1. business and industrial
2. business operations
3. business plans

SAT Sample Test Cover
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Page 2
KAPLAN
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SAT
**
2005
SAMPLE TEST
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01_SAT 2005 Sample Test S1
8/26/03
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Page 1
 2003 Kaplan, Inc.
All rights reserved. No part of this book may be reproduced in any form, by photostat, microfilm, xerography or any
other means, or incorporated into any information retrieval system, electronic or mechanical, without the written permission of Kaplan, Inc. This book may not be duplicated or resold, pursuant to the terms of your Kaplan Enrollment
Agreement.
01_SAT 2005 Sample Test S1
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Page 2
Section 1
1
Part A
Time—25 minutes
You have twenty-five minutes to plan and write an essay on the topic assigned below. DO NOT WRITE AN ESSAY ON ANY
OTHER TOPIC. AN ESSAY ON A DIFFERENT TOPIC IS UNACCEPTABLE.
This essay provides you with an opportunity to demonstrate how well you write. Therefore, you should express your ideas
clearly and effectively. How much you write is much less important than how well you write; but to express your thoughts on
the topic adequately you may want to write more than a single paragraph. Your essay should be specific.
Your essay must be written in the lines provided on your answer sheet. No other paper will be given to you. There is enough
space to write your essay on the answer sheet if you write on every line, avoid wide margins, and keep your handwriting to a
reasonable size.
Consider the following statement and assignment. Then write an essay as directed.
“Every cloud has a silver lining.”
Assignment:
Choose one example from personal experience, current events, or history, literature, or any other
discipline, and use this example to write an essay in which you agree or disagree with the statement
above.
IF YOU FINISH YOUR ESSAY BEFORE TWENTY-FIVE MINUTES PASS, YOU MAY GO ON TO PART B OF THIS SECTION.
WHEN THE PROCTOR ANNOUNCES THAT TWENTY-FIVE MINUTES HAVE PASSED, YOU MUST STOP WRITING AND
GO ON TO PART B OF THIS SECTION IF YOU HAVE NOT ALREADY DONE SO.
YOU MAY MAKE NOTES ON THIS AND THE OPPOSITE PAGES, BUT YOU MUST WRITE YOUR ESSAY ON THE ANSWER
SHEET.
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Section 1
1
SAT 2005
Writing Section (Part A: Essay)
Answer Sheet
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Section 1
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Section 1
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Section 1
1
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IF YOU FINISH YOUR ESSAY BEFORE TWENTY-FIVE MINUTES PASS, YOU MAY GO ON TO PART B OF THIS SECTION.
WHEN THE PROCTOR ANNOUNCES THAT TWENTY-FIVE MINUTES HAVE PASSED, YOU MUST STOP WRITING AND
GO ON TO PART B OF THIS SECTION IF YOU HAVE NOT ALREADY DONE SO.
-7-
01_SAT 2005 Sample Test S1
8/26/03
10:16 AM
Page 8
Section 1
1
Part B
Time—25 minutes
Directions: The following sentences test your knowledge of grammar, usage, diction (choice of words), and idiom.
Some sentences are correct. No sentence contains more than one error.
You will find that the error, if there is one, is underlined and lettered. Elements of the same sentence that are not underlined
will not be changed. In choosing answers, follow the requirements of standard written English.
If there is an error, select the one underlined part that must be changed to make the sentence correct, and fill in the
corresponding oval on your answer sheet.
If there is no error, fill in answer oval
E
.
EXAMPLE:
SAMPLE ANSWER
A
B
C
D
E
Whenever one is driving late at night, you must take extra precautions against
A
B
C
falling asleep at the wheel. No error.
D
E
1
Even though it was a beautiful day, Nicole decided not
A
B
to give in with the temptation to spend more time at
C
D
the park. No error.
E
2
The architect wanted the building to be extremely safe,
A
so he planned two sets of fire stairs instead of the
B
C
usually one. No error.
D
E
3
The racer had run ten miles before leg cramps caused
A
B
C
her to withdraw from the competition. No error.
D
E
4
To assure that everyone would be informed of the
A
school’s closing in the event of inclement weather, they
B
C
established a phone tree among the office staff,
D
teachers, and parents. No error.
E
5
The symphony orchestra forced to return the evening’s
A
B
receipts when the new, state-of-the-art sound system
failed in the middle of the performance. No error.
C
D
E
6
On the admissions committee of Presterton University
A
B
sits five tenured professors and three deans. No error.
C
D
E
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-8-
01_SAT 2005 Sample Test S1
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Page 9
Section 1
1
7
In his autobiography, Perman goes into the most great
A
detail about his childhood, three failed marriages, and
B
C
gambling addiction. No error.
D
E
12 First published in 1605, Don Quixote, by Miguel de
A
Cervantes, is widely considered to be the first modern
B C
D
novel. No error.
E
8
The freshly painted houses and the newly planted
A
gardens of this once run-down neighborhood is a
B
C
tribute to the tenacity and hard work of the residents.
D
No error.
E
13 With more and more people bringing their disputes to
A
B
court, many judges and lawyers are encouraging
C
out-of-court settlements to save the time and cost of a
D
trial. No error.
E
9
The current crop of American high school students are
A
B
hardly the first to have grown up with computers.
C
D
No error.
E
10 Since both Mark and I received the same score on the test,
A
Mr. Ames couldn’t decide whether to award the prize
B
to him or I. No error.
C
D
E
11 By the time today’s college freshmen complete their
A
degrees in information technology, the job market
has been flooded and the opportunities for
B
C
employment in their field will be low. No error.
D
E
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01_SAT 2005 Sample Test S1
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Page 10
Section 1
1
Directions: The following sentences test correctness and effectiveness of expression. In choosing answers, follow the
requirements of standard written English; that is, pay attention to grammar, choice of words, sentence construction, and
punctuation.
In each of the following sentences, part of the sentence or the entire sentence is underlined. Beneath each sentence you will
find five ways of phrasing the underlined part. Choice A repeats the original; the other four choices are different.
Choose the answer that best expresses the meaning of the original sentence. If you think the original is better than any of the
alternatives, choose (A); otherwise, choose one of the others. Your choice should produce the most effective sentence—clear
and precise, without awkwardness or ambiguity.
EXAMPLE:
Every apple in the baskets are ripe and labeled according to the date it was picked.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
SAMPLE ANSWER
A
B
C
D
E
are ripe and labeled according to the date it was picked
is ripe and labeled according to the date it was picked
are ripe and labeled according to the date they were picked
is ripe and labeled according to the date they were picked
are ripe and labeled as to the date it was picked
14 Readily available and easy to operate, computer games
help children to learn basic computer skills and the
vocabulary of cyberspace.
16 Unlike its fellow Baltic nations, Latvia and Lithuania,
the economy of Estonia grew at an astonishing rate in
the late nineties.
(A) computer games help children to learn basic
computer skills and
(B) children are helped to learn basic computer skills
by computer games and
(C) computer games help children to learn basic
computer skills as well as learning
(D) basic computer skills may be learned on a
computer by children, and
(E) computer games are helping children in the
learning of basic computer skills and
15 Pablo Picasso’s genius is fully revealed when one
considers how his work developed through many
artistic phases, beginning with his Red period,
continuing through his Blue period, and finishing with
his period of Cubism.
(A) its fellow Baltic nations, Latvia and Lithuania, the
economy of Estonia grew at an astonishing rate
(B) its fellow Baltic nations, Latvia and Lithuania,
Estonia grew at an astonishing rate
(C) Latvia and Lithuania, its fellow Baltic nations, the
economy of Estonia grew at an astonishing rate
(D) its fellow Baltic nations, Latvia and Lithuania,
Estonia was growing its economy at an
astonishing rate
(E) Latvia and Lithuania, its fellow Baltic nations,
Estonia experienced an astonishing rate of
economic growth
17 Growth in the industry is at an all-time low, with total
employment at less than 68,000 people, and fewer
companies in the field.
