four-year baccalaureate degree
all of the above
D.
2.1.1
4. . Requirements for election of Sheriff or set out by __________________.
A. Art. 2, Sec. 13 Texas Constitution
B. Art. 5, Sec. 18 Texas Constitution
C. Art. 5, Sec. 23 Texas Constitution
D.
the commissioner's court of that county
2.1.2
5. In ______ the Texas Legislature enacted legislation that created the Commission.
A. 1962
B. 1965
C. 1972
1975
D.
2.1.3
6. When notifying the commission of an arrest the licensee must including,
_________________.
A. the name of the arresting agency
B. the style, court, and cause number of the charge or indictment, if any
C. the address to which notice of any commission action will be mailed.
all of the above
D.
2.1.4
7. A person under section 211.27. Reporting Responsibilities of Individuals, must also report to
the commission the final disposition of the criminal action within ________ of the effective
date of the disposition.
A. 30 days
B. 60 days,
C. 90 days,
1 year
D.
2.1.4
8. Under 217.1. Minimum Standards for Initial Licensure a person must ______________.
A. be prohibited by state or federal law from operating a motor vehicle
show no trace of drug dependency or illegal drug use after a physical examination,
B.
blood test, or other medical test
C.
not be subjected to a background investigation and be interviewed prior to
appointment by representatives of the appointing authority;
D.
be prohibited by state or federal law from possessing firearms or ammunition
2.1.4
9. Except as provided by Sections 1701.310 and 1701.311, a person may not appoint a person to
serve as an officer, county jailer, or public security officer unless the person appointed holds
_________________.
A. a concealed handgun license
B. an appropriate drivers license issued by DPS
C. an appropriate license issued by the commission
a baccalaureate degree
D.
2.1.4
10. To be eligible to take a state licensing examination, a student must have ______________.
A. a letter from a chief or sheriff
B. two number 2 pencils
C. a valid endorsement of eligibility
a baccalaureate degree
D.
2.1.4
11. To be eligible to sit for an examination, an examinee must
____________________________.
A. report on time
B. display upon request some identification card which contains a photograph
C. not disrupt the examination
D. comply with all the written and verbal instructions of the proctor
all of the above
E.
2.1.4
12. A peace officer appointed to the officer's first supervisory position must receive in-service
training on supervision during the _________ period after the date of that appointment.
A. 12-month
B. 24-month
C. 36-month
48-month
D.
2.1.4
13. A minimum standard for the annual handguns firearms proficiency course of fire under
Rule- 217.21 shall include:
A. at least 5 rounds of duty ammunition
B. at least 10 rounds of duty ammunition
C. at least 15 rounds of duty ammunition
D. at least 25 rounds of duty ammunition
14. A minimum standard for the annual firearms proficiency course of fire under Rule- 217.21
rifle qualifications shall include __________________________________.
A. a minimum of 20 rounds of duty ammunition fired at a range of at least 75 yards
B. a minimum of 25 rounds of duty ammunition fired at a range of at least 75 yards
C. a minimum of 20 rounds of duty ammunition fired at a range of at least 100 yards
D.
a minimum of 25 rounds of duty ammunition fired at a range of at least 100 yards
2.1.4
15. A minimum standard for the annual firearms proficiency course of fire under Rule- 217.21
fully automatic weapons shall include:
A. at least 5 rounds of duty ammunition
B. at least 10 rounds of duty ammunition
C. at least 25 rounds of duty ammunition
at least 30 rounds of duty ammunition
D.
2.1.4
16. The minimum standards for the annual firearms proficiency course of fire under Rule217.21 , fully automatic weapons, shall
A. include the wearing of hat for protection
B. include two magazine changes
C. include at least two timed reload
include at least one timed reloads
D.
2.1.4
17. Sec. 1701.355. (Occupation Code)CONTINUING DEMONSTRATION OF WEAPONS
PROFICIENCY, allows who to define the weapons proficiency requirements?
A. The agency
B. The commission
C. The ATF
All of the above
D.
2.1.4
18. Statistics related to law enforcement in Texas from June 2000 data
Number of active peace officer licenses: _________________
A. 32,750
B. 51,302
C. 65,203
74,201
D.
2.1.5
19. Statistics related to law enforcement in Texas from June 2000 data
Number of active reserve licenses: _____________
A. 4,405
B. 5,088
C. 7,508
8,805
D.
2.1.5
20. The _________ was the nighttime system of policing .
A. Watch
B. Ward
C. City Marshal
Sheriff
D.
2.1.1
21. An order from the court directing the person responsible for holding an individual in jail or
prison to bring that person before the court and show why he is being held in custody is
called a:
A. Writ of Attainder
B. Writ of Custody
C. Writ of Mandamus
Writ of Habeas Corpus
D.
4.1.2
22. he Fourth Amendment to the Constitution:
A. Establishes the separation of powers
B. Protects citizens from unreasonable searches and seizures
C. Protects citizens from being compelled to be witnesses against themselves
Provides for the Writ of Habeas Corpus
D.
4.1.5
23. The Fifth Amendment to the Constitution provides which of the following protections:
A. Freedom of the press
B. Probable cause for arrests
C. Right to a jury trial
Freedom from double jeopardy
D.
4.1.6
24. Which amendment to the constitution gives citizens the right to an attorney during criminal
proceedings?
A. Fourth Amendment
B. Fifth Amendment
C. Tenth Amendment
Sixth Amendment
D.
4.1.7
25. A religion that worships the Dallas Cowboys Football team as idols ______ be prohibited by
the government because of the First Amendment.
A. can
B. cannot
C. may
shall
D.
4.1.4
26. A state government ________ the impact of any Supreme Court decision by passing it's own
constitutional amendment doing away with the Supreme Courts decision.
A. may modify
B. cannot lessen
C. can lessen
D.
shall lessen
4.1.3
27. The Fourteenth Amendment to the Constitution guarantees:
A. freedom of the press
B. excessive bails
C. due process of law
probable cause
D.
4.1.11
28. R-2 4.1.3
Article 3 of the Constitution is important because:
A. it establishes the procedure for the election of the President and Vice-President
B. it establishes our freedom of religion
C. it establishes the right to counsel for any person
it creates the Supreme Court of the U.S. and defines its jurisdiction
D.
4.1.3
29. R-2 4.1.3
There is only one crime defined in the U.S. Constitution. What is it?
A. murder of the President
B. lying to Congress
C. treason
burning the Flag
D.
4.1.3
30. Amendment 8 of the U.S. Constitution establishes:
A. the right to a speedy trial
B. right against self-incrimination
C. right against cruel or unusual punishment
freedom of the press
D.
4.1.8
31. One of the major differences between the federal Bill of Rights and the State of Texas Bill
of Rights is:
A. Texas does not have a due process amendment
B. Texas has a section on the commitment of persons of unsound mind
C. the U.S. Bill of Rights has no Writ of Habeas Corpus
Texas has no right to keep and bear arms
D.
4.2.1
32. R-3 4.1.5
An example of an unreasonable seizure as defined in the 4th Amendment to the Constitution
would be the case of:
A. Miranda vs. Arizona
B. Monroe vs. Pape
C. Tennessee vs. Garner
D.
Williams vs. Texas
4.1.5
33. R-4 4.1.6
An example of the 5th Amendment right to protection against self-incrimination is the case
of:
A. Miranda vs. Arizona
B. Monroe vs. Pape
C. Tennessee vs. Garner
Williams vs. Texas
D.
4.1.6
34. R-5 4.1.7
Which of the following is not protected by the 6th Amendment to the Constitution?
A. double jeopardy
B. right to counsel
C. right to a speedy and public trial
confronting one's accusers through cross examination
D.
4.1.7
35. R-6 4.1.8
The 8th Amendment to the Constitution guarantees:
A. freedom from unreasonable searches
B. right to counsel
C. right against self-incrimination
D.
right against cruel or unusually punishment
4.1.8
36. R-6 4.1.8
Which of the following rights is not defined by the 8th Amendment to the Constitution?
A. the right to reasonable bail
B. the right to be free of cruel or unusual punishment
C. freedom of the press
right to be free to be free of excessive fines
D.
4.1.8
37. Which of the following is provided for in the 9th Amendment to the Constitution?
those powers not delegated to the U.S., nor prohibited by the Constitution to the
A.
States, are reserved to the States (the Police Powers)
B. freedom from excessive bail
C. the right to a speedy and public trial
the enumeration of certain rights in the Constitution shall not be construed to deny
D.
or disparage others retained by the people (individual rights)
4.1.9
38. Which of the following statements is not true about the concept of professionalism?
it is a vocation in which professed knowledge of some branch of learning is used in
A.
application to the affairs of others.
B. a vocation requiring advanced training in some liberal art or science
C. it usually requires mental rather than manual work
D. they know better about their specialty than others would
E.
there is little variance between individuals as to their compatibility with the
characteristics of professionalism
3.1.1
39. Which of the following is not a characteristic of professionalism?
A. continuing education
B. assessment of client needs
C. little or no standards for entry
standards for ethical conduct
D.
3.1.2
40. R-7 3.1.2
One of the advantages of the professional model for law enforcement is:
A.
it limits entry into the work force from the poor because of the limited educational
opportunities
B. stronger community support and respect
C. higher salaries for job occupants
the costs of training and development
D.
3.1.2
41. R-7 3.1.2
Which of the following statements is not true about the professional model of law
enforcement?
A. it allows law enforcement to better serve the community
B. it makes for more effective problem solving by law enforcement
C. it improves the financial rewards for law enforcement
D. it promotes ethical conduct by the law enforcement community
all of the above are true statements about the professional model for law
E.
enforcement
3.1.2
42. Values: (as discussed in professionalism/ethics)
A. are easily defined
B. are constant from location to location, group to group
C. are what influence our behavior
have always endured through time
D.
3.2.2
43. R-8 3.2.2
Which of the following statements is true?
A. ethical problems are easy to identify
it is not important to live our personal lives practicing honesty and integrity - we can
B.
change our roles of personal vs. professional
C. a peace officers actions affect only those inside the criminal justice system
peer pressure can work for or against ethical behavior
D.
3.2.2
44. R-8 3.2.2
The ___________________ is performed by being objective and ethical in personal
behavior and in functioning as a representatives of the criminal justice system.
A. ethical role
B. professional role
C. paramilitary role
law enforcement role
D.
3.2.2
45. R-8 3.2.2
__________________ involves the expression or use of facts without distortion by personal
feelings or prejudices.
A. Ethics
B. Objectivity
C. Professionalism
Communion
D.
3.2.2
46. R-9 3.1.1
Which of the following statements is not true concerning the concept of professionalism?
A. it is applied only to the military profession
B. it comes from those professing their vows to a religious order - the act of professing
C. it requires advanced training in some liberal art or science
it is a vocation in which professed knowledge of some branch of learning is used in
D.
its application to the affairs of others
3.1.1
47. ______ is the body of law concerned with the remedy of private rights.
A. Civil law
B. Criminal law
C. The model Penal Code
The law of nature
D.
5.1.2
48. A Municipal Court is a function of the ______ component of the Criminal Justice System.
A. police
B. courts
C. correctional system
legislative
D.
5.1.1
49. Which of the following prescribes the punishment to be imposed for criminal conduct?
A. civil law
B. tort
C. criminal law
Texas Rules of Court
D.
5.1.3
50. The purpose of ______ is preventing harm to society.
A. criminal law
B. civil law
C. torts
contracts
D.
5.1.3
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B. Misdemeanor Class A
C. Misdemeanor Class B
D. Misdemeanor Class C
5. Which of the following Disorderly Conduct offense's is not a class C misdemeanor?
A. fighting with another in a public place
displaying a firearm or other deadly weapon in a public place in a manner calculated
B.
to alarm
C. uses abusive, indecent, profane, or vulgar language in a public place
exposing one's anus in a public place and careless about whether another may be
D.
present who may be offended
6. Joe Blow is wet and cold. To escape the weather, he forces his way into a closed business by
breaking out a window (damage is $50). Blow should be charged with:
A. Burglary (Felony 2nd Degree)
B. Burglary (Felony 1st Degree)
C. Criminal Mischief (Class A Misdemeanor)
D. Criminal Trespass (Class B Misdemeanor)
7. Punishable by life in prison or death
A. Capitol Felony
B. 1st Degree Felony
C. 2nd Degree Felony
D. 3rd Degree Felony
E. State Jail Felony
8. What is the primary difference between robbery and theft?
A. the value of the item taken
B. the fact that property was taken from a residence rather than a business
C. the type of entry used
D. the use or attempted use of force
9. All crimes must have an actus reus (act) and mens reus (mental state).
A. True
B. False
10. Bob pats Sweet Thing on the rump. Bob knows she might be a little offended but is
surprised when she slaps him silly. Bob's actions might result in what charge being filed
(Sweet Thing suffered no pain or injury).
A. Assault (Class A)
B. Assault (Class C)
C. Disorderly Conduct (Gesture)
D. No charge may be filed
11. A person agrees with one or more persons to commit a felony; plus an overt act by one or
more of them in pursuance of the agreement is committed. This constitutes:
A. Criminal Attempt
B. Criminal Conspiracy
C. Criminal Solicitation
D. All of the above
E. Both A & B are correct
12. It is a defense to prosecution for resisting arrest or search that the arrest or search was
unlawful.
A. True
B. False
13. Eddie Murphy shoplifts a video cassette of "Beverly Hills Cop" worth $18.50. While trying
to leave the store where the theft occurred, Murphy is confronted by Billy, the store security
guard. Murphy strikes Billy in the face, knocking him to the ground and causing Billy to
suffer a black eye. Murphy then runs to the parking lot where he is apprehended by Serge,
the other security guard. Murphy should be charged with what offense?
A. Assault (Class A)
B. Theft (Class C)
C. Robbery
D. Aggravated Robbery
14. Mack intentionally strikes Sam in the head and shoulders with a nightstick. The incident
took place in the jail where Mack was booking Sam in. Sam did nothing to provoke Mack
except speak poorly about Mack's family heritage. What offense has occurred?
A. Official Misconduct
B. Official Oppression
C. Violation of Civil Rights of Prisoner
D. No offense has occurred - Sam got what he deserved
15. R-1 3.3.16
Officer Dudley Doright has stopped Snidely Whiplash for a traffic violation. Whiplash is
abusive towards Doright and there is no one around to be offended by the remarks of
Whiplash. Doright arrests Whiplash for Disorderly Conduct, knowing he does not have a
lawful arrest. What offense has Doright committed?
A. Official Misconduct
B. Official Oppression
C. Violation of Civil Rights of Prisoner
No offense was committed by Doright - Whiplash really is guilty of Disorderly
D.
Conduct
16. R-1 3.3.16
If the loss due to theft is less than $500 but $20 or more, the grade of theft would be:
A. 3rd Degree Felony
B. Class A Misdemeanor
C. Class B Misdemeanor
D. Class C Misdemeanor
E. You need more information to answer this question
17. Which one of the following defenses is not considered to be a valid defense in a criminal
proceeding?
A. Duress
B. Mistake of fact
C. Intoxication
D. Entrapment
18. ____________ means any device designed, made, or adapted to expel a projectile through a
barrel by using the energy generated by an explosion or burning substance.
A. Explosive weapon
B. Firearm
C. Handgun
D. Machine gun
19. R-2 3.3.31
A convicted felon may never possess a firearm.
A. True
B. False
20. R-2 3.3.31
A person commits the offense of __________ if the person knowingly manufactures a hoax
bomb with the intent to use it cause alarm or reaction of any type by an official of a public
safety agency or volunteer agency organized to deal with emergencies.
A. Hoax Bomb
B. Prohibited Weapon
C. Arson
D. False Alarm or Report
E. None of the above
21. Causation is the link between the ________ and the ________.
A. mental state - act
B. act - harmful result
C. offense - penalty
D. victim - suspect
22. Joe, the village bum, finds an expired Master Card in the garbage. He knows the card is
expired (and not his) but uses it to purchase a bottle of imported ripple. Joe is guilty of:
A. Theft (3rd Degree Felony)
B. Theft (Class A Misdemeanor)
C. Credit Card Abuse
D. Fraud
23. Effective consent means:
A. consent induced by threat
B. consent by a person legally authorized to act for the owner
C. consent solely to detect the commission of an offense
D. both B & C
E. none of the above
24. All persons are presumed to be innocent until proven guilty, and no person may be
convicted of an offense unless each element of the offense is proven. The burden of proof
required for a conviction is:
A. Suspicion
B. Reasonable suspicion
C. Reasonable doubt
D. Proof beyond a reasonable doubt
E. Preponderance of the evidence
25. R-3 3.3.2
Proof of a higher degree of culpability than that charged constitutes proof of the culpability
needed for conviction of the offense charged.
A. True
B. False
26. Habitation includes all of the following except:
A. a structure adapted for overnight accommodation of a person
B. a vehicle adapted for overnight accommodation of a person
C. any structure or enclosure designed specifically and only for commercial use
D. each separately secure, or occupied, portion of a structure or building
E. both B & D would not be considered a habitation
27. Allan is drunk and driving a motor vehicle. He strikes Tiny Tim, killing Tim, as Tim is tiptoeing through the intersection of Tulip & Vine. Allan may be charged with:
A. Murder
B. Capital Murder
C. Manslaughter
D. Intoxication Manslaughter
28. R-4 3.3.11 A
Which of the following would not constitute Capital Murder (assuming a person commits
murder as defined in the Penal Code)?
A. Murder of a fireman acting in performance of an official duty
B. Murder during the commission of felony criminal mischief
C. Murder during the commission of arson
D. Murder for remuneration or promise of remuneration
E. Murder of a peace officer acting in performance of an official duty
29. R-4 3.3.11 A
The form of criminal homicide normally occurring during a fit of blind rage or sudden
passion is:
A. Murder
B. Capitol Murder
C. Manslaughter
D. Intoxication Manslaughter
E. Criminally Negligent Homicide
30. R-4 3.3.11 A
A person who recklessly causes the death of an individual may be charged with:
A. Murder
B. Manslaughter
C. Intoxication Manslaughter
D. Capitol Murder
E. Criminally Negligent Homicide
31. Joe abducts the son of the District Court judge. Joe calls the judge, the boy speaks with his
daddy, then Joe says "Just think of what could happen if Harry Smith (Joe's brother) is
convicted in your court." Joe then releases the boy unhurt at a church. The most serious
offense is:
A. False Imprisonment
B. Kidnapping
C. Aggravated Kidnapping
D. Extortion
E. Abduction
32. A person may not be convicted of any offense committed when younger than 15 years of
age.
A. True
B. False
33. A person intentionally, knowingly, or recklessly carries on or about his person a handgun,
illegal knife, or club. What offense would he be charged with?
A. Prohibited Weapons
B. Possession of Weapon by Felon
C. Unlawful Carrying Weapons
D. No charge may be filed
34. A person commits this offense if he does an act amounting to more than mere preparation
that tends but fails to effect the commission of the offense.
A. Criminal Attempt
B. Criminal Conspiracy
C. Criminal Responsibility
D. Criminal Solicitation
35. "Public Place" includes all of the following except:
A. streets
B. highways
C. the common area of a school
D. an apartment
36. Mr. Bill decides to break into a hardware store. He forces his way into the building and
begins to collect items he intends to take. Officer Hand arrives and captures Mr. Bill, who
also has a handgun in his belt. Mr. Bill did not have the effective consent of the owner (Mr.
Sluggo) to be in the store. The most serious offense Bill may be charged in court with is:
A. Burglary (State Jail Felony)
B. Burglary (3rd Degree Felony)
C. Criminal Trespass (Class A Misdemeanor)
D. Unlawful Carrying Weapon
37. Willie has been sniffing glue. He behavior is such that it suggests he is under the influence
of the glue (an intoxicant) in that he now is running down the middle of Easy St. acting like
King Kong. Willie should be charged with:
A. Public Lewdness
B. Public Intoxication
C. Invest of Lunacy
D. Cruelty to Animals
38. C.B. knowingly carries on the front seat of his car a switch blade knife. C.B. should be
charged with:
A. Possession of Prohibited Weapon
B. Unlawfully Carrying a Weapon
C. Possession of Weapon by Felon
D. No charge
39. Punishable by up to one year in jail,; a $4,000 fine; and/or both such fine and imprisonment
A. State Jail Felony
B. Class A Misdemeanor
C. Class B Misdemeanor
D. Class C Misdemeanor
40. Punishable by a fine only of up to $500
A. State Jail Felony
B. Class A Misdemeanor
C. Class B Misdemeanor
D. Class C Misdemeanor
41. Punishable by confinement in a state jail for not more than two years but less than 180 days
and, in addition to, may be fined up to $10,000.
A. State Jail Felony
B. Class A Misdemeanor
C. Class B Misdemeanor
D. 3rd Degree Felony
42. Punishable by a fine not to exceed $2,000, confinement in jail for not more than 180 days,
or both such fine and confinement.