(A) Red period, continuing through his blue period,
and finishing with his period of Cubism
(B) Red period, and continuing through his Blue and
period of Cubism
(C) Red period, continuing through his Blue period,
and finishing with his Cubist period
(D) Red period phase, and continuing through his Blue
period phase and then Cubism
(E) Red period, his Blue period, and his period of
Cubism
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
at less than 68,000 people, and fewer
at less than 68,000 people, and there are fewer
lesser than 68,000 people, and fewer
at less than 68,000 people, and less
at fewer than 68,000 people, and fewer
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01_SAT 2005 Sample Test S1
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10:16 AM
Page 11
Section 1
18 Professor McCloskey argues that the dominance of an
economic theory has more to do with the persuasive
skills of its adherents than with its accuracy.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
its adherents than with its accuracy
these adherents than with its accuracy
its adherents compared with its accuracy
the theory’s adherents than their accuracy
its adherents than with their accuracy
1
22 At the last meeting of GigaDrive’s board of directors,
those present could not decide as to whether the
company should declare bankruptcy or continue to try
to struggle to meet its payroll and mounting bills.
(A) not decide as to whether the company should
declare bankruptcy or
(B) never decide as to whether the company should
declare bankruptcy or
(C) not decide whether the company should declare
bankruptcy or
(D) not decide if the company should declare its
bankruptcy or
(E) not make a decision as to whether the company
should be declaring bankruptcy or
19 Hoping to provide tax relief for the poorest sector of
society, it was proposed by Congress that a tax credit of
$1,000 be given to families whose annual income was
less than $10,000.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
it was proposed by Congress
it was a proposal of Congress
Congress proposed
Congress will be proposing
a proposal was made
23 The activism of the citizens, who have demanded safer
road conditions, have led to a significant decrease in
the number of traffic accidents.
(A) have led to a significant decrease in the number of
traffic accidents
(B) has led to a significant decrease in the number of
traffic accidents
(C) have led to a significant decrease in the amount of
traffic accidents
(D) has been significant in the decrease in the amount
of traffic accidents
(E) has led to decreasing significantly the number of
traffic accidents
20 Hearing Kenneth Branagh deliver the “St. Crispin’s
Day” speech in Henry V is to be mesmerized by a great
performer.
(A) Hearing Kenneth Branagh deliver the “St. Crispin’s
Day” speech in Henry V is to be mesmerized
(B) Hearing Kenneth Branagh deliver the “St. Crispin’s
Day” speech in Henry V is mesmerizing
(C) On hearing Kenneth Branagh deliver the “St.
Crispin’s Day” speech in Henry V is to be
mesmerized
(D) To hear Kenneth Branagh deliver the “St. Crispin’s
Day” speech in Henry V is to be mesmerized
(E) Hearing Kenneth Branagh deliver the “St. Crispin’s
Day” speech in Henry V is being mesmerized
24 Studies show that people who participated in
competitive sports when they are in college tend
towards remaining physically active throughout their
lives.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
21 Substantial similarities exist between the instinctive
behavior of wild and domestic cats; for example, when
threatened or frightened, a lion flattens its ears against
its head, just as a cat does.
when they are in college tend towards remaining
when they were in college tend towards remaining
when they are in college are remaining
when they were in college are likely to remain
when they were in college were liable to remain
(A) lion flattens its ears against its head, just as a cat
does
(B) lion’s ears are flattened against its head, just as a
cat does
(C) lion’s ears are flattened against its head, just as a
cat’s are
(D) lion flattens its ears against its head, just like those
of a cat
(E) lion flattens its ears against its head, just as a cat
are
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01_SAT 2005 Sample Test S1
8/26/03
10:16 AM
Page 12
Section 1
1
Directions: Each of the following passages is an early draft of an essay. Some parts of the passages need to be rewritten.
Read each passage and answer the questions that follow. Some questions are about particular sentences or parts of sentences
and ask you to improve sentence structure and word choice. Other questions refer to parts of the essay or the entire essay and
ask you to consider organization and development. In making your decisions, follow the conventions of standard written
English. After you have chosen your answer, fill in the corresponding oval on your answer sheet.
Questions 25–28 are based on the following passage.
(1) Today, microwaves are used for many purposes:
long distance telephone calls, television programming,
even communications between earth and objects in space.
(2) But the microwave is probably most familiar to us as
an energy source for cooking food. (3) Since their accidental invention fifty years ago, microwave ovens have
become standard equipment in American homes.
(4) Despite their familiarity, some have claimed that
microwave ovens have a negative effect on human health.
(5) A Swiss researcher found that nutrients in food cooked
in microwave ovens had been changed. (6) Potentially
harmful changes were identified in the blood of research
participants who had consumed food or drink cooked in a
microwave. (7) The balance between good and bad cholesterol changes for the worse, and the number of white
blood cells decreases in the short term.
(8) At best, these claims are unfortunate, and frighten
consumers unduly. (9) At worst, they are simply wrong.
(10) When a microwave oven’s power is switched off,
microwaves cease to exist and do not remain in food after
cooking. (11) Perhaps most significantly, medical experts
have concluded that the results of the Swiss study and
others of its kind are not relevant to food cooked and
eaten by domestic consumers in microwave ovens.
26 Which of the following sentences is best inserted at the
end of the first paragraph, after sentence 3?
(A) An estimated ninety percent of American homes
have them, making microwaves an inevitable
tool for cooks.
(B) The fact that the government allows microwave
ovens to exist in such a large number of homes
makes it clear that microwaves are safe for
cooking food for human consumption.
(C) Families who use microwave ovens, however, tend
not to use long distance and television
programming services that use microwaves, due
to the possible negative impact of these services
on health.
(D) I’d like now to tell you the reasons users of
microwave ovens for meal preparation are
putting their families at risk of receiving a large
dose of radiation.
(E) Many are unaware of that a microwave oven can
reduce cooking time, making it possible for
families to engage in other activities, such as
calling faraway friends and watching television.
27 In the context of the second paragraph, which revision
is most needed in sentence 7?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
25 The sentence that best states the main idea of the
passage is
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
Sentence 1
Sentence 4
Sentence 6
Sentence 9
Sentence 10
Insert “On the contrary” at the beginning.
Omit “the number of.”
Omit “for the worse.”
Change the comma to a semicolon.
Change “changes” to “changed” and “decreases” to
“decreased.”
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01_SAT 2005 Sample Test S1
8/26/03
10:16 AM
Page 13
Section 1
28 Of the following, which is the best version of sentence 11
(rewritten below)?
1
29 The sentence that best states the main idea of the
passage is
Perhaps most significantly, medical experts have
concluded that the results of the Swiss study and others of
its kind are not relevant to food cooked and eaten by
domestic consumers in microwave ovens.
(A) (As it is now)
(B) Perhaps most significantly, medical experts have
concluded that the results of the Swiss study and
others of its kind are not relevant to food cooked
in microwave ovens and eaten by domestic
consumers.
(C) It has been concluded by medical experts that the
results of the Swiss study and others of its kind
are not relevant to food cooked eaten by
domestic consumers in microwave ovens.
(D) At last, medical experts have concluded that the
results of the Swiss study and others of its kind
are not significant to food cooked in microwave
ovens and eaten by domestic consumers.
(E) Like the results of the Swiss study, medical experts
have concluded that many of its kind are not
significant to food cooked in microwave ovens
and eaten by domestic consumers.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
30 The function of sentence 2 is to
(A) provide examples of a description found earlier in
the passage
(B) affirm a hypothesis in the face of evidence to the
contrary
(C) enable the writer to present himself as an expert on
the topic
(D) raise doubts in the reader’s mind about the
truthfulness of the media
(E) introduce an alternative explanation for an
unfortunate phenomenon
31 Which of the following versions of the underlined
portion of sentence 7 (reproduced below) best suits the
context?
But to acknowledge African American cowboys alone is
minimizing the participation of African Americans in the
creation of the cattle industry in America prior to the
Civil War.
Questions 29–32 are based on the following passage.
(1) Popular portrayals of the American West demonstrate how the reality of a time and place have been
replaced by a fiction. (2) This fiction—the portrayal by
movies and dime store novels of cowboys as stagecoach
robbers, gunslingers, and barroom brawlers—is today
confused by millions of people for fact. (3) While individuals who fit these descriptions existed at the time, no
doubt, they were mere outlaws and hoodlums, not genuine cowboys.
(4) A particularly telling example of popular misunderstanding about the American West is the lack of African
American cowboys in the books and films that have taken
the place of legitimate historical accounts as sources of
information for most people. (5) When they have appeared,
African Americans have been stereotyped as hoodlums or
irresponsible layabouts. (6) Missing from these versions is
the truth: the proud history of the Black cowboys and pioneers who traveled through and settled the vast territory
west of the Mississippi River in the nineteenth century.
(7) But to acknowledge African American cowboys
alone is minimizing the participation of African
Americans in the creation of the cattle industry in
America prior to the Civil War. (8) Some of these individuals escaped slavery or otherwise won their freedom
and went to northern Mexico. (9) Each group taught the
other its skills: Blacks taught vaqueros how to control cattle, and vaqueros taught African Americans horseback
riding and roping. (10) Some of the best cowboys to work
the ranches of Texas came from this group.
Sentence 1
Sentence 2
Sentence 3
Sentence 4
Sentence 8
(A) (As it is now)
(B) to minimize African Americans in their creative
participation in the cattle industry
(C) to minimize African Americans’ participation in
the creation of the cattle industry
(D) minimizing African Americans in their creative
participation in the cattle industry
(E) minimizing the creative participation of African
Americans in the cattle industry
32 Which of the following would be the most suitable
sentence to insert immediately after sentence 8?
(A) Northern Mexico had an active cowboy culture.
(B) There they met the vaqueros, or Mexican
horsemen.
(C) Others went to the ranches of the American
Midwest.
(D) It was there that African Americans proved
themselves as cowboys.
(E) Vaqueros, or Mexican cowboys, had no experience
of slavery.
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01_SAT 2005 Sample Test S1
8/26/03
10:16 AM
Page 14
Section 1
1
Directions: The following sentences test your knowledge of grammar, usage, diction (choice of words), and idiom.
Some sentences are correct. No sentence contains more than one error.
You will find that the error, if there is one, is underlined and lettered. Elements of the same sentence that are not underlined
will not be changed. In choosing answers, follow the requirements of standard written English.
If there is an error, select the one underlined part that must be changed to make the sentence correct and fill in the corresponding oval on your answer sheet.
If there is no error, fill in answer oval
E
.
EXAMPLE:
SAMPLE ANSWER
A
B
C
D
E
Whenever one is driving late at night, you must take extra precautions against
A
B
C
falling asleep at the wheel. No error.
D
E
33 Environmentalists hope that in the future there will be
A
less cars on the road and, therefore, less air pollution.
B
C
D
No error.
E
34 The advertiser promised that the new cream would
A
reduce wrinkles, smooth skin, but shrink pores.
B
C
D
No error.
E
36 Mountain climbers are eager to reach the peak of Mt.
A
Everest because it’s taller than any mountain. No error.
B
C
D
E
37 Ascetics care neither for the pleasures of this world
A
B
or its rewards. No error.
C D
E
38 Lost in a snowstorm and low on food, the three skiers
A
B
had to share one granola bar between them. No error.
C
D
E
35 According to local legend, if a tourist throws a coin
A
B
into the Trevi Fountain in Rome, they will return to
C D
the city. No error.
E
IF YOU FINISH BEFORE TIME IS CALLED, YOU MAY CHECK YOUR WORK ON
THIS SECTION ONLY. DO NOT TURN TO ANY OTHER SECTION IN THE TEST.
- 14 -
STOP
01_SAT 2005 Sample Test S1
8/26/03
10:16 AM
Page 15
NO TEST MATERIAL ON THIS PAGE
02_SAT 2005 Sample Test S2
8/26/03
10:16 AM
Page 16
Section 2
2 2
Directions: In this section solve each problem, using any available space on the page for
scratchwork. Then decide which is the best of the choices given and fill in the corresponding
oval on the answer sheet.
Time—25 Minutes
21 Questions
Notes:
1. The use of a calculator is permitted. All numbers used are real numbers.
Information
2. Figures that accompany problems in this test are intended to provide information useful in solving the problems. They are
drawn as accurately as possible EXCEPT when it is stated in a specific problem that the figure is not drawn to scale. All figures lie in a plane unless otherwise indicated.
h
a
b
1
A = ᎏ bh
2
c
b
c2 = a2 + b2
2x
60˚
x
r
苶s
s 45˚ 兹2
30˚
45˚
s
兹3
苶x
Special Right Triangles
A = πr2
C = 2πr
r
h
w
V = wh
h
V = πr2h
w
A = w
The sum of the degree measures of the angles of a triangle is 180.
The number of degrees of arc in a circle is 360.
A straight angle has a degree measure of 180.
Annual Sales at a Clothing Store
2
(A) 12
(B) 9
(C) 6
(D) 4
(E) 3
Other
25%
Casual
clothing
25%
A certain printer takes 4 minutes to print file A and 5
minutes to print file B. In one hour, how many more
copies of file A can be printed than of file B?
Business
clothing
50%
3y°
1
If the store’s sales represented in the graph above
totaled $1.8 million, what were the sales to purchasers
of casual clothing?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
X°
60°
X°
Figure I
3
$180,000
$225,000
$360,000
$450,000
$900,000
y°
X°
Figure II
Based on the information in Figure I above, what is the
value of y in figure II?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
120
75
60
45
30
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02_SAT 2005 Sample Test S2
8/26/03
10:16 AM
Page 17
Section 2
4
In a certain solution of water and syrup, the ratio by
volume of the amount of water to the amount of syrup
is 8 to 5. If the volume of the syrup is 40 cubic inches,
what is the volume, in cubic inches, of the water?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
5
6
4 –3
( )
If n > 0 and 8 n
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
24
25
40
64
104
If xy = 16, where x and y are positive integers and x < y,
what is the value of x – y?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
2 2
7
123
8
43
4
23
If f(x) = x2 – x and g(x) = x2 – 1, what is the value of
f (g(3))?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
–2
–1
0
1
2
3
= (2–n) 4 , then n equals
35
48
56
60
61
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- 17 -
02_SAT 2005 Sample Test S2
8/26/03
10:16 AM
Page 18
Section 2
P
–1
8
X
R
0
S
Y
T
10
x, y, z, 65
In the sequence of positive integers above, each term,
starting with the second, is one less than double the
previous term. What is the value of x?
1
On the number line above, each of the letters P, Q, R, S,
and T corresponds to a different number. Which of
those letters could correspond to the value of XY?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
9
Q
2 2
(A) 1
(B) 7.25
(C) 9
(D) 17
(E) 525
P
Q
R
S
T
If 5a – 2 > 41, which of the following describes all
possible values of a?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
B
a > 8.6
a > 7.8
a = 7.8
a < 7.8
a < 8.6
C
O
A
D
11 In the figure above, square ABCD is inscribed in the
circle with center O and radius 32. What is the
perimeter of square ABCD?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
9
12
18
24
36
GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE
- 18 -
02_SAT 2005 Sample Test S2
8/26/03
10:16 AM
Page 19
Section 2
2 2
12 If the average (arithmetic mean) of a, b, and c is z, what
is the average of a and b in terms of c and z?
z–c
(A) 2
z+c
(B) 2
3z – c
(C) 2
(D) 3z – c
(E) 3z + c
Y
X
Z
14 In the figure above, each triangle is equilateral. If
triangle XYZ has area 75, what is the sum of the areas of
the shaded triangles?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
13 In a list of 24 different numbers, 18 of the numbers are
less than 12, and 12 of the numbers are greater than 6.