A. Class A Misdemeanor
B. Class B Misdemeanor
C. Class C Misdemeanor
D. State Jail Felony
43. Punishable by imprisonment for 5 - 99 years, or life, in the institutional division; in addition
to, may be fined up to $10,000.
A. Capitol Felony
B. 1st Degree Felony
C. 2nd Degree Felony
D. 3rd Degree Felony
E. State Jail Felony
44. Punishable by imprisonment for 2 - 20 years in the institutional division; in addition to, may
be fined up to $10,000.
A. Capitol Felony
B. 1st Degree Felony
C. 2nd Degree Felony
D. 3rd Degree Felony
E. State Jail Felony
45. A person commits an offense if, with intent to harass another, he sends them a letter
containing suggestions of sexual acts they are to perform together (and which the recipient
consider obscene). This person has committed:
A. disorderly conduct
B. harassment
C. false alarm or report
D. desecration of venerated object
46. It is acceptable to release an intoxicated individual if a peace officer believes that:
the officer believes that detention in a penal facility is not necessary for the
A.
protection of the individual
B.
C.
the individual is released to an adult who agrees to accept responsibility for the
individual
the officer believes that detention in a penal facility is not necessary for the
protection of the individual and the individual is released to an adult who agrees to
accept responsibility for the individual
D. it is never proper to release an intoxicated individual
47. Short barrel firearm means a rifle with a barrel less than _______ inches or a shotgun barrel
length of less than ________ inches.
A. 12/24
B. 10/12
C. 20/26
D. 16/18
48. ____________________ means three or more persons having a common identifying sign or
symbol, or who are regularly associated in the commission of criminal activities.
A. Mafia
B. Organized crime syndicate
C. Criminal street gang
D. Outlaw biker gang
49. Mr. A decides to rob a store. Acting with intent to commit the offense, A points a pistol at
the store owner and fires. The owner dies as a result of Mr. A shooting him. Mr. A may be
charged with:
A. Involuntary Manslaughter
B. Voluntary Manslaughter
C. Murder
D. Capitol Murder
50. A person who fails to perform an act commits an offense if:
A. There was a moral duty to act
B. He was a police officer
C. There was a statutory duty to act
D. The act was fundamentally wrong
51. A person who pays a witness to go to Miami on the day the witness was legally summoned
to court proceedings in Beaumont may be charged with:
A. Bribery
B. Coercing Public Servant or Voter
C. Improper Influence
D. Witness Tampering
E. Interfering with Public Servant
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1. The condition of the body that enables an individual to use their body in activities requiring
strength, muscular endurance, cardiovascular endurance, and flexibility, is known as:
A. wellness
B. health
C. physical fitness
D. total well being
2. R-1 1.1.1
Which of the following is correct concerning the Wellness Pyramid?
A.
how we act, function, and perform during our everyday lives does not have that much
impact on fitness/wellness
B. self-responsibility has marginal impact on fitness/well-being
C. exercise and proper nutrition make up the foundation of the Wellness Pyramid
D. stress management is not a part of this concept
3. They span of Wellness Continuum goes from ultimate wellness to:
A. obesity
B. poor physical condition
C. death
D. organic conditioning
4. A study of 289 agencies in 1986 on entry-level educational requirements, reported that
____________.
A. 0.9 percent had no minimum educational requirement
B. 84.8 percent had a high school or G.E.D. requirement
C. 0.6 percent required a four-year baccalaureate degree
D.
all of the above
2.1.1
5. When notifying the commission of an arrest the licensee must including,
_________________.
A. the name of the arresting agency
B. the style, court, and cause number of the charge or indictment, if any
C. the address to which notice of any commission action will be mailed.
all of the above
D.
2.1.4
6. Except as provided by Sections 1701.310 and 1701.311, a person may not appoint a person to
serve as an officer, county jailer, or public security officer unless the person appointed holds
_________________.
A. a concealed handgun license
B. an appropriate drivers license issued by DPS
C. an appropriate license issued by the commission
a baccalaureate degree
D.
2.1.4
7. A peace officer appointed to the officer's first supervisory position must receive in-service
training on supervision during the _________ period after the date of that appointment.
A. 12-month
B. 24-month
C. 36-month
48-month
D.
2.1.4
8. A minimum standard for the annual firearms proficiency course of fire under Rule- 217.21
rifle qualifications shall include __________________________________.
A. a minimum of 20 rounds of duty ammunition fired at a range of at least 75 yards
B. a minimum of 25 rounds of duty ammunition fired at a range of at least 75 yards
C. a minimum of 20 rounds of duty ammunition fired at a range of at least 100 yards
a minimum of 25 rounds of duty ammunition fired at a range of at least 100 yards
D.
2.1.4
9. A minimum standard for the annual firearms proficiency course of fire under Rule- 217.21
fully automatic weapons shall include:
A. at least 5 rounds of duty ammunition
B. at least 10 rounds of duty ammunition
C. at least 25 rounds of duty ammunition
at least 30 rounds of duty ammunition
D.
2.1.4
10. The minimum standards for the annual firearms proficiency course of fire under Rule217.21 , fully automatic weapons, shall
A. include the wearing of hat for protection
B. include two magazine changes
C. include at least one timed reload
include at least two timed reloads
D.
2.1.4
11. Sec. 1701.355. (Occupation Code)CONTINUING DEMONSTRATION OF WEAPONS
PROFICIENCY, allows who to define the weapons proficiency requirements?
A. The agency
B. The commission
C. The ATF
D.
All of the above
2.1.4
12. Statistics related to law enforcement in Texas from June 2000 data
Number of active peace officer licenses: _________________
A. 32,750
B. 51,302
C. 65,203
74,201
D.
2.1.5
13. The _________ was the nighttime system of policing .
A. Watch
B. Ward
C. City Marshal
Sheriff
D.
2.1.1
14. Which of the following is not a characteristic of professionalism?
A. continuing education
B. assessment of client needs
C. little or no standards for entry
standards for ethical conduct
D.
3.1.2
15. R-2 3.1.2
One of the advantages of the professional model for law enforcement is:
A.
it limits entry into the work force from the poor because of the limited educational
opportunities
B. stronger community support and respect
C. higher salaries for job occupants
the costs of training and development
D.
3.1.2
16. R-2 3.1.2
Which of the following statements is not true about the professional model of law
enforcement?
A. it allows law enforcement to better serve the community
B. it makes for more effective problem solving by law enforcement
C. it improves the financial rewards for law enforcement
D. it promotes ethical conduct by the law enforcement community
all of the above are true statements about the professional model for law
E.
enforcement
3.1.2
17. R-3 3.2.2
__________________ involves the expression or use of facts without distortion by personal
feelings or prejudices.
A. Ethics
B. Objectivity
C. Professionalism
D.
Communion
3.2.2
18. An order from the court directing the person responsible for holding an individual in jail or
prison to bring that person before the court and show why he is being held in custody is
called a:
A. Writ of Attainder
B. Writ of Custody
C. Writ of Mandamus
Writ of Habeas Corpus
D.
4.1.2
19. The Fourth Amendment to the Constitution:
A. Establishes the separation of powers
B. Protects citizens from unreasonable searches and seizures
C. Protects citizens from being compelled to be witnesses against themselves
Provides for the Writ of Habeas Corpus
D.
4.1.5
20. The Fifth Amendment to the Constitution provides which of the following protections:
[3.1.1-D]
A. Freedom of the press
B. Probable cause for arrests
C. Right to a jury trial
Freedom from double jeopardy
D.
4.1.6
21. Which amendment to the constitution gives citizens the right to an attorney during criminal
proceedings? (3.1.1-E)
A. Fourth Amendment
B. Fifth Amendment
C. Tenth Amendment
D.
Sixth Amendment
4.1.7
22. A religion that worships the Dallas Cowboys Football team as idols ______ be prohibited by
the government because of the First Amendment.
A. can
B. cannot
C. may
shall
D.
4.1.4
23. A state government ________ the impact of any Supreme Court decision by passing it's own
constitutional amendment doing away with the Supreme Courts decision.
A. may modify
B. cannot lessen
C. can lessen
shall lessen
D.
4.1.3
24. The Fourteenth Amendment to the Constitution guarantees:
A. freedom of the press
B. excessive bails
C. due process of law
probable cause
D.
4.1.11
25. R-4 4.1.3
Article 3 of the Constitution is important because:
A. it establishes the procedure for the election of the President and Vice-President
B. it establishes our freedom of religion
C. it establishes the right to counsel for any person
it creates the Supreme Court of the U.S. and defines its jurisdiction
D.
4.1.3
26. R-4 4.1.3
There is only one crime defined in the U.S. Constitution. What is it?
A. murder of the President
B. lying to Congress
C. treason
burning the Flag
D.
4.1.3
27. Amendment 8 of the U.S. Constitution establishes:
A. the right to a speedy trial
B. right against self-incrimination
C. right against cruel or unusual punishment
freedom of the press
D.
4.1.8
28. ______ is the body of law concerned with the remedy of private rights.
A. Civil law
B. Criminal law
C. The model Penal Code
The law of nature
D.
5.1.2
29. A Municipal Court is a function of the ______ component of the Criminal Justice System.
A. police
B. courts
C. correctional system
legislative
D.
5.1.1
30. Which of the following prescribes the punishment to be imposed for criminal conduct?
A. civil law
B. tort
C. criminal law
Texas Rules of Court
D.
5.1.3
31. The purpose of ______ is preventing harm to society.
A. criminal law
B. civil law
C. torts
contracts
D.
5.1.3
32. The U.S. Supreme Court has jurisdiction over what type of cases
A. civil only
B. criminal
C. civil and criminal
D. juvenile
33. Which of the following is not a magistrate in Texas?
A. Judge of the County Court at Law
B. County Judges
C. Municipal Court Judges
State Attorney General
D.
6.2.1
34. Which of the following is not a Peace Officer in Texas?
A. Marshalls of incorporated cities
B. Agents of the Alcoholic Beverage Commission
C. Municipal Park and Recreational Officers
Special Agents of the Bureau of Alcohol, Tobacco, and Firearms
D.
6.2.2
35. R-5 6.2.2
Which of the following would not be a peace officer as defined by Article 2, Code of
Criminal Procedure?
A. Inspectors of the U.S. Postal Service
B. Adjunct Police Officers
C. Rangers and Officers of the Department of Public Safety
Officers commissioned by the governing board of a Metropolitan Rapid Transit
D.
Authority
6.2.2
36. It is the duty of every Peace Officer, as established by Art. 2.13 of the Code of Criminal
Procedure, to: [3.2.1-C]
A. Enforce all laws of the nation & State of Texas
B. Arrest all criminal offenders
C. Preserve the Peace within his jurisdiction
D.
Enforce the Traffic Code
6.2.3
37. R-6 6.2.3
If a peace officer summons a person to aid him, and that person refuses, the person is guilty
of:
A. Aiding the escape of an offender
B. Resisting a lawful order
C. No offense
A class C misdemeanor
D.
6.2.3
38. R-6 6.2.3
The _____________________ is custodian of prisoners.
A. Court issuing custodial notice
B. Chief of Police
C. Sheriff
D. Jailor
Arresting officer
E.
6.2.3
39. R-6 6.2.3
Each sheriff shall be:
A. A minimum of 31 years of age at time of election
B. Conservator of public morals
C. Conservator of the laws of Texas
Conservator of the peace
D.
6.2.3
40. R-6 6.2.3
A ______________________ may have the same duties as the sheriff.
A. Marshall
B. Constable
C. Police Officer
Deputy
D.
6.2.3
41. Which of the following does not have jurisdiction in criminal actions.
A. County Courts at Law
B. Justice Courts
C. District Courts
the Texas Supreme Court
D.
6.3.1
42. The _____________________ in each incorporated city or town shall have jurisdiction in
cases involving Class "C" Misdemeanors.
A. Municipal Court
B. District Court
C. Justice Court
County Court
D.
6.3.1
43. Which of the following is not correct about a search warrant?
May be issued to photograph a child who is alleged to be the victim of the offense
A.
of injury to a child as defined in the Penal Code
B. It may order an arrest
May be issued to search for and seize property acquired by theft or in any other
C.
manner which makes its acquisition a penal offense
D.
All are correct statements about a search warrant
6.7.1
44. R-7 6.5.6
You have probable cause to believe that a well known bank robber has written plans to rob a
bank in his diary. You may:
A. Seize the diary as this is an instrument of a crime
B. Obtain a search warrant based on his reputation and seize it
C. Search warrant requirements can be waived and the diary seized
D. No search warrant can be issued
Obtain a search warrant for contraband and seize the diary
E.
6.7.1
45. R-7 6.5.6
You have probable cause to believe that weapons prohibited by the Penal Code are kept in a
file cabinet in the editors office of the local newspaper. You may:
A. Obtain a search warrant and seize the cabinet
B. Obtain a search warrant and arrest the editor
C. Obtain a search warrant and seize the weapons
No search warrant may be issued
D.
6.7.1
46. R-7 6.5.6
You obtain a search warrant to search for and obtain photographs of an injured child. The
child is not the same sex as you.
A. If the child is a female a woman must be present
B.
The search warrant must be executed by an officer of the same sex as the child or
the officer executing must be assisted by someone the same sex as the child
C. If the child is under 10 years of age it doesn't matter
D. If the child is under 6 years of age it doesn't matter
The search warrant will specify the sex of the person which may photograph the
E.
child
6.7.1
47. R-7 6.5.6
A search warrant for __________ may not be signed by a justice of the peace.
A. Drugs
B. Property constituting evidence
C. Illegal Weapons
Persons
D.
6.7.1
48. R-7 6.5.6
A search warrant runs for:
A. 30 days
B. 5 days excluding the day it was issued
C. 3 days excluding the day it was issued and the day it is executed
There is no time limit
D.
6.7.1
49. Which of the following is NOT a duty of a peace officer investigating a family violence
allegation as established by Art. 5.04 of the Code of Criminal Procedure?
A. Protect any potential victim
B. Enforce the law
C. Make lawful arrests of violators
Mediate the conflict
D.
6.4.1
50. The limitation for presentation of an indictment or information for any misdemeanor is:
A. There is none
B. 3 years
C. 2 years
5 years
D.
6.5.2
51. R-8 6.5.7
A __________ is the written statement of a grand jury accusing a person therein named of
some act or omission which, by law, is declared to be an offense.
A. information
B. complaint
C. indictment
writ
D.
6.8.1
52. R-8 6.5.7
A __________ is the written statement filed and presented in behalf of the State by the
district or county attorney charging the defendant with an offense which may by law be so
prosecuted.
A. information
B. complaint
C. indictment
writ
D.
6.8.1
53. Which of the following is a true statement about arrest warrants:
A. A warrant may be telegraphed
B.
C.
D.
No greater force than is necessary shall be resorted to secure the arrest of the
accused
If the officer does not have the warrant of arrest in his possession at the time of
arrest, he shall inform the defendant of the offense charged and the fact a warrant
has been issued
All of the above are true statements
6.6.1
54. R-9 6.5.5
The _______________ is a written order from a magistrate, directed to a peace officer or
some other person specially named, commanding him to take the body of the person
accused of an offense, to be dealt with according to law.
A. Warrant of arrest
B. Probable cause waiver
C. Complaint
D. Indictment
Commitment
E.
6.6.1
55. R-9 6.5.5
The affidavit made before the Magistrate, District Attorney, or County Attorney which
alleges an offense is called:
A. A warrant of arrest
B. A probable cause waiver
C. A complaint
D.
An indictment
6.6.2
56. R-9 6.5.5
When a warrant of arrest is issued by any mayor or recorder of an incorporated town or city,
it usually can be executed:
A. Anywhere in the United States
B. Anywhere in Texas
C. In the county in which it was issued
D. In an adjacent county
E.
Only at the location specified on the warrant
6.6.2
57. R-9 6.5.5
An arrest in Texas may be made:
A. Between sunrise and sunset on Class "C" charges
B. Anytime
C. You need additional information to correctly answer this question.
Only during the time specified in a warrant
D.
6.6.2
58. R-9 6.5.5
To arrest a defendant with an arrest warrant the officer must have the warrant in his
possession.
A. True
B.
False
6.6.2
59. When the defendant is arrested at night, the Texas Code of Criminal Procedure requires that
he be taken before a magistrate:
A. No sooner than daylight
B. Immediately
C. Without unnecessary delay
D. As soon as the magistrate's office is open
E.
Whenever it is convenient for the officer to do so
6.6.1
60. A Capias may be executed by any:
A. Reasonable person
B. Executor
C. Peace Officer
Person
D.
6.8.1
61. R-10 6.5.8
A ____________ is a writ issued by the court or clerk, commanding any peace officer to
arrest a person accused of an offense and bring him before that court immediately, or on a
day and time stated in the writ.
A. Warrant
B. Capias
C. Complaint
D.
Indictment
6.8.1
62. A justice of the peace shall conduct an inquest into the death of a person who dies in the
county served by the justice in each of the following cases EXCEPT :
The body of the person is found and the cause or circumstances of death are
A.
unknown
B.
the person dies in a hospital or other institution and the attending physician is able
to certify the cause of death
C. The person dies in prison or in jail
The person commits suicide or the circumstances of the death indicate that the death
D.
may have been caused by suicide
E.
All of the above are correct answers
6.9.1
63. Which of the following is NOT an objective of the Code of Criminal Procedure?
A. To adopt measures for preventing the commission of crime
B. To insure the uniform enforcement of the laws of the State of Texas
C. To insure a fair and impartial trial
To bring to the investigation of each offense on the trial all the evidence tending to
D.
produce conviction or acquittal
E.
All of the above are correct
6.1.1
64. Which of the following is NOT true regarding Art. 6.06 of the Code of Criminal Procedure,
Prevention of Injury?
It is the peace officer's duty to prevent the commission of an offense against the
A.
person or property of another, including the person or property of the spouse
B. The peace officer may summon any number of citizens of his county to his aid
The peace officer may use only that force which is necessary to prevent the
C.
commission of the offense, and no greater
D.
The officer need not protect the property of the spouse since this is community
property
E.
It is the peace officer's duty to prevent a person from injuring himself
6.4.2
65. Unless specifically stated for the offense, generally speaking, you have _______ years from
the date of commission to present a felony indictment.
A. 2
B. 3
C. 5
10
D.
6.5.1
66. R-11 6.5.1
For which of the following is there no time limit for presentation of an indictment?
A. Manslaughter
B. Burglary
C. Murder
Both murder and manslaughter have no time limit
D.
6.5.1
67. Which of the following statements is true concerning arrest without a warrant as outlined in
the Code of Criminal Procedure?
a peace officer, or anyone, may, without a warrant, arrest an offender when they
A.
commit any offense within their view or presence
B.
C.
D.
a peace officer may arrest, without warrant, a person who commits any offense
within the presence or view of a magistrate and the magistrate orders the officer to
arrest the offender
when it is shown by satisfactory proof that a person has committed a felony offense
and that the offender is about to escape, so that there is no time to obtain a warrant,
a peace officer may pursue and arrest the individual without a warrant
none of the above are true statements concerning arrest without warrant
6.6.1
68. R-12 6.5.4
A peace officer may arrest, without warrant, for which of the following?
A.
he has probable cause to believe that the individual has violated a Protective Order
and it occurs in the officers presence
B.
persons found in suspicious places under suspicious circumstances that indicate that
individual has committed a felony offense
C.
persons who the officer has probable cause to believe have committed an assault
resulting in bodily injury to another and the peace officer has probable cause to
believe that there is danger of further injury
D.
all of the above are situations where a peace officer may arrest without a warrant
6.6.1
69. Which of the following would not be a reason for the issuance of subpoena?
A. to appear before a court to testify in a criminal action
B. to appear at a habeas corpus hearing
C. at an administrative hearing
to appear before a grand jury
D.
6.8.2
70. A __________ may specify that, if a witness has in their possession, any instrument of
writing or other thing desired as evidence, such evidence must be brought by the witness
and produced in court.
A. writ
B. subpoena duces tecum
C. information
indictment
D.
6.8.2
71. A person may be fined up to $500 if they refuse to obey a subpoena in a __________ case.
A. misdemeanor
B. felony
C. civil
municipal court
D.
6.8.2
72. Which of the following statements is not correct concerning section 8.04 of the Code of
Criminal Procedure, Dispersing Riot?
it is the duty of every peace officer or magistrate to cause such persons assembled
A.
together in such a manner as to constitute a riot to disperse
B. they may only be dispersed by commanding them to do so
C. they may be dispersed by arresting the persons engaged
D.
the arrest to disperse may be made with or without a warrant
6.4.3
73. R-13 6.4.3
Those authorized to aid a peace officer in suppressing a riot may use such measures as are
necessary to suppress the riot, but are not authorized to use any greater degree of force than
is requisite to accomplish that object.
A. true
false
B.
6.4.3
74. Which of the following is not a true statement concerning Article 1, General Provisions, of
the Code of Criminal Procedure?
a defendant may, except for a capitol offense where the State intends to seek the
A.
death penalty, upon entering a plea may waive the right to a jury trial if the waiver
is made in open court and in writing
B. all prisoners shall be bailable except for capitol offenses
no warrant to search shall be issued except on probable cause supported by oath or
C.
affirmation
D.
the right to writ of habeas corpus shall not be suspended except in time of war
6.1.2
75. Which of the following would not be a Special Investigator as defined in the Code of
Criminal Procedure?
A. Special Agent of the FBI
B. Inspector of the United States Postal Service
C. Railroad Peace Officers
D.
Special Agents and Law Enforcement Officers of the U.S. Forest Service
6.2.2
76. Which of the following is a true statement concerning the official duties of a peace officer
with regards to the prevention of family violence?
the duty is waived if their is a family or household relationship between the alleged
A.
violator and the victim
B. a peace officer need not give any written notice of a victim's legal rights
a peace officer that responds to or investigates a family violence incident shall make
C.
a written report
D.
a peace officer must see a certified, original of a protective order to enforce it
6.4.1
77. A ______ is the written statement of a grand jury accusing a person therein named of some
act or omission which, by law, is declared to be an offense.
A. information
B. complaint
C. indictment
writ
D.
6.8.1
78. A ______ is the written statement filed and presented in behalf of the State by the district or
county attorney charging the defendant with an offense which may be law be so prosecuted.
A. information
B. complaint
C. indictment
writ
D.
6.8.1
79. Which of the following would not be a reason for the issuance of subpoena?
A. to appear before a court to testify in a criminal action
B. to appear at a habeas hearing
C. at an administrative hearing
D.
to appear before a grand jury
6.8.2
80. A person may be fined up to $500 if they refuse to obey a subpoena in a ______ case.
A. misdemeanor
B. felony
C. civil
municipal court
D.
6.8.2
81. Which of the following statements is correct concerning section 8.04 of the Code of
Criminal Procedure, Dispersing Riot?
it is the duty of every peace officer or magistrate to cause such persons assembled
A.
together in such a manner as to constitute a riot to disperse
B. they may only be dispersed by commanding them to do so
C. they may only be dispersed by arresting the persons engaged
D.
the arrest to disperse may be made only with a warrant
6.4.3
82. Following an arrest, an officer may only search the area of the offenders home which:
A. is in the sight of the officer
B. under the immediate control of the suspect
C. was anywhere on the property of the suspect
all of the above
D.
7.1.11
83. When an officer makes an arrest, he may make a ________ of a person for ________.
A. weapons search/safety
B. full search/anything
C. inventory survey/evidence
pat down/elements of an offense
D.
7.1.11
84. A peace officer may arrest without warrant for __________ offense(s) committed in his
presence or view.
A. felony
B. misdemeanor
C. any
civil
D.
7.1.2
85. Holding a person for a limited time, but who is not yet answerable to a criminal offense, is
an example of:
A. probable cause
B. custody
C. stop & frisk
temporary detention
D.
7.1.1
86. The landmark federal case on stop & frisk was:
A. Miranda vs. Arizona
B. Riddick vs. New York
C. Terry vs. Ohio
Aguilar vs. Texas
D.
7.7.7/7.1.9
87. Chimel vs. California involved searches of:
A. abandoned property
B. the arm's reach area near an arrestee
C. automobile glove compartments
frisks of suspicious persons
D.
7.1.11
88. Abandoned property:
A. can be held as evidence only if it's contraband
B. can be held as evidence only if directly connected to a crime
C. is always open to police as evidence
is never admissible in court
D.
7.1.13
89. No warrant is required:
A. to search a private residence
B. to search locked luggage in the trunk of a car
C. if valid consent is given to search
to search a garage attached to a residence
D.
7.1.11/7.1.13
90. Shoplifters may be arrested:
A. only by security guards
B. only by police officers
C. only by store employees
by any citizen
D.
7.1.12
91. What is the sole purpose of the frisk?
A. to protect the safety of the officer or other persons
B. to discover illegal weapons
C. to detect criminal offenses
to protect the civil rights of the person to be free from unreasonable searches
D.
7.1.7/7.1.8
92. If a peace officer develops probable cause that a criminal violation is about to occur, and
there is no time to obtain a warrant, he may:
A. call for assistance
B. contact and advise a magistrate of the situation
C. make a lawful arrest without a warrant
take no action
D.
7.1.6
93. ____________ exists if the facts and circumstances known to an officer would warrant a
prudent person in believing that an offense has been committed.
A. probable cause
B. proof beyond a reasonable doubt
C. suspicion
absolute guilt
D.
7.1.6
94. A peace officer may arrest when one family member assaults another and:
A. probable cause exists to believe there will be further bodily injury
B. a warrant has been obtained
C. the family member refuses to get involved
there are children in the home
D.
7.1.2
95. Persons found in suspicious places, and under circumstances which reasonably show that
such persons have been guilty of some felony or breech of the peace; or threaten, or are
about to commit some offense, may:
A. not be arrested without warrant
B. be arrested without a warrant
C. only be arrested with a warrant
D.
only be detained for a short period of time
7.1.2
96. Mapp vs. Ohio is the Supreme Court case that gave rise to:
A. the Exclusionary Rule
B. the Two-Prong Rule
C. the Wing-Span Rule
the Right to an Attorney during Questioning Rule
D.
7.1.14
97. Generally speaking, a peace officer can not arrest, without warrant, a:
person believed to have committed a misdemeanor offense outside the view of the
A.
officer
B.
person believed to have committed an assault resulting in bodily injury to another,
and there is danger of further violence
C. person believed to have committed the offense of "Violation of Court Order"
person believed to have committed a felony offense outside the view of the officer
D.
7.1.2
98. Probable Cause can be established through the senses of:
A. sight
B. smell
C. touch
D. hearing
E.
any of a person's senses
7.1.6
99. The Code of Criminal Procedure states that peace officers making arrests shall take the
person arrested before a magistrate:
A. immediately
B. within 24 hours
C. without unnecessary delay
prior to 8:00 am of the following day
D.
7.1.2
100. An inventory is a search of a person's car for contraband.
A. True
False
B.
7.1.13
101. A crowd develops into ____________ when all or most of its members have been instilled
with a purpose and an intent to carry out their purpose, regardless of the consequences.
[5.2.1 (B)]
A. an uprising
B. a protest
C. a mob
D. a demonstration
102. Whenever a number of persons are assembled together in such a manner as to constitute a
riot (according to the Penal Code of the State), it is the duty of every magistrate or peace
officer to cause such persons to disperse.
A. true
B. false
103. R-14 5.2.2
In addition to the other elements of the offense of riot, there must be ______ or more
participants present.
A. 5
B. 12
C. 9
D. 7
104. R-15 5.2.1
A crowd can be classified as:
A. Large
B. Small
C. Casual
D. Supportive
105. A Hazardous Material Event is one in which a hazardous material:
A. has been released into the environment
B. may be released into the environment
C. either has been or may be released into the environment
D. is being transported through a town or city
106. Which of the following is NOT a true statement concerning the effects of a hazardous
material event?
A. it may cause the loss of the use of productive land that has been contaminated
it may cause the overcrowding of hospitals and health care facilities due to the
B.
exposure to a hazardous material
C. some substances cause little harm, while some may kill instantly
it has little effect on the operations of government entities since they are prepared
D.
to respond to such events
107. Which of the following would increase the likelihood of you being exposed to hazardous
material at an event?
A. cool and clear conditions
B. heat and poor ventilation
C. warm with good ventilation
D. heat and good ventilation
108. Which of the following is NOT an objective in conducting a crime scene search?
A. Determining what crime was committed
B. Determining how the crime was committed
C. obtaining written statements from possible witnesses
D. determine the who, how, when, and why the crime was committed
109. Which of the following is the worst method of searching?
A. Point to point
B. Strip
C. Quadrant
D. circular (or spiral)
E. Area
110. The primary objective of the first officer to arrive at a crime scene is (assuming the injured
have been cared for):
A. Gather Evidence
B. Talk to witnesses
C. Protect the scene
D. Speak with the media
111. One way to insure whether you were the person who collected evidence is to:
A. Describe its appearance
B. Try to remember its appearance
C. Mark it with your initials and the case number
D. Take pictures of it
112. A statement made by the accused who is unable to write must bear his mark and the mark
must be witnessed by: (Sec V,E,2,d)
A. A person other than a peace officer
B. A peace officer
C. A Notary Public
D. Anyone can witness
113. Oral confessions are not allowed in evidence against the accused unless they meet which of
the following rules:
A. The oral statement is recorded electronically
The accused is given the "Miranda" warning during the recording, prior to making
B.
the statement
C. all voices on the recording are identified
D. All of the above are necessary if a confession is recorded
114. Generally speaking, oral statements of the accused, even if not recorded, may be used in
evidence to impeach the accused should the accused take the stand in his defense.
A. True
B. False
115. The most common method for obtaining warrants and wanted information from other
jurisdictions on the prisoner you are booking is:
A. Telephone calls to other agencies
B. The TCIC/NCIC system
C. Your own records division
D. None of the above
116. Which of the following is a reason for searching a prisoner during the booking procedure?
A. Safeguarding the prisoners personal property
B. Inmate security
C. Security of the facility
D. All of the above
117. The key to being successful in cross examination is being __________ and able to
__________ the next question.
A. Well dressed/guess
B. Rude to the defense attorney/sarcastically answer
C. Prepared/anticipate
Organized/quash
D.
33.11.2
118. Which of the following is an important rule for testifying in court?
A. never get angry on the witness stand
B. attempt to frustrate the defense attorney
C. impress the jury by answering questions using police lingo
D.
shave before going to court
33.11.5
119. Which of the following is NOT one of the goals of a criminal investigation?
A. effect a legal arrest
B. prepare the best case possible for prosecution
C. determine if a crime has been committed
D. clear the case so that the UCR statistics will indicate a high clearance rate
120. An investigator should be alert for all information that tends to ________ a suspect's
involvement in an offense.
A. prove
B. disprove
C. both prove and disprove
121. Which of the following would be a duty of an officer in conducting a preliminary
investigation?
A. protect the crime scene
B. record in field notes and with sketches all data about the crime
C. determine how the crime was committed
D. all of the above are a duty of an officer in conducting a preliminary investigation
122. One of the primary duties of an officer in the preliminary investigation is to determine
whether a crime has actually been committed?
A. true
B. false
123. Which of the following is not an element of the continuing or follow-up investigation?
A. analyze the legal significance of information n or evidence
locate and arrest the perpetrator (suspect) if this has not been done during the
B.
preliminary investigation
C. determine how the crime was committed
D. prepare the case for prosecution and confer with the prosecutors
124. A person who intentionally or knowingly alters or removes an identification number on a
motor vehicle has:
A. committed no crime
B. committed a criminal offense (Tampering With Identification Numbers)
C. committed a civil offense
D. committed a traffic offense (Altering or Tampering With a VIN)
125. Which of the following is not an accurate statement about a consent search?
A. consent to search must be voluntary
B. consent may be withdrawn at any time
C. the officer will be required to prove that consent was given and was voluntary
D.
the individual must sign a "consent to search" form
7.1.13
126. To insure ___________, a suspect must be given ___________ prior to any custodial
interrogation.
A. against law suits/a phone call
B. the right against self incrimination/the Miranda Warning
C. against any accusations of police abuse/an opportunity to see his lawyer
D. against violations of constitutional rights/a chance to plea bargain
none of the above
E.
7.1.7
127. Both search warrants and arrest warrants must be based on:
A. information from an informant
B. the officer's firsthand knowledge
C. probable cause
D. mere suspicion
none of the above
E.
7.1.3/7.1.12
128. R-16 3.3.11 D
A person who has custody, care, or control of a child younger than ______ years commits
an offense if he or she intentionally abandons the child in any place under circumstances
that expose a child to an unreasonable risk of harm.
A. 10
B. 13
C. 14
D. 15
E. 17
129. R-16 3.3.11 D
If a classroom teacher, while engaged in the performance of his duties, is threatened with
imminent bodily injury, what offense has occurred?
A. Assault (Class C)
B. Assault (3rd Degree Felony)
C. Assault (Class B)
D. Assault (Class A)
E. Disorderly Conduct (Class C)
130. R-16 3.3.11 D
Romeo gives Juliet (an adult) an aphrodisiac - a drug which stimulates sexual desires without her knowledge. Juliet is so overwhelmed that she has sexual intercourse with
Romeo even though she had always refused his advances before. Romeo may be charged
with:
A. Assault
B. Aggravated Assault
C. Sexual Assault
D. Aggravated Sexual Assault
E. No offense has occurred
131. At trial on a narcotics arrest a policeman testifies with intent to deceive and under oath that
he had a reliable informant who gave him probable cause for a search warrant. He had no
informant and the statement could have affected the outcome of the trial. The officer may
be charged with:
A. Perjury
B. Aggravated perjury
C. Official misconduct
D. Official oppression
132. B.J. pries open a window and enters Sue's home where he forces her to have intercourse
with him. There were no threats or serious injury to Sue (who did not consent). Sue is 18
years old. The most serious charge that B.J. may be charged with is:
A. Assault (3rd Degree Felony)
B. Sexual Assault
C. Aggravated Sexual Assault
D. Burglary (1st Degree Felony)
133. One who escapes from custody commits the offense of escape if he was:
A. Arrested for a felony
B. Arrested for a misdemeanor
C. Convicted of a felony
D. All of the above
E. A & C only
134. Intentional tampering with a public utility which causes interruption of services is
punishable as a:
A. Class C misdemeanor
B. Class B misdemeanor
C. 3rd Degree felony
D. 2nd Degree felony
E. Class A misdemeanor
135. Jacko is wacko and likes to see the emergency lights of police cars and fire trucks
responding to emergencies in progress. Knowing this, he intentionally calls the fire station
and reports a fire. Jacko is guilty of:
A. False Alarm or Report
B. Harassment
C. Interference with Emergency Communications
D. No offense has occurred - that's what firemen get paid for
136. Which of the following is not one of the prepatory offenses?
A. Criminal attempt
B. Criminal conspiracy
C. Criminal responsibility
D. Criminal solicitation
137. Rod walks into the "Friendly Tavern" (premise licensed to sell alcoholic beverages) with a
10" Bowie knife strapped to his side. Rod is not a peace officer or a member of the
military. Rod should be charged with:
A. Possession of Prohibited Weapon
B. Place's Weapon Prohibited
C. Unlawful Carrying Weapon (Class A Misdemeanor)
D. Unlawful Carrying Weapon (3rd Degree Felony)
E. None of the above
138. __________ means the commission of two or more offenses regardless of whether the
harm is directed toward or inflicted upon more than one person or item of property.
A. Criminal episode
B. Criminal conspiracy
C. Causation
D. Criminal responsibility
139. A person commits arson if they start a fire or explosion with the intent to destroy or
damage a ______, ______, or _______.
A. habitation, property, livestock
B. building, structure, or property
C. habitation, building, vehicle
D. house, office, animal
140. John Holmes enters a residence without the effective consent of the owner to steal $75
worth of X-Rated video cassettes. What offense has Holmes committed?
A. Burglary (1st degree felony)
B. Burglary (2nd degree felony)
C. Theft (Class A)
D. Criminal Trespass (Class A)
141. Dirty Don, an adult, compels Betty, the baby sitter, to submit to sexual intercourse by
threatening the Baby's life. Betty is 16, unmarried, and a virgin. Dirty Don may be charged
with:
A. Assault
B. Sexual Assault
C. Aggravated Sexual Assault
D. Desecration of a Venerated Object
142. Granny kicks the dog catcher in the shins because he testified against her in court for
violation of the city's leash law. The most serious offense Granny may be charged with:
A. Assault (Class C)
B. Assault (Class A)
C. Retaliation
D. Hindering Proceedings of Court
143. Property means:
A. Real property
B. Tangible or intangible personal property, including anything severed from land
C. A document, including money, that represents or embodies anything of value
D. All of the above
144. A person has committed the offense of _________ if he intentionally causes bodily injury
to a person he knows is a peace officer who is effecting an arrest or search.
A. Assault
B. Hindering Apprehension
C. Resisting Arrest or Search
D. Escape
145. Which of the following is not an objective of the Penal Code?
Guide and limit the exercise of official discretion in law enforcement to prevent
A.
arbitrary or oppressive treatment of persons
B. Insure the public safety
C. Safeguard conduct that is without guilt from condemnation as criminal
To bar, suspend, or otherwise affect a right or liability to damages, authorized by
D.
law to be recovered in a civil suit for conduct defined as an offense
146. When one "ought to be aware" of an unjustifiable risk and fails to perceive such risk, his
mental state is best described as:
A. Intentional
B. Knowingly
C. Recklessly
D. Criminal Negligence
E. None of the above
147. Physical pain, illness, or any impairment of physical condition is the definition of which of
the following terms? (According to section 1.07 of the Texas Penal Code)
A. Serious bodily harm
B. Injury
C. Physical injury
D. Bodily injury
E. Assault
148. An employee of a business steals, over a two week period, a watch worth $150, a TV
worth $450, and assorted clothing worth $350. Which grade of theft would he be charged
with?
A. Misdemeanor (Class B)
B. Misdemeanor (Class A)
C. Felony (3rd Degree)
D. Felony (2nd Degree)
149. If the pecuniary loss due to damage is less than $20, or causes substantial inconvenience to
others, the offense is:
A. Criminal Mischief (Class C)
B. Theft (Class C)
C. Theft (Class B)
D. Criminal Mischief (Class B)
150. A person commits an offense if, with intent to prevent or disrupt a lawful meeting, he
obstructs or interferes with the meeting by physical action or verbal utterance. What
offense has been committed?
A. Riot
B. Disorderly Conduct
C. Obstructing Public Thoroughfare, Passageway, etc.
D. Disrupting Meeting or Procession
E. None of the above are correct
151. Which of the following offenses is punishable by the death penalty?
While operating a motor vehicle under the influence of intoxicating substances, a
A.
person causes the death another person
B.
A person is negligent in operating a motor vehicle and as a result of this negligence
causes the death of an individual
C.
A person intentionally kills another human being in the heat of sudden passion due
to an adequate cause
D. A person pays another person to kill a business partner
152. Vic, a local salesman, refuses to leave a business after being informed to leave by the
owner. What offense has Vic committed?
A. Criminal Trespass (Class A Misdemeanor)
B. Criminal Trespass (Class B Misdemeanor)
C. Disorderly Conduct (Class C Misdemeanor)
D. Fail to Obey a Lawful Order
E. No offense has been committed
153. R-17 3.3.16 B
Rocky J. Squirrel goes into a dressing room of a department store, puts a sweater on
underneath his coat, and walks out without paying for the sweater. What offense has
occurred?
A. Burglary
B. Robbery
C. Shoplifting
D. Theft
154. It is a defense to prosecution that the actor through mistake formed a reasonable belief
about a matter of fact if his mistaken belief negated the kind of culpability required for
commission of the offense. This is:
A. Mistake of Fact
B. Mistake of Law
C. Insanity
D. Duress
E. Intoxication
155. The offense of unlawfully carrying a weapon on any premises licenses or issued a permit
by this State for the sale of service of alcoholic beverage is a:
A. 1st degree felony
B. 2nd degree felony
C. 3rd degree felony
D. Class A misdemeanor
156. If, without the effective consent of the owner, one remains concealed in a business after
closing hours and burglarizes the coin machines therein for $85 in coins, what is the
highest offense he is guilty of?
A. Burglary (State Jail Felony)
B. Burglary of coin-operated machines
C. Burglary (2nd Degree Felony)
D. Theft (Class B)
157. A person commits what offense if he intentionally or knowingly leaves a motel without
paying his bill of $65.00.
A. Theft
B. Robbery
C. Theft of service
D. No offense, the motel will send a bill
158. Cadet Jones did not study for his Penal Code test. In order to gain more time for study, he
calls the Academy office and states "a bomb will go off there in 20 minutes". Cadet Jones
may be charged with:
A. Reckless Conduct
B. False Report to Peace Officer
C. Disorderly Conduct: Hindering Proceedings
D. Hoax Bomb
E. Terroristic Threat
159. A vehicle is legally parked if it is ____ inches from the curb.
A. 6
B. 12
C. 18
24
D.
9.1.13
160. If a person has a current Texas drivers license but does not display it to a Peace Officer
upon demand he is guilty of what offense.
A. Fail to identify
B. Fail to display drivers license
C. Fail to obey a lawful order
D.
No drivers license
9.1.7
161. On a two way roadway, no vehicle shall be driven on the left side of the roadway, between
_____ feet of an intersection, bridge, or tunnel in an incorporated city.
A. 100
B. 300
C. 500
1500
D.