How many of these numbers are both greater than 6
and less than 12?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
25
30
32.5
37.5
45
15 In the xy-coordinate plane, if both x and y are integers,
how many points (x,y) lie on the line 3x + 6y = 29?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
6
8
10
12
14
None
One
Two
Four
Infinitely many
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- 19 -
02_SAT 2005 Sample Test S2
8/26/03
10:16 AM
Page 20
Section 2
16 Jon is d inches tall and he is d inches taller than Ali.
3
What is Ali’s height in terms of d?
(A) d
3
d
(B) 2
2
(C) d
3
3
(D) d
2
(E) 2d
2 2
I.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
III.
18 Which of the figures above contains at least one line of
symmetry?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
17 Let a be defined as the number of positive odd integers
that are less than or equal to a. What is the value of
17 – 13 ?
II.
I only
I and II only
I and III only
II and III only
I, II, and III
19 The sum of four different negative integers equals –12.
What is the least value that one of these integers could
have?
4
3
2
1
0
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
–9
–6
–4
–3
–2
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- 20 -
02_SAT 2005 Sample Test S2
8/26/03
10:16 AM
Page 21
Section 2
20 In order for a piece of luggage to fit in the overhead
compartment of a certain airplane, the sum of the
height of the luggage and the perimeter of the base of
the luggage must be less than or equal to 124 inches. If a
piece of luggage has height 40 inches and width 18
inches, what is the maximum possible length of the
luggage?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
2 2
21
76 inches
48 inches
36 inches
33 inches
24 inches
In the figure above, a smaller circle is inscribed in a
square, which is inscribed in a larger circle. If a point on
the figure is chosen at random, what is the probability
that the point is in the shaded area?
(A) 1
4π
4–π
(B) 2π
π–1
(C) 2π
π–2
(D) π
(E) 2
π
IF YOU FINISH BEFORE TIME IS CALLED, YOU MAY CHECK YOUR WORK ON
THIS SECTION ONLY. DO NOT TURN TO ANY OTHER SECTION IN THE TEST.
- 21 -
STOP
03_SAT 2005 Sample Test S3
8/26/03
10:15 AM
Page 22
Section 3
3 3 3
Directions: In this section solve each problem, using any available space on the page for
scratchwork. Then decide which is the best of the choices given and fill in the corresponding
oval on the answer sheet.
Time—25 Minutes
25 Questions
Notes:
1. The use of a calculator is permitted. All numbers used are real numbers.
Information
2. Figures that accompany problems in this test are intended to provide information useful in solving the problems. They are
drawn as accurately as possible EXCEPT when it is stated in a specific problem that the figure is not drawn to scale. All figures lie in a plane unless otherwise indicated.
1
h
b
1
A = bh
2
a
c
b
c2 = a2 + b2
2x
60˚
x
r
苶s
s 45˚ 兹2
30˚
45˚
s
兹3
苶x
Special Right Triangles
A = πr2
C = 2πr
w
V = wh
h
V = πr2h
w
A = w
The sum of the degree measures of the angles of a triangle is 180.
The number of degrees of arc in a circle is 360.
A straight angle has a degree measure of 180.
3a + b = 10 and b = 2a, then a =
(A) 10
(B) 2
(C) 1
(D) 1
2
(E) 1
5
2
r
h
If it takes Kate 8 hours working at a constant rate to
write a term paper, what portion of the paper is written
in 3 hours?
1
(A) 24
1
(B) 8
2
(C) 11
3
(D) 8
5
(E) 8
r°
40°
s°
3
Three lines intersect in the figure above. What is the
value of r + s?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
40
60
80
120
140
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- 22 -
03_SAT 2005 Sample Test S3
8/26/03
10:15 AM
Page 23
Section 3
4
3 3 3
6
If 6n + 8 = 26, then 6n – 8 =
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
0
8
10
18
34
The ratio of 12 to 5 is equal to the ratio of 60 to what
number?
(A) 1
(B) 5
(C) 10
(D) 25
(E) 144
7
y
0
x
What number increased by 12 equals four times the
number?
(A) –4
(B) –3
2
(C) 1
5
(D) 4
(E) 36
P
(–2, –3)
5
In the figure above, a line is to be drawn through point
P so that it never crosses the y-axis. Through which of
the following points must the line pass?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
(3, 2)
(3, –2)
(2, 3)
(2, –3)
(–2, 3)
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- 23 -
03_SAT 2005 Sample Test S3
8/26/03
10:15 AM
Page 24
Section 3
3 3 3
y
(0, 10) x
P
Q
R
y (3, 10)
O
Note: Figure not drawn to scale.
O
8
What is the area of rectangle OXYZ in the figure above?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
9
x
z (3, 0)
9
13
15
30
100
The distance from Fultontown to Waterton is 11 miles
and the distance from Waterton to Bingham is 7 miles.
Assuming that Fultontown, Waterton, and Bingham do
not lie in a straight line, which of the following could be
the distance, in miles, from Bingham to Fultontown?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
17
18
19
20
21
10 In the figure above, the area of the circle with center O
is π. If PQ intersects the circle as shown and QR is
4
equal to the diameter of the circle, the value of PQ × QR
could be which of the following?
I. 1
4
II. 3
4
III. 1
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
I only
II only
III only
I and II only
I, II, and III
11 Each of the following is within both the domain and the
range of f(x) = 12 EXCEPT
1–x
(A) 5
(B) 4
(C) 3
(D) 2
(E) 1
GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE
- 24 -
03_SAT 2005 Sample Test S3
8/26/03
10:15 AM
Page 25
Section 3
3 3 3
12 Set P contains only the integers 51 through 90. If a
number is selected at random from P, what is the
probably that the number selected will be greater
than 80?
(A) 1
4
(B) 1
3
(C) 1
2
(D) 2
3
(E) 3
4
14 If a = 1 of b and b is 3 of c, what is the value of a?
5
2
c
1
(A) 5
(B) 3
10
(C) 2
5
(D) 3
5
5
(E) 1
2
13 If an integer n is divisible by 3, 4, 9, and 12, what is the
next larger integer divisible by these numbers?
15 If 3x = 4, then 33x =
(A) 108
(B) 64
(C) 36
(D) 27
(E) 12
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
n+6
n + 12
n + 24
n + 36
n + 72
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- 25 -
03_SAT 2005 Sample Test S3
8/26/03
10:15 AM
Page 26
Section 3
3 3 3
Directions for Student-Produced Response Questions
For each of the questions below (16–25), solve the problem and indicate your answer by darkening the ovals in
the special grid. For example:
5
Answer: 1.25 or 4
Write answer
in boxes.
.
Grid in
result
Fraction
line
•
{
.
.
.
0
0
0
1
1
1
1
2
2
2
3
3
3
4
4
5
6
.
.
.
.
0
0
0
1
1
1
1
2
2
2
2
3
3
3
3
4
4
4
4
5
5
5
5
5
6
6
6
7
7
7
7
8
8
8
8
9
9
9
9
.
.
.
.
0
0
0
1
1
1
1
2
2
2
2
2
3
3
3
3
3
4
4
4
4
4
4
5
5
5
5
5
Decimal
point
You may start your answers in any
column, space permitting. Columns
not needed should be left blank.
Either position is correct.
• It is recommended, though not required, that you
write your answer in the boxes at the top of the
columns. However, you will receive credit only
for darkening the ovals correctly.
• Grid only one answer to a question, even though
some problems have more than one correct
answer.