9.1.9
162. A buyers temporary cardboard license is valid for ______ days.
A. 10 days
B. 20 days
C. 21 days
30 days
D.
9.1.25
163. A person who is a resident of Texas may be arrested and transported to jail for traffic
offense of speeding only.
A. True
B.
False
9.1.20
164. R-18 2.2.20
Whenever the Department of Public Safety issues an original drivers license to a person
under 18 years of age, the license shall be designated and clearly marked:
A. classified drivers license
B. restricted drivers license
C. provisional drivers license
D.
minors drivers license
9.1.7
165. R-18 2.2.20
Which of the following persons may not be issued any type of a driver's license in the State
of Texas?
A. Any person who is under the age of 15 years
Any person, as a class A or class B driver, who is under 21 years of age unless he
B.
has completed the approved training program
C.
D.
A class C driver who will be operating a two-axle vehicle with a gross weight that
does not exceed 24,000 pounds
None of the above responds to the question since all of the above may be issued a
driver's license.
9.1.7
166. No more than ________ driving lamps may be lighted at any one time while the vehicle is
in operation.
A. 4
B. 6
C. 2
D.
5
9.1.17
167. The boundary lines of a highway are:
The entire width between the boundary lines publicly maintained when any part is
A.
used for vehicular travel
B. The improved portion used for vehicular travel only
C. From shoulder to shoulder
D. Both A & B
E.
None of the above
9.1.3
168. A driver may cross a solid yellow stripe to overtake and pass another vehicle proceeding in
the same direction when:
there is 500 feet or more distance between the drivers vehicle and any vehicles
A.
proceeding in the opposite direction
B. it is safe to do so
C. there is no other traffic visible proceeding in the opposite direction
a driver may not cross a solid yellow line to overtake and pass another vehicle
D.
proceeding in the same direction
9.1.9
169. ____________ means every vehicle which is self-propelled and every vehicle which is
propelled by electric power obtained from overhead trolley wires, but not operated on rails.
A. vehicle
B. motor vehicle
C. motorcycle
D. car
automobile
E.
9.1.1
170. No vehicle may overtake to the left if such movement causes the vehicle to come within
200 feet of oncoming traffic.
A. True
False
B.
9.1.9
171. A police officer is exempt from certain traffic laws without the use of emergency
equipment under which of the following conditions?
knowledge of his presence will cause the suspect to destroy or loose evidence of a
A.
suspected felony
B. the suspect might flee
that there might be a greater potential for collision on a multi lane roadway with
C.
the use of emergency equipment
D.
all of the above
9.1.16
172. A vehicle is stopped for a traffic offense and the driver fails to display proof of liability
insurance. The correct arrest title is
A. no liability insurance
B. fail to display proof of liability insurance
C. fail to obtain financial responsibility
this is not represent a traffic offense
D.
9.1.26
173. An officer may issue a notice to appear for Class C misdemeanor in the Transportation
Code..
A. True
False
B.
9.1.20
174. __________ means every device in, upon, or by which any person or property is or may be
transported or drawn upon a highway, except devices used exclusively upon stationary
rails or tracks.
A. Automobile
B. Motor vehicle
C. Vehicle
D.
Passenger car
9.1.1
175. Fleeing from a police officer using a motor vehicle is a ________________ offense.
A. Class B Misdemeanor
B. Class A Misdemeanor
C. State Jail Felony
Class C Misdemeanor
D.
9.1.15
176. What is the youngest age at which a hardship license may be issued in the State of Texas?
A. 12
B. 15
C. 16
21
D.
9.1.7
177. Under which of the following conditions may a person drive a vehicle over an unprotected
fire hose laid down on a street to be used at a fire?
A. No person may ever cross any such fire hose.
B. Only to enter the private driveway of one's own residence.
C. Only with the permission of the fire department official in charge.
Only with the permission of the police officer directing traffic at such fire
D.
emergency
E.
None of the above
9.1.15
178. An emergency vehicle may exceed the speed limit even to the extent that it may endanger
other persons.
A. True
False
B.
9.1.16
179. In-Transit license plates may be used:
A. When a dealer is moving the vehicle
B. When road testing
C. When the vehicle is sold; for 20 days
D. Both A & B only
Both A & C only
E.
9.1.25
180. Children under ________ of age are required to be in safety seats.
A. 1 year
B. 2 years
C. 4 years
D.
5 years
9.1.15
181. A person that operates a motor vehicle on a public roadway which is not currently
registered is guilty of what offense?
A. Operating illegal motor vehicle
B. Operating unregistered motor vehicle
C. Display wrong license plate
None of the above
D.
9.1.25
182. Which of the following circumstances require that a driver not stop at a railroad grade
crossing?
an approaching train is plainly visible and is in hazardous proximity to such
A.
crossing
B.
a clearly visible electric or mechanical device gives warning of the immediate
approach of a train
C.
a crossing gate is lowered, or when a human flag men gives or continues to give a
signal of the approach or passage of a train
D.
E.
a railroad engine approaching within a approximately fifteen (1500) feet of the of
the highway crossing emits a signal audible from such distance and by reason of its
speed or nearness to such crossing is an immediate hazard
a police officer or a traffic-control signal directs traffic to proceed
9.1.12
183. A driver must upon the approach of an emergency vehicle that is using its emergency light
and siren :
A. Pull over to the right edge of the roadway and stop
B. Pull over to the left edge of the roadway and stop
C. Pull over to either side and allow the emergency vehicle to pass
D.
All of the above
9.1.11
184. What is the minimum distance permissible for any person other than an authorized
emergency vehicle to follow a fire apparatus responding to an emergency or to follow an
ambulance when it is flashing red lights are operating?
A. 100 feet
B. 200 feet
C. 300 feet
D. 400 feet
E.
500 feet
9.1.15
185. R-19 TX P/O
Which of the following is not true regarding passing another vehicle on the highway?
A.
Upon approaching a vehicle proceeding in the same direction of travel, the driver
of such a passing vehicle is required to pass to the left of the vehicle being
overtaken.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Passing another vehicle on the right is permitted when the overtaken vehicle is
making or about to make a left turn, providing that the pass can be made on the
roadway or on an improved shoulder with safety.
On a one-way roadway, a pass on the right is permitted in each circumstance when
the roadway is free from obstructions and is wide enough for two or more lanes of
moving traffic.
While making a pass, a vehicle is permitted to exceed the maximum posted speed
limit in order to comply with the rule which states that a passes must be completed
by allowing 200 feet for vehicles approaching from the opposite direction.
None of the above
9.1.9
186. R-19 TX P/O
Which of the following conditions does not justify operating a motor vehicle on an
improved shoulder of the roadway?
A.
Under normal conditions, the driver wishes to use the improved shoulder as a
clearly marked lane of traffic.
B. To accelerate prior to entering the main-traveled lane of traffic
C. To decelerate prior to making a right turn
D.
To overtake and pass another vehicle that is slow or stopped on the main-traveled
portion of the highway, that is disabled, or that is preparing to make a left turn
E.
None of the above
9.1.9
187. R-19 TX P/O
Under which of the following circumstances is a vehicle permitted to drive to the left of the
roadway?
A.
When approaching within 100 feet of or traversing any intersection or railroad
grade crossing
B. To avoid a collision
C. When waiting access to a ferry
D. When approaching within 100 feet of a bridge
E.
None of the above
9.1.9
188. R-19 TX P/O
Which of the following is true?
A.
Traffic laws apply to persons riding bicycles with the exception of those provisions
of the Transportation Code that by their nature cannot apply.
B.
While being operated on a public street, a bicycle is required to move on the left
side of the road facing traffic
C. The rider of a bicycle may carry a passenger on the handlebars.
D. Bicycle riders may never ride two abreast on a public roadway.
None of the above
E.
9.1.18
189. R-19 TX P/O
A steady yellow light is:
A. a warning alerting the driver to proceed cautiously.
a warning to the vehicular traffic that the related green movement is being
B.
terminated and that a red light will soon be exhibited.
C.
an indication that the driver must bring the vehicle to a full stop before entering the
crosswalk on the near side of the intersection.
D. a warning that the driver may not enter the intersection.
none of the above.
E.
9.1.8
190. R-19 TX P/O
A flashing red signal is:
A. a stop sign.
B. a warning, or caution, signal alerting the driver to proceed with caution.
C. not an official traffic control device in the state of Texas.
none of the above.
D.
9.1.8
191. Which of the following is not a violation of the Transportation Code?
A. Failure to drive in a single-lane of traffic
Failure to allow sufficient space between vehicles for passing when proceeding in
B.
a funeral procession
C. Illegal right turn-wide right
D. Illegal left turn-failure to yield to oncoming traffic
E.
None of the above
9.1.9
192. R-20 TX P?O
Which of the following vehicles does not have a burden to yield the right-of-way?
A.
The driver of a vehicle approaching the intersection of a street or roadway from a
roadway that terminates at the intersection not otherwise regulated
B.
The driver of a vehicle proceeding on an access or feeder road of a controlledaccess highway
C.
The driver of a vehicle intending to turn left within an intersection or into an alley,
private road, or driveway
D.
The driver of a vehicle intending to proceed straight through an intersection on a
through highway without turning
E.
None of the above
9.1.11
193. A Class _________license is required to operate a motorcycle.
A. C
B. G
C. A
M
D.
9.1.7
194. No pedestrian shall start to cross the roadway in the direction of such pedestrian control
signal when the signal displays:
A. don't walk
B. walk
C. wait
either don't walk or wait
D.
9.1.19
195. The maximum allowable speed on a public beach is ______ mph.
A. 15
B. 20
C. 25
D. 30
there are no restrictions on speed on a public beach
E.
9.1.14
196. FINAL POSITION is where a vehicle or body comes to rest after a collision.
A. True
B. False
197. The five injury codes on the Texas Peace Officers Accident report are K A B C & O.
A. True
B. False
198. The duty/(or duties) of a driver upon being involved in a traffic accident is/are:
A. stop
B. render aid
C. identify themselves
D. all of the above
E. A & B only
199. At an accident scene, an officer must keep the unqualified from giving first aid.
A. True
B. False
200. The first responsibility of an officer at an accident scene is to:
A. Care for the injured.
B. Determine who was at fault
C. Rope off the accident scene
D. Issue citations to anyone committing a traffic offense
201. The investigating officer need only get witness statements to investigate an accident, as
there is no need to search for evidence.
A. True
B. False
202. The objective of taking measurements at an accident scene is to relocate the position of
certain items at a later time.
A. True
B. False
203. The investigator of a traffic accident should put his opinion on all paperwork during an
investigation.
A. True
B. False
204. Speed computations from skid marks show the vehicle's ________.
A. Maximum speed
B. Minimum speed
C. Average speed
D. Are unreliable and should not be used in accident investigations
205. The driver of a vehicle involved in an accident not investigated by a law enforcement
officer which results in the injury or death of an individual, or more than $500 damage to
property, must report such accident to the Department of Public Safety within:
A. 24 Hours
B. 5 Days
C. 10 Days
D. 30 Days
206. It is not important to note the operating status of any traffic control device during a traffic
accident investigation. [3.15.3 (I)]
A. True
B. False
207. One reason for recording the angle of line-of-sight of vehicles is that it can be used to
prove or disprove driver's statements. [3.15.3 (G)]
A. True
B. False
208. It is not necessary to note road conditions when investigating an accident scene. [3.15.3
(H)]
A. True
B. False
209. R-21 TX P/O
When using a whistle to stop traffic, the officer should use how many blast(s) of the
whistle?
A. One long
B. Two short
C. Three short
D. Four long
210. R-21 TX P/O
The type of vehicular circulation that is given priority right-of-way is:
A. the heaviest flow of traffic
B. trucks and buses
C. emergency vehicles
D. none of the above
211. The County Court could receive appeals from persons who had previously had their case
tried in the __________?
A. Supreme Court
B. District Court
C. Justice of the Peace
D. Community
212. The Act of Sexual Harassment is best described in the Texas Penal Code as:
A. Abuse of Official Capacity
B. Official Oppression
C. A nuisance to employees
D. A lack of respect for women
213. R-22 10.2.4
The maximum dollar amount of jurisdiction for a Justice Court in a Civil Case would be:
A. $750.00
B. $1000.00
C. $5000.00
D. $100.00
214. R-22 10.2.4
We can always state that the proper court to hear the complaints of a Divorce would be:
A. Justice Court
B. County Court
C. District Court
D. Court of Criminal Appeals
215. R-22 10.2.4
A citizen has ask you to advise them of which court would always conduct proceedings
concerning child custody. The proper court would be:
A. District Court
B. Justice Court
C. Court of Criminal Appeals
D. County court
216. R-22 10.2.4
There is a Lawsuit to Contest an election of a political figure. The proper court jurisdiction
will be in the __________ Court.
A. District
B. County
C. Justice of the Peace
D. County Commissioner
217. The term "WRIT" as used by the Civil Courts is best described as: A written order directed
to the Sheriff/Constable to perform some act on behalf of the Court and give them the
authority to perform that act.
A. True
B. False
218. R-23 10.3.2
A Subpoena Duces Tecum is a subpoena to a witness that directs them to:
A. Remain on standby at home
B. Report to the Court, but will not testify
C. Pay the Court Cost of the Suit
D. To come to court as a witness and bring some physical evidence with them
219. R-23 10.3.2
The term Separate Property would best be described as the property of:
A. A corporation
B. A single adult
C. A family
D. a plaintiff's attorney
220. R-23 10.3.2
Our land with all improvements is known as REAL PROPERTY. We could then state that
all our other property would be known as:
A. Corporation Property
B. State Property
C. Personal Property
D. Income Property
221. R-23 10.3.2
A Writ of Sequestration would correctly order the Sheriff/Constable to:
A.
Seize certain personal property from the Defendant and hold awaiting further
orders of the Court
B. Sell certain personal property
Seize certain personal property from the defendant and allow the defendant or the
C.
plaintiff to REPLEVY the property
D. A and C are the correct answers
222. A Forcible Entry and Detainer lawsuit is the responsibility of the Justice of the Peace Court
in the precinct where the property is located.
A. True
B. False
223. A Writ of Possession has been directed to the Sheriff/Constable to restore the premises to
the Landlord. The Sheriff/Constable may now:
A. Set all the property outside while it is raining
B. Give the tenants ample time to move after serving the notice
C. Have a Warehouseman move and store the property of the tenant
D. B & C are both correct
224. A victim of Family Violence is seeking relief and protection. She asks you which of the
following court documents will give her long term protection and a penal violation for
disobedience of the order. You shall select ___________ as the best for her needs.
A. Citation
B. Injunction (Temporary Restraining Order)
C. Protective Order
D. Ex-Parted Protective Order
225. The ___________ has the responsibility for removing ESTRAYS from the public
roadway:
A. Sheriff
B. Constable
C. County Commissioner
D. Court Bailiff
226. R-24 10.5.1
A Magistrate's Order for emergency protection is available to the victim of Family
Violence after arrest of the suspect. It is valid for a period of ___ days after issue.
A. 365
B. 90
C. 210
D. 31
227. A Citation if the First Legal Notice of a lawsuit. That is the reason that a Citation cannot
legally be served on a ______?
A. Legal Holiday
B. Saturday or Sunday
C. Sunday
D. National Holiday
228. R-25 10.1.2
Sheriffs and Constables are also known as:
A. Peace Officers
B. Elected Officials
C. All Males
D. A & B are correct
229. You may distinguish a Criminal Law from a Civil Law by finding that Criminal Laws have
a punishment described in the:
A. Rules of Court
B. Family Court
C. Penal Court
D. Property Court
230. Some acceptable methods of serving a defendant with a Citation and the Petition are
______ ?
A. In person
B. Registered/Certified Mail
C. By publication in a local newspaper
D. All of the above
231. A ____________ is any drug or device that is not included in schedules I thru V of the
Texas Controlled Substance Act and that is unsafe for self-medication.
A. Dangerous drug
B. Amphetamine
C. Barbiturate
D. Controlled substance
232. The penalty for the manufacture or delivery of a dangerous drug is a ____________.
A. state jail felony
B. 3rd degree felony
C. 2nd degree felony
D. capitol felony
233. It is a ____________ to sell drug paraphernalia to a person younger than 18 years of age
and who is at least 3 years younger than the actor.
A. state jail felony
B. 3rd degree felony
C. 2nd degree felony
D. capitol felony
234. If you discover a laboratory, you should handle it yourself and remove it before calling for
assistance.
A. True
B. False
235. In the Texas Health and Safety code, to deliver a Dangerous Drug includes:
A. to sell
B. dispense or give away
C. supply in any other way
D. all of the above
E. none of the above
236. Which of the following is a common symptom of abuse of a drug
A. redness to the inside of the hands and bloodshot eyes
B. nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea
C. skin rash and loss of hair
D. there are no physical symptoms of an abuser
237. It is a defense to prosecution if a person, who is not authorized by law to, manufacture an
illegal drug and the sole intent of manufacture was for personal consumption
A. True
B. False
238. The most commonly abused illegal substance is:
A. heroin
B. marijuana
C. cocaine
D. opium
239. Delivery of marijuana is punishable as a state jail felony if the amount delivered is ______
or less but more than _____.
A. 2,000/50
B. 50/5
C. 5/one-fourth
D. there is no minimum or maximum amount
240. Which of the following statements is true concerning the offense of Possession of
Marihuana?
A. it must be a usable quantity of marihuana
the offense is considered moral turpitude if it falls under the penalty range of a
B.
state jail felony or misdemeanor
C. it is a state jail felony if you possess more than 2,000 pounds of marihuana
D. seeds are considered a usable quantity for purposes of possession
241. A license or permit is valid for a period of ___________ from the date issued.
A. 2 years
B. 1 year
C. 6 months
D. 5 years
242. A minor, as defined by the Texas Alcoholic Beverage Code, is a person under _______
years of age.
A. 14
B. 17
C. 19
D. 21
243. Possession of more than _________ of liquor in a dry area is prima facie evidence that it is
possessed with intent to sell.
A. a gallon
B. one-half gallon
C. a quart
D. a pint
244. A law enforcement officer may take possession of a child without a court order under any
circumstances.
A. True
False
B.
13.2.13
245. Child means a person who is ______years of age or older and under ______years of age.
A. 5, l2
B. l4, 2l
C. l0, l7
l5, 2l
D.
13.2.2
246. Delinquent Conduct is conduct, including traffic offenses, that violates the Penal Laws of
this State.
A. True
False
B.
13.2.3
247. A child may be held in a jail with adults arrested for or charged with a crime if no separate
juvenile facility is available.
A. True
False
B.
13.2.5
248. R-26 3.4.6
A child can be detained in which of the following areas:
A. in a jail with adults
B. a holding facility with adults
C. a holding area certified by the Texas Juvenile Probation Commission
none of the above
D.
13.2.5
249. A child may be taken into custody by a probation officer if reasonable grounds exist for
him to believe the child has violated a condition of probation.
A. True
False
B.
13.2.7
250. The warning notice for a child must identify:
A. The child
B. His alleged conduct
C. All of the above
None of the above
D.
13.2.7
251. Title 3 Delinquent Children and Children in Need of Supervision The Family Code) was
enacted for the following purpose:
A. To allow parents to discipline their children
B. Control the Commission of unlawful acts by children
C. Require mandatory attendance at public schools
D.
None of the above
13.2.1
252. __________ required to report child abuse.
A. Only peace officers are
Representatives of the Texas Dept. of Human Resources or Juvenile Probation
B.
officers are
C. Both A & B are
Persons having cause to believe child abuse is, or has, occurred are
D.
13.2.11
253. Persons reporting child abuse pursuant to Chapter 34 of the Family Code are:
A. Not immune from civil liability
B. Immune from all civil liability
Immune from civil liability that might otherwise be incurred or imposed, unless
C.
they are reporting in bad faith or malice
D.
Partially immune from any civil liability
13.2.11
254. Which of the following may take possession of a child without a court order (assuming the
conditions necessary for such are there)?
A. A peace officer
B. A representative of the Department of Human Resources
C. A juvenile probation officer
All of the above may do so
D.
13.2.13
255. Which of the following statements is not true?
A. a significant number of U.S. workers abuse alcohol and drugs
B. workers abuse alcohol and drugs on and off the job
alcohol and drug abuse endangers the health and safety of workers, coworkers, and
C.
the public
D. law enforcement is immune to alcohol and drug abuse
256. R-27 14.2.1
Alcohol and drug abuse has had the following effect on law enforcement:
A. reduced job performance
B. absenteeism
C. abuse of sick leave
D. all of the above
257. Which of the following is not one of the four (4) common forms of reports? [3.16.4]
A. Incident
B. Offense
C. Supplemental
D. Statistical Data
258. Notes in the field should contain only police related information. [3.16.1]
A. True
B. False
259. Name and address are the only complainant information needed for a police report. [3.16.3
(A)]
A. True
B. False
260. When taking notes you should alternate between __________ [3.16.3 (B)]
A. Listening & writing
B. Sentences & paragraphs
C. Radio messages & the complainant
D. All of the above
261. Accuracy is an essential characteristic of good report writing. [3.16.4 (B)]
A. True
B. False
262. Which of the following is the most common type of resistance encountered by law
enforcement officers?