• Decimal Accuracy: Decimal answers must be
entered as accurately as possible. For example,
if you obtain an answer such as 0.1666. . ., you
should record the result as .166 or .167. Less
accurate values such as .16 or .17 are not
acceptable.
1
Acceptable ways to grid =.1666. . .
6
• Darken no more than one oval in a column.
• No answers are negative.
• Mixed numbers cannot be gridded. For example:
1 must be gridded as 1.25 or 5/4.
the number 1 4
(If
is gridded, it will be interpreted as
•
.
.
.
.
0
0
0
1
1
1
1
2
2
2
2
3
3
3
4
4
5
6
1
11
not 1 .)
4
4
16 If a + 3 = 7 – b, what is the value of 5(a + b)?
.
•
.
.
.
0
0
0
1
1
1
1
2
2
2
2
3
3
3
3
4
4
4
4
5
5
5
5
6
6
6
6
.
.
.
.
0
0
0
1
1
1
1
2
2
2
2
3
3
3
3
3
4
4
4
4
4
4
5
5
5
5
5
5
5
6
6
6
6
6
6
6
7
7
7
17 In isosceles triangle XYZ, XY = YZ and XZ = 10. If the
sum of XY and YZ is less than 18, what is one possible
value of XY?
GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE
- 26 -
03_SAT 2005 Sample Test S3
8/26/03
10:15 AM
Page 27
Section 3
3 3 3
9
5
6
2
7
x 11
w
4
6
2
v
y
8
z
20 When the water in a certain tank is poured into
containers that hold 5 ounces of water each, the water
fills 120 containers. If instead the water had been
poured into containers that hold 3 ounces each, how
many such containers would be filled?
v
18 In the grid above, the sum of the values in each row is
21, and the sum of the values in each column is also 21.
What is the value of z?
21 If x = –1 satisfies the equation x2 – 4x – c = 0, where c is
a constant, what is another value of x that satisfies the
equation?
A
t°
B
C
19 In the figure above, point B lies on line and right
angle ABC is bisected by line . What is the value of t?
GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE
- 27 -
03_SAT 2005 Sample Test S3
8/26/03
10:15 AM
Page 28
Section 3
22 The sum of three consecutive odd integers is 3,045.
What is the greatest integer of the three?
23 During a tournament, each of the 10 members of a
certain chess club plays every other member exactly
three times. How many games occur during the
tournament?
3 3 3
24 Ambrose, working alone, can paint a certain room in 8
hours. Either one of Benedict or Charles, working
alone, can paint the room in 4 hours. If all three people,
working at these rates, work together to paint the room,
what fraction of the room is painted by Ambrose?
y
X
Y
Z
x
0
Note: Figure not drawn to scale.
25 In the figure above, three adjacent squares each have
one side on the x-axis. The squares with vertices X, Y,
and Z have areas r2, 16, and 25, respectively, and
vertices X, Y, and Z lie on line . What is the value of r?
IF YOU FINISH BEFORE TIME IS CALLED, YOU MAY CHECK YOUR WORK ON
THIS SECTION ONLY. DO NOT TURN TO ANY OTHER SECTION IN THE TEST.
STOP
03_SAT 2005 Sample Test S3
8/26/03
10:15 AM
Page 29
NO TEST MATERIAL ON THIS PAGE
04_SAT 2005 Sample Test S4
8/26/03
10:15 AM
Page 30
Section 4
Time—25 Minutes
27 Questions
4 4 4 4
Directions: For each question in this section, select the best answer from among the choices
given and fill in the corresponding oval on the answer sheet.
Each sentence below has one or two blanks, each blank
indicating that something has been omitted. Beneath the
sentence are five words or sets of words labeled A through
E. Choose the word or set of words that, when inserted in
the sentence, best fits the meaning of the sentence as a
whole.
Example:
Jane Austen was known for the ________ of her
observation; she was able to describe the characters of
her novels with amazing insight and detail.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
1
B
C
D
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
5
6
obedient
stubborn
massive
spirited
abrupt
satisfy . . rejected
maximize . . suppressed
diminish . . restricted
perpetuate . . upheld
glorify . . reformed
lauded . . enchanting
criticized . . mundane
disliked . . fictional
predicted . . memorable
obscured . . depraved
So ---- were fans that the team had won the
championship that ---- reaction occurred when the
captain was presented with the trophy.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
8
mixed . . aggravate
negative . . encourage
positive . . dissuade
divergent . . appease
unanimous . . satiate
The reviewer ---- the novel, claiming that the plot was
implausible and the characters ---- .
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
7
creative
vexatious
dismaying
controversial
pertinent
The company’s new ban on workplace smoking has
received ---- responses because, though introduced to
---- vociferous protests by a few workers, a majority of
workers are in fact regular smokers.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
skepticism . . a vital
conscientiousness . . an interesting
doubt . . an unnecessary
unhappiness . . an erratic
certainty . . untimely
Critics of censorship laws argue that, in order to ---the integrity of art and literature, freedom of
expression should never be ---- or controlled.
The current legislation is so ---- that Congress is
polarized between people who strongly oppose the
new bill and those who support it.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
E
The instructor advised her new student to learn riding
on a docile horse, as they tend to be more ---- .
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
3
A
While the new subway system was initially met with
----, pleased city inhabitants now consider it ---- means
of transportation.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
2
acuity
clairvoyance
assiduousness
depravity
furtiveness
4
dejected . . a boisterous
enthralled . . a distressing
befuddled . . an anxious
enraged . . a cacophonous
elated . . a raucous
Although the presidential candidate was ---- repeatedly
by his opponent, he refused to ---- and instead focused
on only the issues of the election.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
extolled . . prevaricate
derided . . capitulate
slandered . . reciprocate
admired . . relinquish
vindicated . . submit
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- 30 -
04_SAT 2005 Sample Test S4
8/26/03
10:15 AM
Page 31
Section 4
4 4 4 4
Each passage below is followed by questions based on its content. Answer the questions on the basis of what is stated or
implied in the passage and in any introductory material that may be provided.
Questions 9–10 are based on the following passage.
Line
(5)
(10)
Proper removal of material from surfaces, such as
walls or other objects made of brick or stone, is not a
simple task, but one that requires surprisingly complex
consideration. Understanding the characteristics of the
type of material being removed, for example, is as
important to the project’s success as knowing the wall
or object’s surface; a technician must have studied both
before devising a strategy for restoring a surface. An
inappropriate method—the 1843 “cleaning” of
Michelangelo’s masterwork David with hydrochloric
acid, which removed the sculpture’s original patina, is
just one of history’s many egregious examples—could
be as ineffective as it is harmful.
9
The reference to a technician (line 7) primarily serves
to emphasize the
(A) complexity of removing materials properly
(B) lack of training required to restore a surface
(C) credentials of the person who restored
Michelangelo’s David
(D) importance of preserving a sculpture’s patina
(E) requirement that a restorer know a wall or object’s
surface
10
The use of quotations marks around the word
“cleaning” (line 9) primarily serves to
(A) argue that the sculpture did not need to be
restored
(B) differentiate between a cleaning and a restoration
(C) suggest that the sculpture is still dirty
(D) challenge the method used to clean the sculpture
(E) suggest that a technician did not consider the
project carefully
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- 31 -
04_SAT 2005 Sample Test S4
8/26/03
10:15 AM
Page 32
Section 4
4 4 4 4
Questions 11-21 are based on the following passage.
(50)
How closely does a portrait’s likeness resemble its sitter—
even when that likeness is the painter’s own face? An art
critic discusses the subject in the following passage.
Line
(5)
(10)
(15)
(20)
(25)
(30)
(35)
(40)
(45)
Why do portraits of the same person hardly ever look
quite the same? There are two conflicting objectives in the
art of portraiture. There are at once a desire to render the
subject of the portrait accurately and a desire to transform,
interpret, or idealize the subject. Portraiture is always
interpretive, because the process of painting someone
involves two mentally, emotionally, and psychologically
unique individuals. Even when two artists consider
themselves “realist” portrait painters, the end results are
often amazingly disparate. Portraits have relative degrees
of objectivity and subjectivity, not simply one extreme or
another.
Portraiture is different from other art forms in that part
of the artist’s creative powers must inevitably answer to
another person: the sitter. The artist might not be overtly
trying to flatter his sitter, but he must always respond to
him. The sitter might be an important patron, who,
especially in past centuries, was the artist’s sole source of
support. While he may take unlimited liberties in other art
venues, in portraiture the artist has to maintain a servile
position to the sitter.
Portraiture became popular in the sixteenth century for
the first time since the sculptors of ancient Rome
immortalized their leaders. The sixteenth century was an
age of lessened Church authority, strengthened secular
powers and a rising nationalism. It was natural for a king,
who had become both a spiritual and political leader, to
want his image immortalized. Rulers believed that not
only could a well-executed portrait command great
respect, but it could also increase their power and reach.
Projected alliances and proposed marriages were
organized by an exchange of portraits. Therefore, a
portrait was not merely a picture, and the portrait artist
had quite an obligation to his patron. Often the resulting
portraits were grandly conceived compositions, endowing
the sitter with an aura of superior being and nobility.
Antonio Moro, who spent his life in the service of King
Philip II, was a preeminent portrait artist. In fact, Moro is
considered the first in a line of great Spanish court
portraitists. His artistic innovations in depicting great
personages were used again and again in Spanish court
portraits down to Velasquez. Even the most prominent
portrait artists of the Netherlands didn’t come close to his
ability to render such distinguished likenesses of great
people. Prior to Moro, portraits were usually limited to a
bust or waist-length views. Moro’s portraits, however, are
grander and usually include more of the sitter’s body, in
some cases down to the knee. Moro painted his sitter with
(55)
(60)
(65)
(70)
(75)
(80)
(85)
carefully and objectively observed features, but he also
instilled a personal viewpoint of the sitter. When we
compare, for example, a portrait of King Henry VIII by
the artist Hans Holbein with a Moro portrait, we see that
Holbein emphasizes draftsmanship, shape, and contour.
King Henry is rigidly positioned in a full frontal view and
his expression is rather dry. Moro retains some of this
formalism but adopts a painterly freshness from portrait
to portrait. In the powerful portrait of the Duke of Alba,
executed in 1549, Moro was inspired by the great Venetian
painter, Titian, who painted the duke the previous year.
Moro utilizes a dramatic three-quarter pose of a brutal,
tyrannical man. Alba’s shrewd, terrible character comes
through subtly and not through any overt act or gesture.
He is clad in armor and his right hand grasps a military
staff. His expression is stern and cold, and this harshness
contrasts sharply with the delicacy of his soft, white collar.
The Duke’s direct gaze at the spectator shows a selfassured general who is as inaccessible to us as he was to the
people he oppressed. The Duke of Alba must have been
rather impressed with the resulting portraits, because years
later, when he was Governor of the Netherlands, he would
hold back the King’s invitations to Moro to come to court
in order to keep Moro working for him.
If producing a portrait to please a demanding patron is
not hard enough, imagine the difficulty an artist has when
producing a likeness of himself or herself. The difference is
that in self-portraiture the artist is free from the restraints
of working for someone else. Self-portraits give the artist
an opportunity to make an extremely flattering statement
or to show the viewer the most introspective view of his or
her character. Perhaps the greatest example of this genre is
the body of nearly 80 introspective self-portraits produced
by Rembrandt. He created a comprehensive psychological
autobiography that traced his life from joyful youth to
agonized old age. When faced with his or her own
countenance in the mirror, the artist’s vision is sometimes
just as distorted as it is when he or she is drawing another
subject. The artist, it seems, will always be subject to
opinions, doubts, and feelings, even when he or she is the
subject of the portrait.
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Page 33
Section 4
11 The primary purpose of the passage is to
(A) trace the history of portraiture throughout the ages
(B) define the difference between portraiture and selfportraiture
(C) describe the works of several major portraitists
(D) describe how portraiture tends to balance
subjectivity with objectivity
(E) summarize the history of court portraiture in 16th
Century Europe
4 4 4 4
16 Which statement best expresses the author’s opinion of
Moro’s portraits?
(A) He made significant contributions to the
developing art of portraiture.
(B) His portraits are superior to his landscapes.
(C) He based his portrait of the Duke of Alba
exclusively on a similar portrait produced by
Titian.
(D) He was the greatest portrait artist of his day in
Spain.
(E) Although dramatic, his portraits lack the
draftsmanship of those by Holbein.
12 As used in line 3,“render” most nearly means
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
give
represent
supply
transpose
yield
17 What is the author’s purpose in discussing Rembrandt
in the last paragraph?
(A) to show by example how a great artist was able to
document his life using portraiture
(B) to demonstrate that self-portraiture isn’t very
different from portraiture of a sitter in that each
can be influenced by the artist’s feelings
(C) to establish that portraiture was the preferred
genre of Rembrandt
(D) to prove that an artist is the best judge of his own
character
(E) to provide evidence that Rembrandt had an easier
time with his own portrait than he had with
those of other sitters
13 According to the passage, one reason for the rise of
portraiture in the sixteenth century is that
(A) there was a resurgence of interest in the portraits
of antiquity
(B) everyday people became more obsessed with their
appearance
(C) portraits played a key role in royal wedding
ceremonies
(D) artists felt they could be more expressive in the
portrait genre
(E) rulers believed that portraits could reflect and
enhance their power
18 According to the passage, in the sixteenth century
portraits were used to
14 The author characterizes the Duke of Alba
(lines 60–68) as
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
handsome and young
intelligent and refined
cold and calculating
kind-hearted and generous
contemplative and serene
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
allow the artist to take artistic liberties
keep portrait artists in a subservient position
suppress nationalistic fervor
help arrange alliances
lessen the authority of the Church
19 Which of the following is NOT a claim about Moro’s
portraits made by the author in the fourth paragraph?
15 According to the passage, how is a Rembrandt portrait
different from a Holbein portrait?
(A) Moro’s portraits are careful and objective
renderings of the sitter.
(B) They presented Moro’s personal view of the sitter.
(C) They depicted more of the sitter’s body than did
those of other portrait artists.
(D) Moro’s portraits have formalistic elements.
(E) They traced the sitter’s life from youth to old age.
(A) Rembrandt was not as eager to paint kings as
Holbein was.
(B) Holbein’s portraits are stiffer and more formal
than Rembrandt’s.
(C) Rembrandt was a more competent portraitist
because his body of work was larger.
(D) Holbein’s work shows far less emotional
detachment than Rembrandt’s work.
(E) Rembrandt concentrated on portraiture whereas
Holbein’s King Henry portrait was one of only a
few done by the artist in this genre.
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Page 34
Section 4
20 The passage mentions which of the following reasons
for the differences among portraits of the same person
painted by different artists?
4 4 4 4
21 According to the passage (lines 75–80) the difference
between painting a self-portrait and painting a portrait
of another person is that the artist
(A) Portraits are the result of the artist’s interpretation
of the sitter.
(B) Portraits are entirely subjective.
(C) Portraiture is different from other art forms.
(D) The portrait artist had specific obligations to his
patron.
(E) Realist artists are incapable of producing similar
works on different subjects.
(A) has a less distorted view of himself than he does of
another person
(B) is less subject to doubts when he does a self
portrait
(C) is free from the limitations he encounters when he
is painting someone else
(D) knows that self-portraits will never be used to form
alliances as will those of other sitters
(E) can paint himself throughout his life
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Page 35
Section 4
Questions 22–25 are based on the following passage.