A. passive resistance
B. hit/kicked
C. weapon
D. pull away
263. Which of the following moral considerations or forces is most likely to have the greatest
influence on an officers' decision to use deadly force?
A. the law (both statutory and case)
B. the informal organization
C. departmental policy
D. the individual's conscience
264. Which of the following statements is true concerning the psychological aspects of the use
of force?
A. The police role is primarily offensive in nature in a physical arrest.
B. Self-control results from confidence in one's skills through practice and training.
C. Control is a "one-way street" where only the suspect needs to be controlled.
D.
The officer being in control of his emotions has no influence on his ability to
control a suspect.
265. Which of the following is not a true statement concerning a professional police officers use
of force?
A. know when to move from words to force
B. know when to return to words once a threat is over
C. have the ability to evaluate personnel performance
D. none of the above; all are true statements
266. Which of the following is the most common type of resistance encountered by law
enforcement officers?
A. passive resistance
B. hitting/kicking
C. weapon
D. pulling away
267. Which of the following moral considerations or forces is most likely to have the greatest
influence on an officer's decision to use deadly force?
A. the law (both statutory and case)
B. the informal organization
C. departmental policy
D. the individual's conscience and values
268. The Texas Disaster Act requires that all requests for assistance be channeled through the
proper civil authority to the ____________ via the _____________.
A. Mayor/Police Department
B. Governor/Department of Public Safety
C. City Council/Chief of Police
D. President/Sheriff
269. Which of the following is important to problem solving?
A. it is an important element of professionalism
B. it distinguishes you from a functional bureaucrat
C. both of the above are important to problem solving
270. Which of the following is not a reason for errors in reasoning?
A. sloppy and inaccurate information collection
B. using a systematic step-by-step approach to the problem
C. failing to spell out relationships fully
D. not observing and using all relevant facts of a problem
271. ____________________ is an organized and relatively unchanging combination of a
person's knowledge and feelings about someone or something that influences him to
behave in a certain way in regard to that person or things.
A. Prejudice
B. Role
C. Attitude
Conviction
D.
25.1.1
272. R-28 3.10.1
____________________ refers to those negative attitudes developed by the mistake of
judging another person by his appearance, age, race, religion, nationality, etc.; by rumors
or by the actions of other individuals of the same group.
A. Bigotry
B. Human Relations
C. Prejudice
Attitude
D.
25.1.1
273. Which of the following is NOT correct?
A. People are influenced by abundant prejudices
B. Peace Officers should be impartial authorities
C. Peace Officers are the product of the same social experience as everybody else
Prejudice is not based on religion
D.
25.1.1
274. Which of the following is NOT an attitude or feeling usually harbored by a prejudice
person?
A. Propriety claims
B. Fear
C. Minorities are people too
Feeling of superiority
D.
25.1.1
275. A police officer should let his private attitudes influence his official decisions.
A. True
False
B.
25.1.3
276. The act of regarding one's culture as the center of the universe is known as;
A. discrimination
B. prejudice
C. ethnocentrism
ethnicity
D.
25.1.1
277. ______________ have some kind of prejudice.
A. Only peace officers
B. Only certain ethnic groups
C. Only white individuals
All of us
D.
25.1.2
278. The function of prejudice that provides an outlet for projecting one's tensions and
frustrations onto other people.
A. scapegoat
B. projection
C. ethnocentrism
societal strain
D.
25.1.1
279. Which of the following statements is not true concerning the historical development of the
police models or styles of the 1900 - 1940's era.
Law enforcement officers were usually known by the citizens in the areas in which
A.
they worked
B.
the assignment of officers from walking beats to motorized (radio) units brought
the officers and community closer together
C. there was no real quality evaluation of services thru this period
D. automobiles allowed a more rapid response to calls for service
280. Which of the following statements is true concerning the historical development of police
models or styles of the l950 - 1970's era. (2.1.1)
the patrol system became a pro-active rather than incident driven approach for
A.
police response
B.
the professional model, with its emphasis on accountability and standards,
developed and became the dominant style of policing
C. the use of automobiles had little or no affect on response to calls for service
D. the emphasis on follow-up activities shifted from specialized units to patrol
281. of the following is not one of the objectives of patrol?
A. to preserve the peace
B. to suppress crime by timely response
C. to apprehend suspects
D. to regulate non-criminal conduct through good officer-citizen relationships.
E. all of the above are objectives of patrol
282. Which of the following is not a true statement concerning the various hazards encountered
while on patrol?
back-up units should secure their headlights, overheads, etc. so as not to silhouette
A.
other officers
B.
you should attempt to select your location for a vehicle stop to reduce or prevent
silhouetting
C.
Officers should peer through open windows or stand in doorways to see potential
threats
D. hold your flashlight in front of and away from your body
283. Which of the following statements is not true concerning the distinctive sounds of a police
officer and his location?
your keys, baton, and other equipment on your belt might alert someone to your
A.
presence
B. you should not park to close to a scene to minimize the engine noise
C. slamming your unit door can alert someone
D. you should turn all radios off in order to eliminate that source of noise
284. If a suspect has his hands in his pockets, you should:
A. have him remove them
B. not allow him to remove them
C. find cover and do a felony suspect take down
do nothing - it does not make any difference
D.
27.2.
285. Which of the following is not true concerning one-officer patrol?
A. one-officer alone takes more chances
B. preventive enforcement is doubled by having twice as many vehicles on patrol
C. one-officer devotes more attention to patrol functions
D. an officer alone develops self-reliance
286. Which of the following is not a true statement concerning two-officer patrol?
A. one can operate the radio while the other drives
B. provides less of a safety factor due to lack of attention
C. it can be used as a training aid to correct officers mistakes
D. they can share driving duties
287. The Field Interview is not used:
A. to learn about people
B. as a good source for information
C. to determine which patrol make (or type) to use
288. Which of the following is not a formal method used by law enforcement agencies to
enhance public service?
A. questionnaire's
B. non-punitive interactions with the public (talking to people)
C. medical solicitation
D. prepared questions when addressing civic groups
289. R-29 27.5.1
Remarks made by the officer should be in the form of a statement rather than a question.
A. True
B. False
290. R-29 27.5.1
An officer should practice the technique of refraining from using the word _______ during
the violator interview.
A. I
B. You
C. We
D. Us
291. R-29 27.5.1
In order to create a real expression of friendliness, the officer should give the subject a
reason to feel sorry for giving him the citation.
A. True
B. False
292. Which of the following is not one of the basic elements or types of responses exhibited by
victims of crime?
A. fear
B. violation
C. denial
D. hope
293. Which of the following is NOT one of the stages of grief that victims experience?
A. shock
B. guilt
C. vulnerability
D. depression or loneliness
294. In discussing how intensely a victim reacts to an incident, which of the following would
NOT be a factor?
A. the victim and his/her background (age, gender, etc.)
B. the culture of the victim
C. the type of crime
D. whether the response of the police was timely
295. Family violence is a crime and should be treated as one. When probable cause is present,
the officer's role is to:
A. not make an arrest if the victim spouse asks the officer not to do so
B. attempt mediation to try to calm the situation so arrest is not necessary
C. ask that one party leave for the night so potential conflict is reduced
D. make the arrest
296. Family violence statistics indicate that:
A. wife beating usually only results in minor injuries not requiring medical treatment
about one-third (30%) of murdered women are killed by their husbands or
B.
boyfriends
C. victims leave an average of six times before they leave for good
in approximately two-thirds (60%) of homes with spouse abuse, children are
D.
beaten as well
E. answers b, c, and d are all correct
297. Which of the following is true?
A. violent incidents generally only occur once
B. batterers probably grew up in homes where they were abused or witnessed abuse
C. the parties eventually work things out and the violence disappears over time
D. after a violent incident, batterers usually blame themselves
298. When an assault occurs without negative consequences for the batterer, he:
A. eventually surrender himself to local authorities
B. usually sees he has a behavioral problem and seeks help
realizes that in Texas the law permits a husband to discipline a wife with unruly
C.
behavior
D. finds it easy to deny to himself and others that he did anything wrong
299. A mentally retarded person may sometimes be recognized by:
A. Physical impairment
B. Inappropriate clothing
C. Slowness in speech or slurred speech
D. All of the above
E. None of the above
300. The mentally retarded are always mentally ill.
A. True
B. False
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1. Following an arrest, an officer may only search the area of the offenders home which:
A. is in the sight of the officer
B. under the immediate control of the suspect
C. was anywhere on the property of the suspect
D. all of the above
2. When an officer makes an arrest, he may make a ________ of a person for ________.
A. weapons search/safety
B. full search/anything
C. inventory survey/evidence
D. pat down/elements of an offense
3. A peace officer may arrest without warrant for __________ offense(s) committed in his
presence or view.
A. felony
B. misdemeanor
C. any
D. civil
4. Holding a person for a limited time, but who is not yet answerable to a criminal offense, is an
example of:
A. probable cause
B. custody
C. stop & frisk
D. temporary detention
5. The landmark federal case on stop & frisk was:
A. Miranda vs. Arizona
B. Riddick vs. New York
C. Terry vs. Ohio
D. Aguilar vs. Texas
6. Chimel vs. California involved searches of:
A. abandoned property
B. the arm's reach area near an arrestee
C. automobile glove compartments
D. frisks of suspicious persons
7. Abandoned property:
A. can be held as evidence only if it's contraband
B. can be held as evidence only if directly connected to a crime
C. is always open to police as evidence
D. is never admissible in court
8. No warrant is required:
A. to search a private residence
B. to search locked luggage in the trunk of a car
C. if valid consent is given to search
D. to search a garage attached to a residence
9. Shoplifters may be arrested:
A. only by security guards
B. only by police officers
C. only by store employees
D. by any citizen
10. What is the sole purpose of the frisk?
A. to protect the safety of the officer or other persons
B. to discover illegal weapons
C. to detect criminal offenses
D. to protect the civil rights of the person to be free from unreasonable searches
11. If a peace officer develops probable cause that a criminal violation is about to occur, and
there is no time to obtain a warrant, he may:
A. call for assistance
B. contact and advise a magistrate of the situation
C. make a lawful arrest without a warrant
D. take no action
12. ____________ exists if the facts and circumstances known to an officer would warrant a
prudent person in believing that an offense has been committed.
A. probable cause
B. proof beyond a reasonable doubt
C. suspicion
D. absolute guilt
13. A peace officer may arrest when one family member assaults another and:
A. probable cause exists to believe there will be further bodily injury
B. a warrant has been obtained
C. the family member refuses to get involved
D. there are children in the home
14. Persons found in suspicious places, and under circumstances which reasonably show that
such persons have been guilty of some felony or breech of the peace; or threaten, or are
about to commit some offense, may:
A. not be arrested without warrant
B. be arrested without a warrant
C. only be arrested with a warrant
D. only be detained for a short period of time
15. Mapp vs. Ohio is the Supreme Court case that gave rise to:
A. the Exclusionary Rule
B. the Two-Prong Rule
C. the Wing-Span Rule
D. the Right to an Attorney during Questioning Rule
16. Generally speaking, a peace officer can not arrest, without warrant, a:
person believed to have committed a misdemeanor offense outside the view of the
A.
officer
B.
person believed to have committed an assault resulting in bodily injury to another,
and there is danger of further violence
C. person believed to have committed the offense of "Violation of Court Order"
D. person believed to have committed a felony offense outside the view of the officer
17. Probable Cause can be established through the senses of:
A. sight
B. smell
C. touch
D. hearing
E. any of a person's senses
18. The Code of Criminal Procedure states that peace officers making arrests shall take the
person arrested before a magistrate:
A. immediately
B. within 24 hours
C. without unnecessary delay
D. prior to 8:00 am of the following day
19. An inventory is a search of a person's car for contraband.
A. True
B. False
20. Which of the following is not an accurate statement about a consent search?
A. consent to search must be voluntary
B. consent may be withdrawn at any time
C. the officer will be required to prove that consent was given and was voluntary
D. the individual must sign a "consent to search" form
21. To insure ___________, a suspect must be given ___________ prior to any custodial
interrogation.
A. against law suits/a phone call
B. the right against self incrimination/the Miranda Warning
C. against any accusations of police abuse/an opportunity to see his lawyer
D. against violations of constitutional rights/a chance to plea bargain
E. none of the above
22. Both search warrants and arrest warrants must be based on:
A. information from an informant
B. the officer's firsthand knowledge
C. probable cause
D. mere suspicion
E. none of the above
23. Accuracy is an essential characteristic of good report writing. [3.16.4 (B)]
A. True
B. False
24. It is important that you label anything other than __________ as such in your reports.
A. facts
B. opinions
C. evidence
D. speculation
25. Which of the following is not a basic element necessary in police reports?
A. identification of solvability factors
B. the circumstances of the crime or incident
C. identification of the victim and any suspect(s)
D. the statistical significance of the incident under investigation
26. A ____________ is any drug or device that is not included in schedules I thru V of the
Texas Controlled Substance Act and that is unsafe for self-medication.
A. Dangerous drug
B. Amphetamine
C. Barbiturate
D. Controlled substance
27. The penalty for the manufacture or delivery of a dangerous drug is a ____________.
A. state jail felony
B. 3rd degree felony
C. 2nd degree felony
D. capitol felony
28. It is a ____________ to sell drug paraphernalia to a person younger than 18 years of age and
who is at least 3 years younger than the actor.
A. state jail felony
B. 3rd degree felony
C. 2nd degree felony
D. capitol felony
29. If you discover a laboratory, you should handle it yourself and remove it before calling for
assistance.
A. True
B. False
30. In the Texas Health and Safety code, to deliver a Dangerous Drug includes:
A. to sell
B. dispense or give away
C. supply in any other way
D. all of the above
E. none of the above
31. Which of the following is a common symptom of abuse of a drug
A. redness to the inside of the hands and bloodshot eyes
B. nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea
C. skin rash and loss of hair
D. there are no physical symptoms of an abuser
32. It is a defense to prosecution if a person, who is not authorized by law to, manufacture an
illegal drug and the sole intent of manufacture was for personal consumption
A. True
B. False
33. The most commonly abused illegal substance is:
A. heroin
B. marijuana
C. cocaine
D. opium
34. Delivery of marijuana is punishable as a state jail felony if the amount delivered is ______
or less but more than _____.
A. 2,000/50
B. 50/5
C. 5/one-fourth
D. there is no minimum or maximum amount
35. Which of the following statements is true concerning the offense of Possession of
Marihuana?
A. it must be a usable quanity of marihuana
B.
the offense is considered moral turpitude if it falls under the penalty range of a state
jail felony or misdemeanor
C. it is a state jail felony if you possess more than 2,000 pounds of marihuana
D. seeds are considered a usable quantity for purposes of possession
36. ________________________ is the minimum amount of lawful aggression sufficient to
achieve a legitimate law enforcement objective.
A. force
B. reasonable or necessary force
C. deadly force
D. coercement
37. Which of the following statements is true concerning the psychological aspects of the use of
force?
A. The police role is primarily offensive in nature in a physical arrest.
B. Self-control results from confidence in one's skills through practice and training.
C. Control is a "one-way street" where only the suspect needs to be controlled.
D.
The officer being in control of his emotions has no influence on his ability to
control a suspect.
38. Which of the following is the most common type of resistance encountered by law
enforcement officers?
A. passive resistance
B. hitting/kicking
C. weapon
D. pulling away
39. Which of the following moral considerations or forces is most likely to have the greatest
influence on an officer's decision to use deadly force?
A. the law (both statutory and case)
B. the informal organization
C. departmental policy
D. the individual's conscience and values
40. Of the listed choices, which would be the highest force option (force level)?
A. impact weapon
B. verbal communication
C. professional presence
D. weaponless strategies
41. Which of the following statements is true concerning the psychological aspects of the use of
force?
A. The police role is primarily offensive in nature in a physical arrest.
B. Self-control results from confidence in one's skills through practice and training.
C. Control is a "one-way street" where only the suspect needs to be controlled.
D.
The officer being in control of his emotions has no influence on his ability to
control a suspect.
42. Which of the following is not a true statement concerning a professional police officers use
of force?
A. know when to move from words to force
B. know when to return to words once a threat is over
C. have the ability to evaluate personnel performance
D. none of the above; all are true statements
43. Which of the following verbal appeals is based upon an appeal to a person based upon your
position as a professional officer that assures the other person of your desire for a positive
outcome?
A. practical appeal
B. rational appeal
C. ethical appeal
D. personal appeal
44. R-1 TX P/O
The first step in handling any crime in progress is to:
A. arrive safely
B. deploy personnel so that a suspect cannot escape.
C. drive to the scene with the red lights and siren all the way to the door.
D. issue commands to a suspect to effect his arrest.
45. R-1 TX P/O
In devising a patrol method, officers should be:
A. systematic and predictable.
B. unsystematic and predictable.
C. systematic and unpredictable.
D. unsystematic and unpredictable.
46. Using __________ voice is recommended in good report writing. [3.16.5 (B)]
A. Active
B. Passive
C. None of the above
D. Loud
47. Police jargon is__________ in police reports. [3.16.5 (D20]
A. Proper
B. Improper
C. Common
D. Required
48. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of a sentence?
A. it is a group of words that express a complete thought
B. the predicate tells or asks something about what the action of the thought is
C.
it contains a noun, predicate, and if required by the predicate's verb, other words to
that complete its meaning
D. the simple predicate is the verb of the sentence
49. A _____________ is a group of words that is only a piece of a complete sentence.
A. An incomplete thought
B. A sentence fragment
C. A predicate
D. A run on sentence
50. It is important to remember when _____________, the group of words we use must state
complete thoughts to assist others in understanding what we mean.
A. speaking
B. writing
C. in radio communication
D. listening
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answers, press the button below to grade the test.
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1. Which of the following statements is not true concerning the historical development of the
police models or styles of the 1900 - 1940's era.
Law enforcement officers were usually known by the citizens in the areas in which
A.
they worked
B.
the assignment of officers from walking beats to motorized (radio) units brought the
officers and community closer together
C. there was no real quality evaluation of services thru this period
D. automobiles allowed a more rapid response to calls for service
2. Which of the following is not descriptive of the traditional police service model. 26.1.2
A. reactive response
B. use of the criminal justice systems the primary means of resolving incidents
C. incident driven
D. pro-active response
3. Which of the following is not included in the definition of community policing? 26.1.3
A. it can be implemented using existing organizational structures and staffing
it is based on the concept of the police and citizens working together in creative ways
B.
to solve community problems
C.
it requires creating a community policing officer (CPO) that can maintain face-toface contact with citizens
D.
it shifts the focus of policing from handling random calls to solving community
problems
4. The emphasis on policing for the era of 1980 thru today has been the
______________community or problem-oriented policing. (26.1.1)
A. withdrawal from
B. implementation of
C. experimental use of
5. Which of the following statements is true concerning the historical development of police
models or styles of the l950 - 1970's era. (2.1.1)
the patrol system became a pro-active rather than incident driven approach for police
A.
response
B.
the professional model, with its emphasis on accountability and standards, developed
and became the dominant style of policing
C. the use of automobiles had little or no affect on response to calls for service
D. the emphasis on follow-up activities shifted from specialized units to patrol
6. In Texas, which of the following relationships would qualify for a Protective Order?
A. brother and sister
B. a formerly dating couple that never lived together
C. co-workers
D. neighbors
7. When responding to a reported family violence incident, officers should:
A. arrive at the scene with lights and siren going to stop the violence
approach the scene as one of potential high risk being observant for facts and
B.
circumstances which might support probable cause for an arrest
C.
D.
be as aggressive and authoritarian as possible always using strong force to let the
parties know who is in charge
always leave immediately if someone meets officers at the front door and says that it
was just a family argument and the officers remain they will be filed on for
trespassing
8. The person to whom the Protective Order is directed is usually ordered by the court NOT to:
communicate directly or indirectly with specified persons in a threatening or
A.
harassing manner
B. file for divorce during the tenure of the Protective Order
C. move out of the county in which the Protective Order was granted
D. all of the above are true statements
9. By Texas law, the fees and costs for a person seeking a Protective Order are (unless a
pauper's oath is signed):
A. $12 for the application and $15 for the service of the order=$27
B. $10 for the application and $40 for the service of the order=$50
C. $16 for the application and $20 for the service of the order=$36
D. $25 for the application and $30 for the service of the order=$55
10. Who is responsible for administering the Crime Victim's Compensation Act?
A. the Legislature
B. the Department of Public Safety
C. the Department of Human Services
D. the Attorney General
E. both B & C
11. One of the characteristics of a batterer is:
A. he denies responsibility for his violent actions
B. usually tries to hide his violent actions from his children
C. generally is not himself a victim of past family violence
D. is not very possessive of his spouse because he feels she's just a slut
12. Following the issuance of a Protective Order, if the victim reconciles with the person to
whom the order was directed:
A. the Protective Order is automatically nullified
B. the Protective Order remains in full force and effect
officers may not then arrest the abuser for a violation of the previously arrestable
C.