4 4 4 4
22
The following paragraphs were adapted from accounts by
two different scientists about the myth of the infallibility of
scientists.
Line
(5)
(10)
(15)
(20)
(25)
Scientist 1: The fairy tale of the infallible scientist
swiftly evaporates when one ponders the number of great
scientific ideas whose originators were only correct in
general, not in detail. For example, the British biologist
Charles Darwin accurately dismissed the theories of
evolution held by the ancients. However, even the
venerated Darwin was mistaken in the particulars of
evolutionary theory. Similarly, the physicist Albert
Einstein is justly heralded for his success, the advent of
modern physics, but he too was mistaken about several
details, in particular the specifics of black hole formation.
The author of the first paragraph uses the phrase “fairy
tale” (line 1) to emphasize which of the following?
(A) The prevalence of science fiction stories in popular
literature
(B) His disdain for faultless scientists
(C) The untenability of any scientific theory of evolution
(D) The falsity of the popular belief that scientists’
theories are always right
(E) The extent of the mythological status of Darwin and
Einstein
23
Scientist 2: It is commonly believed that great scientists
are faultless. Although some come close, none are perfect.
24
Furthermore, even the most gifted succeed only with the
aid of luck. Ivan Pavlov, the founder of psychological
models of learning, epitomizes the reliance of successful
scientists on luck. Pavlov’s mathematical analysis of
behavior acquisition and extinction in dogs led him to
conclude that stimulus and response associations were at
the root of animal learning. Luck was with Pavlov in his
choice of behaviors and animals to study, because the
behaviors and animals he selected were each explainable
by his model of classical conditioning. Thus, Pavlov
25
successfully extrapolated a general theory of animal
learning without the messy details of higher level learning.
The probability of making such a favorable choice at
random is only about 1 in 123!
In line 9, “heralded” most nearly means
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
chastised
perplexed
celebrated
immortalized
denigrated
The second scientist’s attitude toward the idea of the
existence of faultless scientists can best be described as
one of
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
veneration
rejection
exasperation
puzzlement
indignation
Both paragraphs indicate that scientific success can be
achieved WITHOUT
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
careful experimental design
collaboration with established scientists
complete accuracy about the details of a theory
the assistance of luck
questioning the beliefs of ancient scientists
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Page 36
Section 4
Questions 26–27 are based on the following passage.
Line
(5)
(10)
4 4 4 4
26
The use of digital technology in media industries is
taken for granted in the twenty-first century. A modern
seven-year-old child has likely seen numerous animated
and even live-action movies made entirely, or in large part,
by computers. This same hypothetical child has learned
early lessons from CD-ROMs and websites and may even
communicate with friends and relatives using e-mail and
instant messages. Just a generation ago, even adults wrote 27
letters with pen and paper, studied exclusively with
textbooks, and cheered the state-of-the-art special effects
in the movie Star Wars, which were created largely using
traditional photographic, rather than digital, techniques.
The author of the passage refers to a “seven-year-old
child” in the second sentence primarily in order to
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
contradict a common perception
emphasize the breadth of a change
imply that an opinion is misguided
broach a difficult subject
argue against an assumption
The use of the word “cheered” in line 10 serves primarily
to emphasize the
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
excitement of attending movies
popularity of movies that have special-effects
lack of sophistication of previous generations
pleasure provided by pre-digital technology
differing reactions to technology a generation ago
IF YOU FINISH BEFORE TIME IS CALLED, YOU MAY CHECK YOUR WORK ON
THIS SECTION ONLY. DO NOT TURN TO ANY OTHER SECTION IN THE TEST.
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8/26/03
10:15 AM
Page 37
NO TEST MATERIAL ON THIS PAGE
05_SAT 2005 Sample Test S5
8/26/03
10:14 AM
Page 38
Section 5
Time—25 Minutes
28 Questions
5 5 5 5 5
Directions: For each question in this section, select the best answer from among the choices
given and fill in the corresponding oval on the answer sheet.
Each sentence below has one or two blanks, each blank
indicating that something has been omitted. Beneath the
sentence are five words or sets of words labeled A through
E. Choose the word or set of words that, when inserted in
the sentence, best fits the meaning of the sentence as a
whole.
Example:
Jane Austen was known for the ________ of her
observation; she was able to describe the characters of
her novels with amazing insight and detail.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
1
B
C
D
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
5
6
7
privileged in
accustomed to
incapable of
ashamed to
deceived into
rectilinear
grimy
festive
gigantic
efficient
Amber’s organic origins are suggested by its ----; unlike
most gemstones, it floats in water.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
8
a confusing
an aural
a captious
a cultural
an ennobling
The graceful curves of the Colonial-Era buildings that
dominated the old part of the city contrasted sharply
with the modern, ---- subway stations and made the
latter appear glaringly out of place.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
steady . . waned
acute . . persisted
unclear . . shifted
obvious . . endured
pressing . . remained
intrepid . . vanguard
pedestrian . . infantry
chivalrous . . cavalry
craven . . onslaught
courageous . . reserves
If attending one of Shakespeare’s plays is, essentially,
---- experience, then it is amazing how often one must
strain to hear the actors speak the words.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
mock
mark
ape
plan
spot
After several hours in the cave, the spelunker’s vision
had become so adjusted to the dark that she was ---discerning objects in the sunlight.
Only the most ---- soldiers volunteered to be in the
----, since the first to attack were the most likely to be
wounded or killed.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
E
Although the risk of a nuclear accident remained
----, the public’s concern about such an accident
gradually ----.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
3
A
The professor’s students admired him so much that
they would ---- his mannerisms and style of dress.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
2
acuity
clairvoyance
assiduousness
depravity
furtiveness
4
consistency
luster
composition
rarity
buoyancy
According to the popular conception of the scientific
process, scientists assemble a complete array of relevant
facts, evaluate them according to universal rules of
logic, and reach conclusions that are ----.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
dictatorial
invaluable
heterodox
contested
categorical
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Page 39
Section 5
5 5 5 5 5
Each passage below is followed by questions based on its content. Answer the questions on the basis of what is stated or
implied in the passage and in any introductory material that may be provided.
Questions 9–13 are based on the following passage.
The following is an excerpt from a book written on
communication in tropical frog species.
Line
(5)
(10)
(15)
(20)
(25)
(30)
(35)
(40)
Males of tropical frog species use vocal
communication to alert females to their presence in
hopes of finding a potential mate. In dense tropical
rainforests, home to a plethora of sound-signaling
creatures, it becomes vital for each species of frog not
only to make its calls heard, but also to ensure that the
correct species of frog hears the signal. Tropical frogs
have evolved behavioral and physiological adaptations
to address both of these concerns.
The greatest challenge facing male frogs is the ability
to differentiate their calls from the calls of other species
of frogs in the vicinity. To ensure that the appropriate
species of female frog responds, each species transmits
its call at a distinct frequency. This technique, called
spectral separation, is much like different radio stations
broadcasting in a city. The frequency of the call,
because it is determined both by body size and by
climate, varies across a broad range. Larger frogs tend
to emit calls at lower frequencies, and frogs living in
lower temperatures call at slower rates because the cold
inhibits rapid muscle movement.
To distinguish between individuals, frogs have
evolved a time-sharing mechanism whereby they
restrict their calls according to a certain time of day or
to small windows of time when no other frogs are
calling. With thousands of calls being emitted, how can
a frog predict when a window of time will open? In one
experiment, male frogs were presented with recorded
calls from other males at a period of every few seconds.
The male frogs in the experiment learned to call within
the window of silence. When the window was reduced
to a gap lasting only a fraction of a second, males were
still able to reset the timing of their own calls to within
the window, suggesting that frogs are able to reset their
vocal muscles according to the periodicity of
external calls.