"prohibited acts"
D.
the parties must notify their attorneys and the judge who issued the Protective Order
that the parties have legally reconciled
13. When an assault occurs without negative consequences for the batterer, he:
A. eventually surrender himself to local authorities
B. usually sees he has a behavior problem and seeks help
realizes that in Texas the law permits a husband to discipline a wife with unruly
C.
behavior
D. finds it easy to deny to himself and others that he did anything wrong
14. When responding to a reported family violence incident, officers should:
A. arrive at the scene with lights and siren going to stop the violence
approach the scene as one of potential high risk being observant for facts and
B.
circumstances which might support probable cause for an arrest
C.
D.
be as aggressive and authoritarian as possible always using strong force to let the
parties know who is in charge
always leave immediately if someone meets officers at the front door (this person
will usually say that it was just a family argument and that if the officers remain
they will be filed on for trespassing)
15. When an assault occurs without negative consequences for the batterer, he:
A. eventually surrender himself to local authorities
B. usually sees he has a behavioral problem and seeks help
realizes that in Texas the law permits a husband to discipline a wife with unruly
C.
behavior
D. finds it easy to deny to himself and others that he did anything wrong
16. Family violence is a crime and should be treated as one. When probable cause is present, the
officer's role is to:
A. not make an arrest if the victim spouse asks the officer not to do so
B. attempt mediation to try to calm the situation so arrest is not necessary
C. ask that one party leave for the night so potential conflict is reduced
D. make the arrest
17. R-1 3.12.3
The Crime Victim's Compensation Act may provide assistance for a victim of:
A. Burglary of a Habitation
B. Auto Theft
C. Criminal Mischief
D. Personal injury or death as a result of preventing crime or apprehending criminals
E. All of the above
18. One of the characteristics of a batterer is:
A. he denies responsibility for his violent actions
B. usually tries to hide his violent factions from his children
C. generally is not himself a victim of past family violence
D. is not very possessive of his spouse because he feels she's just a slut
19. Which of the following is true?
A. violent incidents generally only occur once
B. batterers probably grew up in homes where they were abused or witnessed abuse
C. the parties eventually work things out and the violence disappears over time
D. after a violent incident, batterers usually blame themselves
20. When interviewing a victim of family violence, officers should:
A. not allow the victim to ventilate, but get right to the facts of the incident
B. tell the victim the officer will leave if she does not stop crying and start cooperating
C. press the victim for an explanation of why she die what she did to provoke him
acknowledge her fear of future violence from the abuser and reassure her that the
D.
officers are concerned for her safety
21. Once signed by an appropriate court of jurisdiction, a Protective Order:
A. is both civilly and, in some respects, criminally enforceable
B. is valid for up to two years
C. is valid only in the county where the Protective Order was granted
D. both a and b are true statements
22. By Texas law, the fees and costs for a person seeking a Protective Order are (unless a
pauper's oath is signed):
A. $12 for the application and $15 for the service of the order = $27
B. $10 for the application and $40 for the service of the order = $50
C. $16 for the application and $20 for the service of the order = $36
D. $25 for the application and $30 for the service of the order = $55
23. In Texas, which of the following would not qualify for a Protective Order?
A. neighbors
B. a formerly dating couple that never lived together
C. brother and sister
D. husband and wife
24. Once signed by an appropriate court of jurisdiction, a Protective Order:
A. is both civilly and, in some respect, criminally enforceable
B. is valid for up to one year
C. is valid only in the county where the Protective Order was granted
D. both a and b are true statements
25. The person to whom the Protective Order is directed is usually ordered by the court not to:
communicate directly or indirectly with specified persons in a threatening or
A.
harassing manner
B. file for divorce during the tenure of the Protective Order
C. move out of the county in which the Protective Order was granted
D. All of the above are true statements
26. When interviewing a victim of family violence, officers should:
A. not allow the victim to ventilate, but get right to the facts of the incident
B. tell the victim the officer will leave if she does not stop crying and start cooperating
C. press the victim for an explanation of why she did what she did to provoke him
acknowledge her fear of future violence from the abuser and reassure her that the
D.
officers are concerned for her safety
27. Which of the following are types of abuse common to family violence?
A. sexual
B. destruction of property or pets
C. physical
D. emotional
E. all of the above
28. Family violence is a crime and should be treated as one. When probable cause is present, the
officer's role is to:
A. not make an arrest if the victim spouse asks the officer not to do so
B. attempt mediation to try to calm the situation so arrest is not necessary
C. ask that one party leave for the night so potential conflict is reduced
D. make the arrest
29. Following the issuance of a Protective Order, if the victim reconciles with the person to
whom the order was directed:
A. the Protective Order is automatically nullified
B. the Protective order remains in full force and effect
officers may not then arrest the abuser for a violation of the previously arrestable
C.
"prohibited acts"
D.
the parties must notify their attorneys and the judge who issued the Protective Order
that the parties have legally reconciled
30. Which of the following is true?
A. violent incidents generally only occur once
B. batterers probably grew up in homes where they were abused or witnessed abuse
C. the parties eventually work things out and the violence disappears over time
D. after a violent incident, batterers usually blame themselves
31. When investigating a domestic complaint, which of the following would NOT be correct for
evaluating information received about the dispute?
A. upon arrival observe and listen for unusual conditions
B. approach the site in a cautious manner
C. run up to the site in order to use the element of surprise to your advantage
D. enter site cautiously looking for weapons
32. A peace officer may, without first obtaining a warrant, take into custody any mentally ill
person he might come in contact with.
A. True
B. False
33. The mentally retarded are always mentally ill.
A. True
B. False
34. A legal definition of ______________ is that a person has significantly sub-average
intellectual functioning existing concurrently with deficits in adaptive behavior.
A. insanity
B. stereotype
C. mental illness
D. mental retardation
35. Which of the following is NOT a communication or interaction skill to be utilized when
dealing with a mentally retarded person?
A. give assurances and help the person relax
B. ask questions which can be answered by yes or no rather than open-ended questions
use pictures and diagrams if they do not appear to comprehend verbal or written
C.
language
D. speak slowly and ask simple, short questions
36. Identify which of the following factors which would suggest the possibility of a person
being mentally ill.
A. Talks to himself
B. Claims to be a witch
C. Thinks people are plotting against him
D. All of the above
E. A & C only
37. ___________ is a legal term for diminished capacity and inability to distinguish right from
wrong.
A. Insanity
B. Stereotypes
C. Mental illness
D. Mental retardation
38. Which of the following is not a true statement concerning whether or not to request
assistance when handling a mentally ill person?
A. the size and age of the individual
B. the fact that they, like others under stress, may exhibit extraordinary strength
back up should only be considered for the safety of the officers - the safety of others
C.
is not a factor to consider
D. the local MHMR center may be used for assistance or referrals as appropriate
39. You should place a mentally ill individual taken into custody:
A. In jail or a detention facility
B. In an appropriate mental health facility
C. In an emergency room of a local hospital
D. There are no restrictions on where they may be detained
40. Which of the following is NOT a correct way to talk to a mentally ill person.
A. be calm
B. be patient, avoid "crowding" the individual
C. use the first name of the individual when talking with them
D. be very formal and business-like in your demeanor
41. An application for a magistrate's order for emergency apprehension and admission must
state that the applicant believes the subject is mentally ill based upon _____________,
described in detail.
A. Specific, recent behavior, acts, attempts, or threats
B. Prior behavior, acts, attempts, or threats
C. Notes written by the subject
D. Proposed, future behavior
42. A mentally retarded person may sometimes be recognized by:
A. Physical impairment
B. Inappropriate clothing
C. Slowness in speech or slurred speech
D. All of the above
E. None of the above
43. __________ is an illness, disease, or condition that either substantially impacts a person's
thought, perception of reality, emotional process, or impairs a person's behavior, as
manifested by recent disturbance behavior.
A. Insanity
B. Stereotypes
C. Mental illness
D. Mental retardation
44. Which of the following is NOT a true statement concerning the effects of a hazardous
material event?
A. it may cause the loss of the use of productive land that has been contaminated
it may cause the overcrowding of hospitals and health care facilities due to the
B.
exposure to a hazardous material
C. some substances cause little harm, while some may kill instantly
it has little effect on the operations of government entities since they are prepared to
D.
respond to such events
45. A Hazardous Material Event is one in which a hazardous material:
A. has been released into the environment
B. may be released into the environment
C. either has been or may be released into the environment
D. is being transported through a town or city
46. Which of the following would increase the likelihood of you being exposed to hazardous
material at an event?
A. cool and clear conditions
B. heat and poor ventilation
C. warm with good ventilation
D. heat and good ventilation
47. Which of the following would NOT be used to obtain on-site information about a hazardous
material being transported?
A. call the shipper at the point-of-origin
B. read placards
C. interview the person(s) transporting it
D. all of these could be used to obtain on-site information
48. Which of the following is NOT protective personal gear that should be worn at a haz-mat
event?
A. a self contained breathing apparatus
B. chemically resistant rubber gloves, footwear, and eye protection
C. bunker gear
D. your standard uniform is sufficient protection for most events
49. The first step you should take in using the Incident Management System is:
A. recognize and identify the presence of a hazardous material
B. determine additional resources needed
C. control the risk by establishing perimeters around the event
D. establish a command structure to effectively handle the event
50. Which of the following procedures should you use to safeguard lives at a haz-mat event?
A. immediately start the clean-up of the material
leave your patrol vehicle open to allow the toxic fumes to vent through your vehicle
B.
rather than sit
C. remain upwind from the affected area
D. shut off all public notification so that you do not panic those still in the area
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1. Placing yourself, others, or your patrol unit in a position so as to provide the suspect with a
definite identifiable target is known as _____.
A. night vision
B. targeting
C. silhouetting
D. partial concealment
2. The circular patrol pattern technique involves _________.
starting from the center of the beat and driving ever-increasing circles toward the
A.
outer edge of the beat
B.
starting from the outer edges of the beat and driving toward the center in everdecreasing circles
C. the use of a grid method of "circling" the beat
D. (a) and (b) are both correct
3. Which one of the following is a good example of concealment?
A. U.S. Mailbox
B. utility pole
C. dirt embankment
D. wood fence
4. Which one of the following is not a type of patrol hazard?
A. silhouetting
B. high visibility
C. suspects' hands
D. tell-tale noises
5. An officer driving a marked police vehicle is an example of the _____ method of problem
area patrol.
A. circular
B. selective
C. preventive
D. apprehension
6. Which one of the following is the best example of cover?
A. wooden fence
B. metal storage building
C. shrubs
D. motor vehicle
7. Low visibility and surveillance are primary characteristics of _____ patrol.
A. circular
B. apprehension
C. preventive
D. selective
8. Which of the following are objectives of patrol?
A. preserve the peace by mere presence and by proper action
B. to prevent crime by opportunity reduction
C. to suppress crime
D. all of the above
9. Which one of the following best describes the importance of patrol?
A. protection and service
B. opportunity reduction
C. preservation of peace
D. maintenance of order
10. Regarding mental and physical preparation for patrol, which of the following is important?
A. elements of shift orientation
elements of beat characteristics that the officer should know early in on in the
B.
assignment
C. familiarization with known offenders
D. all of the above
11. If, while on patrol, it is necessary to take a second look at something , what method of patrol
would you use?
A. random
B. spiral
C. double-back
D. grid
12. Regarding lane selection, the _______ on the roadway lends itself to effective observation
of on-coming traffic.
A. lane nearest to the curb
B. outside lane
C. lane nearest to the center
D. lane nearest to the shoulder
13. In the _____ pattern of patrol, the patrol car is driven from the outside of the beat in circles
toward the center of the beat, or vice versa.
A. random
B. double-back
C. circular
D. apprehension
14. Which of the following best describes the advantages of motorcycle patrol?
A. quick response, and effective in traffic law enforcement
B. high visibility and increased person-to-person contact
C. more opportunity to develop informants
D. intense patrol and increased knowledge of potential crime hazards
15. Which of the following best describes the advantages of automobile patrol?
A. speed
B. mobility
C. officer protection
D. all of the above
16. Which of the following best describes the two-officer method patrol?
A. officers take fewer chances, and are more self-reliant
B. preventive enforcement is doubled
greater safety factor and can be used as training aid for correction of officers
C.
mistakes
D. more attention is devoted to patrol function
17. One of the hazards a peace officer may encounter while on patrol is the problem of suspect's
hands. Regarding this problem, which of the following best applies?
A. demand suspect to place hands in front of him/her and turn palms up
B. if hands are already in pockets, do not allow removal
C.
situational discretion is needed-have suspect turn head away and lie on ground
before checking for a weapon
D. all of the above
18. ________ patrol is characterized by varying patrol patterns and the maintenance of high
visibility.
A. Preventive
B. Selective
C. Apprehension
D. Circular
19. Which of the following is not an objective of patrol?
A. to regulate criminal conduct by maintaining a good community relations
B. to suppress crime
C. to apprehend suspects
D. to preserve the peace
20. Which of the following elements of beat characteristics should an officer know early on is
his/her assignment?
A. area and its socio-economic characteristics
B. geographic characteristics
C. crimes committed in the area
D. all of the above
21. As a patrol officer, your knowledge of your assigned beat is important because it:
A. allows you to meet more of the people who live in your assigned area
B. prevents crime through a continuous display of police presence
C. increases the probability of on-site arrest and officer safety
D. discourages criminals from committing crime in your area
22. Which of the following statements concerning the patrol aspect of police work is least
correct?
A. patrol is most essential of all police services
B. in most police departments the patrol force is the largest organizational element
C. other police units either support or supplement the patrol operation
D. the actions of patrol officers are seldom noticed by the public
23. Of the following, which would be the least likely to provide effective cover?
A. U.S. mailbox
B. shrubbery
C. utility pole
D. automobile
24. A characteristic of apprehension patrol tactics is:
A. low visibility
B. high visibility
C. surveillance
D. (a) and (c) are correct
25. Of the following modes of patrol, which generally offers the quicker response and
apprehension capability?
A. fixed wing patrol
B. bicycle patrol
C. foot patrol
D. automobile patrol
26. The basic objectives of patrol are the prevention of crime, protection of life and property,
and
A. questioning suspects
B. preservation of peace
C. covering a wide area
D. following a definite plan
27. A good general rule of procedure for any officer taking police action in a one-person patrol
unit is to:
A. notify communications
B. request assistance
C. unsnap his/her sidearm
D. keep the vehicle motor running
28. An automobile patrol, when conferencing with another patrol, an officer should:
A. avoid staying on main arterial routes
B. park where he can readily be seen
C. park in a dark area with lights out
D. meet only on the police parking lot
29. There are three basic patrol patterns. These are:
A. criss-cross,double-back, flexible
B. double-back, random, and circular
C. grid, criss-cross, and random
D. double-back, flexible, and grid
30. The basic unit in the police effort is:
A. detectives
B. traffic
C. patrol
D. vice
31. A crime prevention security survey is:
the inspection of all plumbing, electrical, and structural components of a building to
A.
ensure they meet City ordinance guidelines
B.
an in-depth on-site examination of physical facility and surrounding property to
identify crime risks and to offer recommendations which could reduce the risk
C.
taking the measurements of all rooms inside a structure to determine proper size
doors and windows were used at the time of construction
27.7.3
32. When conducting a security survey, a police officer should have a systematic approach to
his recommendations, by utilizing the "three lines of defense" which include:
A. frontal barriers, lateral barriers, and perimeter barriers
B. lighting, doors, and alarms
C. perimeter, building exterior, and building interior
primary barriers, secondary barriers, and alternative barriers
D.
27.7.3
33. When a police officer makes security recommendations to a building owner, he must:
go into as much detail as possible so the owner can get the best security hardware
A.
on the market
B.
after evaluating the security risks, make recommendations which are the most cost
effective
C.
not concern himself with previous burglaries reported at the building
27.7.3
34. When participating in the Operation Identification property marking program, citizens
should engrave what personally applied number on their property?
A. their license plate number
B. their social security number
C. their tax identification number
their drivers license number
D.
27.7.3
35. A citizen neighborhood watch volunteer coordinator best describes the neighborhood watch
program as:
a vigilante group program whereby neighbors take control and apprehend criminal
A.
violators within their neighborhood
B.
C.
D.
a neighborhood awareness program which increases more communications (about
suspicious activity) between neighborhood and area law enforcement. During daily
lifestyle functions, in order to reduce criminal opportunity and victimization.
a law enforcement program where patrol officers do not want assistance from the
neighborhood
a program where the law enforcement administrators promise the neighborhood a
patrol unit exclusively assigned to their neighborhood
27.7.3
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answers, press the button below to grade the test.
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1. No vehicle may overtake to the left if such movement causes the vehicle to come within 200
feet of oncoming traffic.
A. True
False
B.
9.1.9
2. What is the youngest age at which a hardship license may be issued in the State of Texas?
A. 12
B. 15
C. 16
21
D.
9.1.7
3. No more than ________ driving lamps may be lighted at any one time while the vehicle is in
operation.
A. 4
B. 6
C. 2
5
D.
9.1.17
4. Under which of the following conditions may a person drive a vehicle over an unprotected
fire hose laid down on a street to be used at a fire?
A. No person may ever cross any such fire hose.
B. Only to enter the private driveway of one's own residence.
C. Only with the permission of the fire department official in charge.
D. Only with the permission of the police officer directing traffic at such fire emergency
None of the above
E.
9.1.15
5. A person that operates a motor vehicle on a public roadway which is not currently registered
is guilty of what offense?
A. Operating illegal motor vehicle
B. Operating unregistered motor vehicle
C. Display wrong license plate
D.
None of the above
9.1.25
6. An emergency vehicle may exceed the speed limit even to the extent that it may endanger
other persons.
A. True
False
B.
9.1.16
7. A buyers temporary cardboard license is valid for ______ days.
A. 10 days
B. 20 days
C. 21 days
60 days
D.
9.1.25
8. In-Transit license plates may be used:
A. When a dealer is moving the vehicle
B. When road testing
C. When the vehicle is sold; for 20 days
D. Both A & B only
Both A & C only
E.
9.1.25
9. A driver may cross a solid yellow stripe to overtake and pass another vehicle proceeding in
the same direction when:
there is 500 feet or more distance between the drivers vehicle and any vehicles
A.
proceeding in the opposite direction
B. it is safe to do so
C. there is no other traffic visible proceeding in the opposite direction
a driver may not cross a solid yellow line to overtake and pass another vehicle
D.
proceeding in the same direction
9.1.9
10. If a person has a current Texas drivers license but does not display it to a Peace Officer upon
demand he is guilty of what offense.
A. Fail to identify
B. Fail to display drivers license
C. Fail to obey a lawful order
No drivers license
D.
9.1.7
11. An officer may issue a notice to appear for Class C misdemeanor in the Transportation
Code..
A. True
False
B.
9.1.20
12. R-1 TX P/O
A flashing red signal should be treated as if it were a:
A. a stop sign.
B. a warning, or caution, signal alerting the driver to proceed with caution.
C. not an official traffic control device in the state of Texas.
D.
none of the above.
9.1.8
13. R-1 TX P/O
Under which of the following circumstances is a vehicle permitted to drive to the left of the
roadway?
A.
When approaching within 100 feet of or traversing any intersection or railroad grade
crossing
B. To avoid a collision
C. When waiting access to a ferry
D. When approaching within 100 feet of a bridge
None of the above
E.
9.1.9
14. R-1 TX P/O
Which of the following is not true regarding passing another vehicle on the highway?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Upon approaching a vehicle proceeding in the same direction of travel, the driver of
such a passing vehicle is required to pass to the left of the vehicle being overtaken.
Passing another vehicle on the right is permitted when the overtaken vehicle is
making or about to make a left turn, providing that the pass can be made on the
roadway or on an improved shoulder with safety.
On a one-way roadway, a pass on the right is permitted in each circumstance when
the roadway is free from obstructions and is wide enough for two or more lanes of
moving traffic.
While making a pass, a vehicle is permitted to exceed the maximum posted speed
limit in order to comply with the rule which states that a passes must be completed
by allowing 200 feet for vehicles approaching from the opposite direction.
None of the above
9.1.9
15. R-1 TX P/O
Which of the following conditions does not justify operating a motor vehicle on an
improved shoulder of the roadway?
A.
Under normal conditions, the driver wishes to use the improved shoulder as a
clearly marked lane of traffic.
B. To accelerate prior to entering the main-traveled lane of traffic
C. To decelerate prior to making a right turn
D.
To overtake and pass another vehicle that is slow or stopped on the main-traveled
portion of the highway, that is disabled, or that is preparing to make a left turn
E.
None of the above
9.1.9
16. R-1 TX P/O
Which of the following is true?
A.
Traffic laws apply to persons riding bicycles with the exception of those provisions
of the Transportation Code that by their nature cannot apply.
B.
While being operated on a public street, a bicycle is required to move on the left
side of the road facing traffic
C. The rider of a bicycle may carry a passenger on the handlebars.
D. Bicycle riders may never ride two abreast on a public roadway.
None of the above
E.
9.1.18
17. On a two way roadway, no vehicle shall be driven on the left side of the roadway, between
_____ feet of an intersection, bridge, or tunnel in an incorporated city.
A. 100
B. 300
C. 500
D.
1500
9.1.9
18. R-2 TX P?O
Which of the following vehicles does not have a burden to yield the right-of-way?
A.
The driver of a vehicle approaching the intersection of a street or roadway from a
roadway that terminates at the intersection not otherwise regulated
B.
The driver of a vehicle proceeding on an access or feeder road of a controlled-access
highway
C.
The driver of a vehicle intending to turn left within an intersection or into an alley,
private road, or driveway
D.
The driver of a vehicle intending to proceed straight through an intersection on a
through highway without turning
E.
None of the above
9.1.11
19. A person who is a resident of Texas may be arrested and transported to jail for traffic
offense of speeding only.
A. True
False
B.
9.1.20
20. ____________ means every vehicle which is self-propelled and every vehicle which is
propelled by electric power obtained from overhead trolley wires, but not operated on rails.
A. vehicle
B. motor vehicle
C. motorcycle
D. car
automobile
E.
9.1.1
21. Which of the following is not a violation of the Transportation Code?
A. Failure to drive in a single-lane of traffic
Failure to allow sufficient space between vehicles for passing when proceeding in a
B.
funeral procession
C. Illegal right turn-wide right
D. Illegal left turn-failure to yield to oncoming traffic
None of the above
E.
9.1.9
22. R-3 2.2.20
Whenever the Department of Public Safety issues an original drivers license to a person
under 18 years of age, the license shall be designated and clearly marked:
A. classified drivers license
B. restricted drivers license
C. provisional drivers license
D.
minors drivers license
9.1.7
23. R-3 2.2.20
Which of the following persons may not be issued any type of a driver's license in the State
of Texas?
A. Any person who is under the age of 15 years
Any person, as a class A or class B driver, who is under 21 years of age unless he
B.
has completed the approved training program
C.
A class C driver who will be operating a two-axle vehicle with a gross weight that
does not exceed 24,000 pounds
D.
None of the above responds to the question since all of the above may be issued a
driver's license.
9.1.7
24. Children under ________ of age are required to be in safety seats.
A. 4 years and 36 lbs
B. 4 years and 50 lbs
C. 4 years
8 years
D.
9.1.15
25. What is the minimum distance permissible for any person other than an authorized
emergency vehicle to follow a fire apparatus responding to an emergency or to follow an
ambulance when it is flashing red lights are operating?
A. 100 feet
B. 200 feet
C. 300 feet
D. 400 feet
500 feet
E.
9.1.15
26. A vehicle is illegally parked if it is over____ inches from the curb.
A. 12
B.
6
C. 18
15
D.
9.1.13
27. A driver must upon the approach of an emergency vehicle that is using its emergency light
and siren :
A. Pull over to the right edge of the roadway and stop
B. Pull over to the left edge of the roadway and stop
C. Pull over to either side and allow the emergency vehicle to pass
D.
All of the above
9.1.11
28. No pedestrian shall start to cross the roadway in the direction of such pedestrian control
signal when the signal displays:
A. don't walk
B. walk
C. wait
either don't walk or wait
D.
9.1.19
29. Fleeing from a police officer using a motor vehicle is a ________________ offense.
A. 3rd Degree Felony
B. Class A Misdemeanor
C. Class B Misdemeanor
Class C Misdemeanor
D.
9.1.15
30. A vehicle is stopped for a traffic offense and the driver fails to display proof of liability
insurance. The correct arrest title is
A. no liability insurance
B. fail to display proof of liability insurance
C. fail to obtain financial responsibility
this is not represent a traffic offense
D.
9.1.26
31. A person who disposes of liter, such as paper cups or cartons from a fast food restaurant, on
the public highway in a small amount (less than 15 pounds) has committed an offense that
is:
A. class A misdemeanor
B. class B misdemeanonr
C. class C misdemeanor
D.
state jail felony
9.1.5
32. R-4 2.2.20
Which of the following persons may not be issued any type of a driver's license in the State
of Texas?
A. Any person who is under the age of 15 years
Any person, as a class A or class B driver, who is under 21 years of age unless he
B.
has completed the approved training program
C.
D.
A class C driver who will be operating a two-axle vehicle with a gross weight that
does not exceed 24,000 pounds
None of the above responds to the question since all of the above may be issued a
driver's license.
9.1.7
33. New residents must obtain a drivers license in this State within ______days.
A. l0 days
B. 20 days
C. 90 days
No limit
D.
9.1.7
34. When must a person arrested be taken immediately before a magistrate.
A. When a person arrested demands an immediate appearance before a magistrate
B. When a person is arrested upon a charge of negligent homicide
C. When a person is arrested upon a charge for DWI
D.
When a person is arrested upon a charge of failure to stop in the event of an
accident
E.
A and D
9.1.20
35. The maximum allowable speed on a public beach is ______ mph.
A. 15
B. 20
C. 25
D. 30
there are no restrictions on speed on a public beach
E.
9.1.14
36. Children under ________ of age are required to be in safety seats.
A. 4 years and 36 lbs
B. 4 years and over 40 lbs
C. 8 years
D. 7 years
37. Which of the following is not a true statment regarding Powers of Local Authorities?
A. may regulate the stopping, standing, or parking of vehicles
designate any highway as a through highway and require that all vehicles stop or
B.
yield before entering or crossing same
C. alter the speed limits authorized by the State of Texas
can erect or maintain a traffic-control device at any location so as to require the
D.
traffic on a State highway to stop or yield before entering or crossing any
intersecting highway
E.
all of the above are true statements
9.1.6
38. A buyers temporary cardboard license is valid for ______ days.
A. 10 days
B. 20 days
C. 60 days
24 days
D.
9.1.25
39. Under which of the following conditions may a person drive a vehicle over an unprotected
fire hose laid down on a street to be used at a fire?
A. No person may ever cross any such fire hose.
B. Only to enter the private driveway of one's own residence.
C. Only with the permission of the fire department official in charge.
Only with the permission of the police officer directing traffic at such fire
D.
emergency
E.
None of the above
9.1.15
40. A person that operates a motor vehicle on a public roadway which is not currently registered
is guilty of what offense?
A. Operating illegal motor vehicle
B. Operating unregistered motor vehicle
C. Display wrong license plate
None of the above
D.
9.1.25
41. Fleeing from a police officer using a motor vehicle is a ________________ offense.
A. 3rd Degree Felony
B. Class A Misdemeanor
C. Class B Misdemeanor
D.
Class State Jail Felony
9.1.15
42. ____________ means every vehicle which is self-propelled and every vehicle which is
propelled by electric power obtained from overhead trolley wires, but not operated on rails.
A. vehicle
B. motor vehicle
C. motorcycle
D. car
automobile
E.
9.1.1
43. A motorcycle is not required to have stop lamps if it is equipped with a reflector on the rear
of the motorcycle.
A. True
False
B.
9.1.17
44. No more than ________ driving lamps may be lighted at any one time while the vehicle is
in operation.
A. 4
B. 6
C. 2
5
D.
9.1.17
45. If a person has a current Texas drivers license but does not display it to a Peace Officer upon
demand he is guilty of what offense.
A. Fail to identify
B. Fail to display drivers license
C. Fail to obey a lawful order
No drivers license
D.
9.1.7
46. An elements of the offense of riding in open beds is:
A. that the speed of the pickup exceed 35 mph
B. that the child occupying the bed is under 18 years of age in a parade
C. that the child is not a relative of the vehicle's operator
that the child riding in the bed of the truck/trailer is under 18 years of age
D.
9.1.15
47. Daylight is defined as:
A. Sunrise to sunset
B. 1/2 after sunrise to 1/2 hour before sunset
C. 1/2/ hour before sunrise to sunset
1/2 before sunrise to 1/2 hour after sunset
D.
9.1.4
48. A vehicle is stopped for a traffic offense and the driver fails to display proof of liability
insurance. The correct arrest title is
A. no liability insurance
B. fail to display proof of liability insurance
C. fail to obtain financial responsibility
this is not represent a traffic offense
D.
9.1.26
49. The department may issue a special restricted Class M license that authorizes the holder to
operate only a motorcylce that has not more than a 250 cubic centimeter piston
displacement. A person is eligible for a restricted motorcycle license if the person:
A. Is 15 years of age or older but under 18 years of age.
B. Is 14 years of age or older but under 17 years of age.
C. is 16 years of age or older but under 19 years of age.
D.
Is 13 years of age or older but under 16 years of age.
9.1.7
50. A driver may cross a fire hose if given permission by:
A. the policeman in charge
B. the fireman in charge
C. A dog catcher
A Justice of the Peace
D.
9.1.15
51. Which of the following circumstances require that a driver not stop at a railroad grade
crossing?
an approaching train is plainly visible and is in hazardous proximity to such
A.
crossing
B.
a clearly visible electric or mechanical device gives warning of the immediate
approach of a train
C.
a crossing gate is lowered, or when a human flagmen gives or continues to give a
signal of the approach or passage of a train
D.
E.
a railroad engine approaching within a approximately fifteen (1500) feet of the of
the highway crossing emits a signal audible from such distance and by reason of its
speed or nearness to such crossing is an immediate hazard
all required stops
9.1.12
52. What is the youngest age at which a hardship license may be issued in the State of Texas?
A. 12
B. 15
C. 16
21
D.
9.1.7
53. A person who is a resident of Texas may be arrested and transported to jail for traffic
offense of speeding only.
A. True
False
B.
9.1.20
54. Which of the following is not true? The driver of an authorized emergency vehicle may:
A. exceed the maximum speed limits so long as he does not endanger life or property
B. proceed past a red or stop signal or stop sign without slowing down
disregard regulations governing direction of movement or turning in specified
C.
directions
D. park or stand, irrespective of the provisions of the statutes pertaining to this
none of the above is true
E.
9.1.16
55. No vehicle shall be turned so as to proceed in the opposite direction upon any curve, or upon
the approach to or near the crest of a grade where the vehicle cannot be seen by the
oncoming vehicles from either direction within:
A. 200 ft.
B. 300 ft.
C. 500 ft.
1,000 ft.
D.
9.1.10
56. R-5 2.2.2A
__________ is the entire width between the boundary lines of every way publicly
maintained when any part thereof is open to the use of the public for purposes of vehicular
travel.
A. street or highway
B. roadway
C. laned roadway
D. freeway
none of the above answer the question
E.
9.1.3
57. A vehicle is illegally parked if it is ____ inches from the curb.
A. 6
B. 12
C. 18
24
D.
9.1.13
58. __________ means a device by which any person or property is or may be transported or
drawn upon a highway, except devices used exclusively upon stationary rails or tracks.
A. Automobile
B. Motor vehicle
C. Vehicle
Passenger car
D.
9.1.1
59. Dealer's Temporary Cardboard license plates may be used:
A. When a dealer is moving the vehicle
B. When road testing
C. When the vehicle is sold; for 21 days
D. Both A & B only
E.
Both A & C only
9.1.25
60. A driver may cross a solid yellow stripe to overtake and pass another vehicle proceeding in
the same direction when:
there is 500 feet or more distance between the drivers vehicle and any vehicles
A.
proceeding in the opposite direction
B. it is safe to do so
C. there is no other traffic visable proceeding in the opposite direction
a driver may not cross a solid yellow line to overtake and pass another vehicle
D.
proceeding in the same direction
9.1.9
This is the end of the test. When you have completed all the questions and reviewed your
answers, press the button below to grade the test.
Grade the Test
parent or guardian voluntarily consents in writing to the photographing or fingerprinting of the
child.) (FC 58.002)
363. (14.1.6) A law enforcement officer may take temporary custody of a child to take the child's
fingerprints if:
the officer has probable cause to believe that the child has engaged in delinquent conduct.
A.
The officer has investigated that conduct and has found other fingerprints during the
B.
investigation.
The officer has probable to believe that the child's fingerprints will match the other
C.
fingerprints. (FC 58.0021)
364. (14.1.6) A law enforcement officer may take temporary custody of a child to take the child's
photograph if
The officer has probable cause to believe that the child has engaged in delinquent conduct
A.
The officer has probable cause to believe that the child's photography will be of material
B.
assistance in the investigation of that conduct.(FC 58.0021)
365. (14.1.6) A law enforcement officer who takes a child into custody with probable cause to believe
that the child has engaged in conduct indicating a need for supervision as described by FC Section
51.03(b)(3) and who after reasonable effort is unable to determine the identity of the child, may
Fingerprint the child to establish the child's identity.
A.
B.
Photograph the child to establish the child's identity.(FC 58.0022)
366. (14.1.6) In regards to fingerprints/photographs taken to assist in identifying a suspected runaway
child, both the fingerprints and photographs must be destroyed when:
A.
On determination of the child's identification.
B.
When it is determined the child cannot be identified. (FC 58.0022)
367. (15.1.1) Field Notes are brief notations concerning specific events and circumstances that are
recorded while fresh in the officer's mind and used to prepare a report.
368. (15.1.4) Temporary Field Notes are discarded following the completion of a report.
369. (15.1.5) Advantages of proper field notes. Provides for recall at a later time/date
A. Enables officer to separate details of the offense.
B. Not totally dependent on memory.
C. Provides detail when preparing report and testifying in court.
370. (15.2.1) Communication is the transfer of meaning. For communication to be successful, the
meaning must not only be sent, but also comprehended. In order for the sender to know if the
message was received, the sender must obtain feedback from the receiver of the message.
371. (15.2.1) Communication is based on:
A. 7-10% content
B. 33-40% tone.
C. 60% + nonverbal.
372.
(15.2.1) Environmental Communication: A person's environment influences how that person
decodes the message that was sent. The term environment means a person's history or background.
Each individual has different experiences.
32
373. (15.3.1) Characteristics of a Sentence:
A. A sentence is agroup of words that expresses a complete thought.
B. A sentence is a group of words that contains a subject, a predicate, and if required by the
predicate's verb, a word following the verb that complete its meaning.
C. The subject of the sentence is the person, place, thing, or idea about which something is said.
D. The predicate tells something or asks something about the subject of the sentence. The simple
predicate of a sentence is the verb.
374. (15.4.4) Chronological — arrangement of information in order of occurrence. "Chronological
Reports" arrange information in order of occurrence.
375. (15.4.5) The three "basic elements" necessary in police reports are: Verification, Identification,
and Communication.
376. (15.4.7) A Sex Offense victim may choose a pseudonym to be used instead of the victim's name to
designate the victim in all public files and records concerning the offense, including police summary
reports, press releases, and records of judicial proceedings. (CCP 57.02)
377. (17.1.1) "Deadly Force" means:
force that is intended or known by the actor to cause, or in the manner of its use or intended
A.
use is capable of causing death.
force that is intended or known by the actor to cause, or in the manner of its use or intended
B.
use is capable of causing serious bodily injury. (PC 9_01)
378. (17.1.2) The Legal authority to use force is found in the following statutes:
A. What force may be used — CCP 15.24
B. Justification as a defense — PC 9.02
C. Confinement as justifiable force - PC 9.03
D. Threats as justifiable force — PC 9.04
E. Reckless injury of innocent third person — PC 9.05
F. Civil remedies unaffected — PC 9.06
G. Arrest and Search — PC 9.51
379. (17.1.2) Reckless Injury of Innocent Third Person. Even though an actor is justified under this
chapter in threatening or using force or deadly force against another, if in doing so he also recklessly
injures or kills an innocent third person, the justification afforded by this chapter is unavailable in a
prosecution for the reckless injury or killing of the innocent third person.(PC 9.05)
380. (17.1.2) Threats as Justifiable Force. The threat of force is justified when the use of force is
justified by this chapter. (PC 9.04)
381 . (17.1.3) Parent — Child: The use of force, but not deadly force, against a child younger than 18
years is justified;
A. if the actor is the child's parent or step parent or is acting in loco parentis to the child; and
B. when and to the degree the actor reasonably believes the force is necessary to discipline the child
or to safeguard or promote his welfare.
C. Note: "loco parentis" in this section includes, grandparent and guardian, any person acting by,
through, or under the direction of a court with jurisdiction over the child, and anyone who has
.
express or implied consent of the parent or parents.(PC 9.61)
33
382. (17.1.3) Tennessee v. Garner, 471 U.S. 1 (1985) The use of deadly force may not be used unless
necessary to prevent the escape and the officer has probable cause to believe that the suspect poses a
significant threat of death or serious physical injury to the officer or others.
383. (17.1.3) Self-Defense. A person is justified in using force against another when and to the degree
he reasonably believes the force is immediately necessary to protect himself against the other's use
or attempted use of unlawful force. (PC 9.31)
384. (17.1.3) Protection of Life or Health. A person is justified in using force, but not deadly force,
against another when and to the degree he reasonably believes the force is immediately necessary to
prevent the other from committing suicide or inflicting serious bodily injury to himself. (PC 9.34)
385. (17.1.3) The use of force, but not deadly force, against a child younger than 18 years is justified:
A.
if the actor is the child's parent or step-parent or is acting in loco parentis to the child; and
B.
when and to the degree the actor reasonably believes the force is necessary to discipline the
child or to safeguard or promote his welfare.
386. (17.2.1) "Deadly Force" is force that is intended or known by the actor to cause, or in the manner
of its use or intended use is capable of causing, death or serious bodily injury.
—
387. (17.2.1) "Reasonable or Necessary Force" — is the minimum amount of lawful aggression
sufficient to achieve a legitimate law enforcement objective.
388. (17.2.2) In physical arrest, the police role is essentially defensive. The word "defensive" is defined
as "serving to protect," "devoted to resisting or preventing aggression or attack.
389. (17.2.2) "Control" is defined as that degree of influence the officer -must exert over the violator to
take him or her safely into custody.
390. (173.1)
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
The "Use of Force Options" listed in the BPOC are:
Professional presence — entering into a scene.
Verbal communications — words, language
Weaponless stiategies — takedowns, come-alongs, etc.
Weapon strategies — Chemical/electrical means, Mace, Stun gun, Baton or impact weapon
Deadly Force
391. (17.3.4) Communication is an important professional skill. 97% of an officer's duties involve
verbal skills. Only about 3% of contacts require physical force.
392. (17.3.6) "Rational Appeal" — an appeal to common sense, good judgment, or community standards.
393. (17.4.2) A police supervisor has an affirmative duty to intervene to stop officers who are engaging
in excessive force in his presence. A non-supervisor officer has an affirmative duty to intervene to
stop officers and/or supervisors who are engaging in excessive force in his presence.
394. (18.1.1) Self-Control. The police role in physical arrest is essentially to protect the public and to
take the violator into custody. It important for the officer to maintain physical and emotional control
(self-control) in order to ensure the safety of the officer, the arrestee, and the public.
395. (18.1.2) In the BPOC,
A.
"weaponless Strategies" would include each of the following:
Touching
34
B.
C.
D.
E.
Joint-locking
Pressure points
Hand strikes and foot strikes
Blocks — hands, arms, and legs.
396. (18.1.3) A baton is classified as a weapon capable of inflicting serious bodily injury or death;
however, impact weapons may be used in lawful situations requiring a degree of force greater that
the use of weaponless strategies but less that the use of deadly weapons/force. (See PC 46.01(1) and
46.15)
397. (18.1.3) In the "Justification of Baton Use" by an officer, consideration may be given to the
physical stature of the suspect(s) compared to the officer.
398. (18.1.3) Guidelines for baton use:
Should normally be positioned between the officer and the suspect.
A.
Maintain a good defensive position whether left-or-right-handed.
B.
Do not intentionally use a baton to strike at the head or throat.
C.
399. (18.2.3) Rear Approach (on foot):
A. Advantages: surprise; reduces probability of direct attack.
B. Disadvantage; may provoke physical response in defense of him/herself.
400. (18.2.3) Two officer approach (on foot): approach and interview spread in V formation.
401. (18.2A) When handcuffing two suspects with one set of handcuff, handcuff right hand to right
hand or left hand to left hand. This procedure causes them difficulty in running.
402. (18.2.4) Remember that handcuffs are a temporary restraining device only!
403. (19.2.2) Cylinder: where bullets go in a revolver.
404. (19.2.2) Fore-end: part of shotgun that reloads.
405. (19.2.2) Magazine: has a spring and follower. Holds bullets in semi auto.
406. (19.2.2) Breech: Protects shells after loading in shotgun.
407. (20.1.1) The "Good Samaritan Act" provides that: you are not liable for actions if you use ordinary
care in following accepted and recognized emergency care procedures. (CPRC art. 74.001)
408. (20.1.1) In regards to the use of the use of force for "Protection of Life or Health"
A.
A person is justified in using force, but not deadly force, against another when and to the
degree he reasonably believes the force is immediately necessary to prevent the other from
committing suicide or inflicting serious bodily injury to himself.
B.
A person is justified in using both force and deadly force against another when and to the
degree he reasonably believes the force or deadly force is immediately necessary to
preserve the other's life in an emergency. (PC Sec. 9.34)
409. (20.1.1) TC Sec. 550.023, the operator of a vehicle involved in an accident resulting in the injury or
death of a person or damage to a vehicle that is driven or attended by a person shall:
35
A.
B.
C.
give the operator's name and address, the registration number of the vehicle the operator is
driving, and he name of the operator's motor vehicle liability insurer to any person injured
or the operator or occupant of or person attending a vehicle involved in the collision.
if requested and available, show the operator's license to a person described by (A) above.
Provide any person injured in the accident reasonable assistance, including transporting or
making arrangements for transport the person to a physician or hospital for medical
treatment if it is apparent that treatment is necessary, or if the injured person requests the
transportation. (TC Sec. 550.023)
410. (21.1.1) "Emergency Communications": A police officer or a citizen requesting an emergency
response from public safety personnel to an emergency event involving, but not limited to, a lifethreatening occurrence or accident, criminal activity or breach of the peace.
411. (21.1.3) Under the "Texas Disaster Act" all requests for assistance must be channeled through proper
civil authority to the Governor via the: Texas Department of Public Safety.
412. (21.3.3) An officer should not transmit over his police radio within 200 yards of blasting operations,
or where blasting caps are stored
413. (22.1.1) Each of the following would be classed as an "authorized emergency vehicle" in accordance
with the Transportation Code?
fire department or police vehicle
A.
a municipal department or public service corporation emergency vehicle that has been
B.
designated or authorized by the governing body of a municipality
a private vehicle of a volunteer firefighter or a certified emergency medical services
C.
employee or volunteer when responding to a fire alarm or medical emergency
a vehicle of a blood bank or tissue bank, accredited or approved under the laws of this state
D.
or the United States, when making emergency deliveries of blood, drugs, medicines or
organs
414. (22.1.1) In operating an authorized emergency vehicle the operator may exceed a maximum speed
limit, except as provided by an ordinance adopted under Section 545.365, as long as the operator
does not endanger life or property; and disregard a regulation governing the direction of movement
or turning in specified direction. (TC 546.001)
415. (22.1.4) Authorized. Emergency Vehicle. An operator of an authorized emergency vehicle is not
relieved from:
A. The duty to operate the vehicle with appropriate regard for the safety of all persons; or
B. The consequences of reckless disregard for the safety of others. (TC 546.005)
416. (22.1.6) Identify the Effectiveness and Limitations of Emergency Equipment and Vehicle
Equipment:
A. Headlights reduce visibility of emergency lights
B. Surrounding environmental conditions reduce effectiveness of lights.
C. As speed of vehicle increase, effectiveness of audible warning devices decreases
D. Audible devices are less effective in heavy traffic
E. Distractions inside motorist's vehicle reduce effectiveness of sirens
F. High density urban/business structures cause siren sound deflection
417. (22.3.2) Factors Contributing to Traffic Collisions:
A. Over confidence
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B.
C.
D.
E.
Self-righteousness
Impatience
Preoccupation
Peer pressure
418. (22.3.3) Most Frequent Factors Contributing to Law Enforcement Collisions:
A. Unsafe speed for conditions
B. Right-of-way violations
C. Left-hand turns
D. Backing ( most often accident for law enforcement officers)
E. Parking
419. (22.3.4) "Fatigue poses a threat to safe driving because it:
A. Lowers visual efficiency
B. Causes longer perception time
C. Causes longer decision/reaction time
420. (22.4.2) Conditions which influence the overall "stopping distance" of a vehicle.
A. Driver
B. Vehicle
C. Road
D. Weather
E. Speed
421. (23.1.2) "Community Policing" is a policing philosophy that promotes and supports organizational
strategies to address the causes and reduce the fear of crime and social disorder through problemsolving tactics and community-police partnerships.
422. (23.1.6) The four steps of the "SARA" model for problem solving are;
A. Scanning
B. Analysis
C. Response
D. Assessment
423. (23.) An effective way to improve one's skills in problem solving is to work in small groups
together thinking aloud, learn form each other, and read how experienced problem solvers
approached the same problem.
424. (24.1.1) The Objectives of Patrol are:
A. To preserve the peace by mere presence and by proper actions.
B. To prevent crime by opportunity reduction; Duty to prevent.
C. To suppress crime by timely response to crimes in progress and by properly investigating
offenses.
D. To apprehend suspects_
E. To regulate non-criminal conduct by obtaining and maintaining good officer — citizen
relationships to protect live and property.
425. (24.1.3) Cover A protected area that provides security from an assailant's firepower. Examples:
large trees, fireplugs, mailboxes, etc.
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426. (24.1.3) Concealment. Any condition (such as darkness) or object (like a bush) that hides a person
from view but does not necessarily provide protection from an assailant's firepower.
427. (24.2.1) Silhouetting:
A. Placing yourself, others or your patrol unit in a position so as to provide the suspect with a
definite identifiable target.
B. Provides suspect with knowledge of how many officers are present, fire power, and approach.
C. Allows suspect to plan course of action.
428. (24.3.1) The two types of problem area patrol are:
A. Preventative Patrol.
B. Apprehension Patrol. (Refer to 24.3.1 for detailed description of each)
429. (24.3.2) Identify the five patrol patterns:
A. Lane selection
B. Parking the patrol vehicle
C. Circular pattern
D. Random pattern.
E. Double back
430. (24.3.2) Bicycle patrol: Advantages: flexibility where use of motorized vehicles is impractical or
impossible, allows for high visibility and intense patrol. Many cities and college campuses choose
bicycle patrol in preventive efforts and to improve community relations.
431. (24.3.2) Automobile patrol: Advantages: speed, mobility; visibility increases preventive potential;
protection of officer, permits officer to carry other equipment.
432. (24.3.4) One-Officer Patrol: more attention is devoted to patrol functions and duties.
433. (24.3.5) It should be noted as an observational skill, "taste" has little or no application and is
extremely dangerous to the officer.
434. (24.3.5) A "Skilled observer is one who is able to take in everything around a given situation and
then sort out the relevant from the irrelevant.
435. (24.5.2) High risk Vehicle Stop (Felony Stop). If possible, offset the patrol vehicle, behind and to
the left of the suspect's vehicle (enough distance to safely observe persons in vehicle from at least 10
to 15 feet. Away.)
-
436. (24.5.1) The "tone is set" in Step 1 of the "Seven- step Violator Contact.
437. 24.5.1) A violator is given an opportunity to justify his actions in Step 2 of the Seven Step-step
Violator contact.
438. (24.6.1) "Crowds": a crowd is a large number of persons temporarily congregated. Generally, the
members of a crowd think and act as individuals and are without organization.
A. "Casual crowd": Has no unity of purpose and no leadership, i.e. shoppers, on-lookers, or
watchers who come and go, and will usually respond to direction by police.
B. "Cohesive crowd": Usually assembles for a common purpose without leadership, i.e. Spectators
at sporting events, along parade routes, and other activities. They have a common interest but
behave and think as individuals.
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C. "Expressive crowd": Are assembled for some purpose. They have leadership and the intention
of expressing an attitude for or against some person or idea, i.e., political rallies and picket lines.
D. "Aggressive crowd": Is usually assembled for some purpose. Tey have positive leadership, are
determined to accomplish a specific end, and move actively toward their objective. Usually high
emotional tension is present. This type crowd can easily become a mob. Consequently, this type
of crowd presents an acute police problem.
439. (24.6.1) "Mobs": a crowd develops into a mob when all or most members of the crowd have been
instilled with a purpose and intent to carry out their purpose, regardless of the consequences.
Transformation can be made, for example, by the urgings of a forceful crowd leader, the appearance
of an individual of importance to the crowd, or the accomplishment of an act of violence. A mob
reaches the hot stage when acts of violence are committed.
"Aggressive mob": An aggressive mob riots and terrorizes as in the case of race riots,
A.
lynching, political riots, or prison riots.
"Escape mob": a mob in a state of panic. In their attempt to secure safety by flight;
B.
members of an escape mob may have lost their power to reason.
Acquisitive mob": A mob motivated by a desire to acquire something, i.e., food riots.
C.
440. (24.8.1 Crime Prevention: A proactive anticipation, recognition, and appraisal of a crime risk and
the action needed to remove or reduce that risk. An officer's primary responsibility is that of crime
prevention. Every law enforcement officer is a crime prevention officer by the technical definition
as well as the moral responsibilities of the job. In order for to prevent the occurrence of crime, the
opportunity for someone to commit the crime must be eliminated or reduced.
441. (24.8.3) A crime prevention program called "Operation ID/Property - inventory usual includes the
following elements:
A.
Citizens are encouraged to mark their personal property, e.g., cameras, stereo, appliances,
etc., with their driver license number.
B.
Many law enforcement agencies provide electric engravers for the citizen to use, as well as
labels to attach to the home, indicating all valuables have been marked for identification by
law enforcement.
C.
Citizens are encouraged to make an inventory list of personal property (including
manufacturer, model number, serial number, size, color, description) for insurance and
stolen property reports and identification.
442. (25.1.1) Crisis reaction. The normal human response to trauma; an event that is outside the range
of usiml human experience and that would be markedly distressing to anyone.
443. (25.1.1) Fight or Flight are responses in stressful situation. Cannot be prolonged indefmitely,
eventually, it will result in exhaustion.
444. (25.1.1) "Posttraumatic Stress Disorder (PTSD)" is a pathological anxiety that usually occurs
after an individual experiences or witnesses severe trauma that constitutes a threat to the physical
integrity or life of the individual or of another person.
445. (25.1.2) A victim's reaction to crime may include the following three phases: Impact, Recoil, and
Reorganization.
446. (25.2.4) A victim of a sex offense may choose a pseudonym to be used instead of the victim's
name to designate the victim in all public files and records concerning the offense, including police
summary reports, press releases, and records of judicial proceedings. (CCP 57.02) Note: a
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pseudonym means a set of initials or a fictitious name chosen by a victim to designate the victim in
all public files and records concerning the offense, including police summary reports, press releases,
and records of judicial proceedings. (CCP 57.01)
447. (26.2.2) "Dating Violence" means an act by an individual that is against another individual with
whom that person has or has had a dating relationship and that is intended to result in physical harm,
bodily injury, assault, or sexual assault or that reasonably places the individual in fear of imminent
physical harm, bodily injury, assault, or sexual assault, but does not include defensive measures to
protect oneself.
448. (26.2.2) "Family Violence" means (1) an act by a member of a family or household against another
member of the family of the household that is intended to result in physical harm, bodily injury,
assault, or sexual assault or that is a threat that reasonably places the member in fear of imminent
physical harm, bodily injury, assault or sexual assault, but does not include defensive measures to
protect oneself; (2) abuse as that term is defined by Sections -261(1)©, (E), and (G), by a member of
a family or household toward a child of the family or household; or (3) dating violence, as that term
is defined by Section 71.0021. (FC 71.004)
449. *(26.3.1) Under Sec. 261.001, Family Code, the term "Abuse" would include;
A. Sexual conduct harmful to a child's mental welfare.
B. Sexual conduct harmful to a child's emotional welfare.
C. Sexual conduct harmful to a child's physical welfare.
(Note: in this context the "threat of sexual abuse" would be the same as "abuse" since a child's
mental and emotional welfare may be affected.)
450. (26.2.5) The duration of a protective order is two years; or if a period is not stated in the order,
until the second anniversary of the date the order was issued. (FC 85.025)
451. (26.2.6) At a defendant's appearance before a magistrate after arrest for an offense involving family
violence or an offense under Section 42.072, Penal Code, the magistrate may issue an order for
emergency protection on the magistrate's own motion or on the-request of:
A. the victim of the offense;
B. the guardian of the victim;
C. a peace officer; or
D. the attorney representing the state (CCP 17.292)
452. (26.3.1) To prevent the disqualification of family violence victims from receiving crime victim
compensation, officers should arrest the "primary aggressor" instead of arresting both parties when
responding to a family violence call.
453. (26.) Police agencies have estimated that approximately 45% of their calls for service are related to
family violence.
454.
(27.1.1) Mental Illness (Mental Disorder): "Illness, disease or condition that either substantially
impacts a person's thought, perception of reality, emotional process, judgment, or grossly impairs a
person's behavior, as manifested by recent disturbance behavior.
455. (27.1.1) A very common stereotype of a person suffering with "mental illness" is that they are
schizophrenia and/or violent.
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456. (27.1.1) Insanity is a Legal Term. It is considered "a diminished capacity and inability to tell right
from wrong." Note: this is not a psychological term. The definition varies from state to state.
Generally used by the court with regards to an individual's competency to stand trial.
457. (27.1.2) The single most common factor in suicidal behavior or death by suicide is that the
individual is experiencing depression.
458. (27.1.2) Schizophrenia: consists of a group of psychotic disorders characterized by changes in
perception. Causes an over sensitivity to sounds and visions characterized by hallucination and/ or
impaired distorted thinking.
459. (27.1.2) Mental Retardation: Significantly sub-average intellectual functioning existing
concurrently with deficits in adaptive behavior and originating in the development period before age
18.
460. (27.1.9) Listening is an important communication tool that is a helpful technique in defusing and
calming a person that is excited and/or having mental problems in a crisis type situation.
461. (28.1.1) Hazardous Materials: any substance, material, or device posing an unreasonable risk to
health, safety, or property during transportation; includes explosives and hazardous waste or
substances. (Note: officially those items so designated by the Federal Department of Transportation
are officially defmed as "Hazardous Materials" (Texas Peace Officer, Glossary.) Several other
examples of materials that would normally be listed as Hazardous Materials are: radioactive
materials, flammable liquids, etc.
462. (28.1.1) Hazardous Materials Event: is a situation in which hazardous material is or may be
released into the environment. (Texas Peace Officer, Chapter 28)
463. (28.1.1) The effects of a "hazardous-materials event" on society may vary. Some chemicals and
substances cause little harm, while others can kill instantly, or result in later health problems (such as
cancer liver damage, kidney failure, blindness) and birth defects in the affected person's children.
Effects on property and the environment may be:
A. Temporary or long-lived damage to water systems.
B. Loss of the productive use of land that has been contaminated by a has-mat event.
C. Necessity to destroy food items (meat, grain, vegetables) contaminated by a has-mat event.
464. (28.1.3) Toxicology is the study of the nature and actions of poisons.
465. (28.1.3) "DOSE-response Concept" All substances, in the right amounts, become toxic. (A given
amount (dose) of a toxic substance; e.g., and air-borne gas, will cause a given, quantifiable response
in the individual receiving it. This can vary somewhat, based on the individual's own physiological
characteristics.)
466. (28.1.3) Routes of Exposure (hazardous
materials, poisons, etc.):
A.
B.
C.
D.
Inhalation
Skin absorption
Eye absorption
Oral ingestion
E. Injection — being cut or abraded by a contaminate object such as a jagged piece of metal at a tank
car explosion or stepping on a nail at an event, etc.
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446. (28.1.3) Heat and poor ventilation increase the likelihood of exposure while at a hazardous
materials site.
447. (29.1.1) Criminal Investigation is a lawful search of people, land, and things useful in
reconstructing the circumstances of an illegal or omission and the mental state accompanying it.
448. (29.1.2) Tools of the Criminal Investigator (sometimes called the "Three I's"):
A. Information
B. Interview/interrogation
C. Instrumentation
449. (29.1.6) Corpus Delicti: Literally "the body of the crime". The "corpus delicti" of a crime is the
body, foundation or substance of the crime, which ordinarily includes two elements: the act and the
criminal agency of the act.
450. (29.2.1) Storefront or "sting" techniques are useful in identifying thieves.
451. (29.2.3) A "gray market vehicle" is: Foreign made vehicle not produced for sale in the United
States but which have been imported by individuals or companies into the U.S.
452. (29.2.4) A "Salvage Switch" is described as the altering of a vehicle's identity by placing the serial
number of a total loss car (total loss vehicles are cheaper to buy and still get a title) onto a stolen car.
453. (29.1.7) The term "evidence" includes all means by which an alleged fact, the truth of which is
submitted to scrutiny, is established or disproved.
454. (29.1.7) The legal significance of evidence rests in its influence on the judge or jury.
455. (29.1.8) Reasonable Doubt. (The standard used to determine the guilt or innocence of a person
criminally charged.) It is not a mere possible doubt, because everything relating to human affairs
and depending on moral evidence is open to some possible or imaginary doubt. It is that state of the
case, which, after the entire comparison and consideration of all the evidence, leaves the minds of
jurors in that condition that they cannot say they feel an abiding conviction, to a moral certainty, of
the truth of the charge.
456. (29.2.10) Three methods of gaining sexual access to a person are: (1) consent, (2) pressure, and
(3) force.
457_ (29.2.10) Sexual assaults are acts of violence. The perpetrator's purpose is to exercise power over
the victim, it is not a crime resulting from sexual desire.
458.
(29.2.10) Hate Crime: a criminal offense against a person or property which is motivated, in whole
or in part, by the offender's bias against race, religion, ethnic/national origin group, or sexual
orientation group. (CCP 42.014(a).
Autopsy: the dissection of a dead body for the purpose of inquiry into the cause of death.
459.
(29.4.1)
460.
(29.4.2) Post Mortem Lividity: dark blue discoloration observable on the parts of the body that are
nearest the ground. Appears about two subsequent to death. May provide a clue as to whether the
body was moved after death.
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461. (29.4.2) Rigor Mortis: because of chemical changes occurring in body tissues, the muscles stiffen
after death. This stiffening starts at the neck and lower jaw and spreads downward. Onset of rigor
mortis may start from 15 minutes to 15 hours after death, but as a general rule, it starts 5 to 6 hours
after death. The upper part is affected within about 12 hours and the whole body within about 18
hours. Rigor mortis usually disappears within thirty-six hours, again beginning the head and neck
and extending to the lower parts of the body. This latter process may take from 8 to 10 hours.
Presence of absence of stiffening may help in establishing time of death.
462. (29.5.1) DNA (Dioxyribonucleic Acid) Fingerprinting: useful in examining blood stains, hair
roots, semen, vaginal fluid. Useful in the association or elimination of suspects through
chromosome coding.
463. (29.6.2) Procedures for identifying a victim in case of serious injury or death:
If person is alive and conscious, obtain identification and information about next of kin
A.
Officers may locate any source of identification such as driver's license, military ID, social
B.
security card, tattoos, amputations or unusual scars, only after obtaining permission from the
medical examiner or just of the peace to move or disturb the body.
464. (29.7.1) Crime Scene Search is a planned and coordinated legal search of a crime scene to locate
physical evidence or witnesses to the crime under investigation.
A. To determine what crime has been committed and establish elements of offense.
B. To determine if a crime was committed
C. To determine who, how, when, and why the crime was committed.
465. (29.7.1) Upon arrival to a crime scene the officer needs to determine several things, for example, if
the suspect(s) are at or near the scene by observing unusual activity, persons, and vehicles.
466. (29.7.3) Factors to be considered when choosing and methods of crime scene search:
A. Size and type of area to be covered
B. Personnel and equipment necessary and available
C. The degree of thoroughness required depending on the type of crime committed, type of physical
evidence sought and the purpose of the search.
467. (29.7.3) Strip Search (Crime Scene): This method in both the double and single form, is among
the most effective for outside searches. Stakes and lines are useful in setting up lanes. Natural
landmarks may be used as borders.
468. (29.7.8) Crime Scene Sketch. A sketch is a drawing which represents the crime scene and serves
to supplement photography by providing accurate information concerning the distance between
various points in the scene. (1) Sketches are helpful in reconstructing the crime scene. (2) Sketches
record the exact locations and relationships of pieces of evidence and surroundings of the crime
scene.
469. (29.7.10) In preparing a crime sketch: use an arrow to show north and orient north to the top of
the sketch. Also, Use a legend to explain any symbols used on the crime scene sketch.
470. (29.7.11) Perspective sketch (three dimensional): Objects are drawn in such a way as to show
them as they appear to the eye with reference to relative distance or depth. This sketch is useful
when no camera is available or the condition of the scene is such that a photograph would not be
illustrative.
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