Beyond adaptation of their calls, frogs must have a
means to cope with the intensity of the calls they
generate. A male coqui calls at an intensity equal
almost to the clamor created by a jackhammer. Given
that males call during most of the day for 11 months
(45)
(50)
(55)
(60)
9
out of the year, frogs must have a means to protect
themselves from being made deaf by their own calls.
Investigation of the frog’s eardrum elucidated how this
was possible. Unlike the ear structure of mammals, in
which the eardrum receives pressure only from the
outside while the inside pressure of the ear remains
constant, frogs receive sound both externally and
internally; that is, the eardrum of a frog receives
vibrations by hearing the frog’s own call and by
receiving vibrations traveling up to the eardrum
internally from the vocal chords. Usually, the sound
being emitted internally from the vocal chords will
coincide with the external vibrations and nullify their
effect. As an added protection, when the male prepares
to emit a call, the air stored in his mouth is pushed
across his vocal chords to produce the call. The stored
air pressure forces the eardrum to stretch, minimizing
the amount the eardrum can vibrate and effectively
buffering the frog from hearing his own call in its full
intensity.
The primary purpose of this passage is to
(A) prove that frogs communicate with each other
(B) show that frogs are intelligent creatures
(C) discuss how frogs are able to communicate
effectively
(D) explain the frog’s unique ear structure
(E) investigate new methods of researching frog
behavior
10
All of the following are discussed as mechanisms
developed by frogs for communication purposes
EXCEPT
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
spectral separation
time sharing
ground vibrations
ear structure
eardrum stretching
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Page 40
Section 5
11
12
In line 18 the word “range” most nearly means
Questions 14–15 are based on the following passage.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
Many Americans know hula, the traditional Hawaiian
dance characterized by swaying hips and graceful
movements of the arms and hands, only from tourism and
television programs. To Hawaiians, however, hula is a
powerful symbol of identity and pride. Using the dance as
their medium, ancient Hawaiians passed their legends to
younger generations. American missionaries who arrived
in 1821, however, decried hula as a pagan practice and
banned it. Only during the reign of King David Kalakaua
(1874–1891), who called the dance “the heartbeat of the
Hawaiian people,” was hula restored to its rightful place.
terrain
scale
limit
variety
value
Line
(5)
In line 34 the word “window” most nearly means
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
13
5 5 5 5 5
screen
gap
view
display
glass
The author discusses ear structure of frogs primarily in
order to
(10)
14
The author’s use of the words “only from tourism and
television programs” in lines 3–4 primarily serves to
(A) describe Hawaii’s appeal as a travel destination and
backdrop for entertainment
(B) suggest that many Americans don’t know very much
about hula
(C) propose two methods by which Hawaiians pass
legends to younger generations
(D) provide an explanation for the deep understanding of
hula many Americans have
(E) explain why American missionaries decried and
banned hula
(A) show how frogs protect themselves from their own
calls
(B) prove that spectral separation of calls is not the most
important aspect of frog communication
(C) explain how frogs differ from mammals
(D) disprove the importance of ear structure to a frog’s
ability to communicate
(E) relate the impact of the intensity of a frog’s calls
15
It can be inferred from the passage that the author regards
hula as
(A) a pagan practice that should be banned
(B) light entertainment meant only for tourists
(C) a dance that originated during the reign of King
David Kalakaua
(D) a strong and graceful symbol of pride for the
Hawaiian people
(E) a dance discussed in the legends of Hawaii
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Page 41
Section 5
Questions 16–19 are based on the following paragraphs.
The following passages express two points of view about
Influence Studies, a contested area in the field of literary
criticism.
Line
(5)
(10)
(15)
(20)
(25)
Paragraph 1
Because all works of art are products of influence,
every work of literature can be traced to its sources.
Careful readers can uncover a trail of interconnected
influences that reveal the often complex history of a
literary work and gain insight into the work that could
not be attained by looking at it in isolation. A scientist
who studies icebergs must consider not only their
visible upper part but also their far larger but unseen
underneath. In similar fashion, if one wishes to look
deeply into a literary work, then it is necessary to see
beyond just the work itself and discover the past to
which it is linked.
Paragraph 2
Every work of art is a unique creation. Of course,
connections between works in various media can be
identified. But do they have any real importance? Two
authors, for example, writing in the same period and
place might create works with many similarities
without even being aware of one another’s existence.
The similarities are quite likely to have been caused by
simple circumstance. Fabricating a dubious tale of a
relationship between the two authors based solely on
such “clues” adds nothing to understanding or
appreciating the works. Students of literature must be
taught to respect artworks as integral things, valuable in
and of themselves.
5 5 5 5 5
17 With which of the following statements would the
author of paragraph 2 most strongly disagree?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
Every poem is a unique creation.
Studying a work’s influences is fruitful.
Influence studies should be done away with.
Connections can be found between literary works.
Students must be taught to respect artworks.
18 How would the author of paragraph 1 most likely
respond to the statement “two authors … writing in
the same period and place might create works with
many similarities without even being aware of one
another’s existence” from paragraph 2?
(A) Even without being aware of it, the two authors
must have influenced one another.
(B) Because the two lived in the same period, the same
things influenced both of them.
(C) Because the two lived in the same period, the
authors were affected by the world around them
in the same way.
(D) Had the authors known of one another, they
would have tried to be more original.
(E) This type of accidental similarity has never
occurred in the history of literature.
19 How would the author of paragraph 2 most likely rebut
the following statement in paragraph 1, “if one wishes
to look deeply into a literary work, then it is necessary
to see beyond just the work itself and discover the past
to which it is linked”?
(A) The statement suggests that a study of history, not
literature, is key.
(B) The past may reveal insights into a work, but not
the work’s influences.
(C) Influence of one work on another may exist, but it
isn’t important.
(D) Insights into a work of art can never be gained by
looking at it in isolation.
(E) Studying influence only complicates the
understanding of already difficult literary works.
16 The central argument in paragraph 1 is
(A) Every work of literature must be studied in depth
to gain insight
(B) Even circumstantial parallels between literary
works are useful to critics
(C) The study of influences is essential to understanding a work of art
(D) Even knowing a work’s influences, a student gains
little insight
(E) Literary critics are similar to some scientists
studying icebergs
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Page 42
Section 5
5 5 5 5 5
Questions 20–26 are based on the following passage.
Line
(5)
(10)
(15)
(20)
(25)
(30)
(35)
(40)
(45)
(50)
Today most people know very little about the craft
and art involved in making a quilt. To many, quilts are
an old fashioned way to keep warm. To those who are
lucky enough to have inherited a quilt, it is often
regarded as a family heirloom that can be displayed but
not used because it is both precious and fragile. In
truth there is much more to quilts. Quilts have been
made all over the world, for many reasons, by many
people. Lately they have become a predominately
American art form.
A quilt is basically two pieces of cloth surrounding a
middle layer of batting, which is made of a heavier
material to give warmth and weight, all of which is
stitched together. The outside can be all of one piece
and color or can be pieced together in an infinite
number of colors and patterns. It is in this variation
and invention that quilts move beyond pure utility.
Quilts, like other household textiles, are traditionally
made by women. Historically women have used time
spent sewing and quilting as a time for discussion,
prayer, and community building. At various times,
these groups have been called quilting circles or
quilting bees. Every woman in the group would work
on a quilt, making its production go much more
quickly while at the same time strengthening the bonds
of community. Traditionally one woman would design
and piece the top and then the group would aid in the
actual quilting—the sewing of all three layers together
with small stitches covering the entire surface. The
tradition of sharing the work is particularly strong in
the African American communities in the South and
the small pioneering communities in the West. These
were communities that worked hard for what they had
and often struggled to make ends meet, so the help they
could give each other was both necessary and
appreciated.
Economic hardships in these rural communities
contributed to the great variety of fabric used in the
patterns of their quilts, including old blue jeans,
dresses, and flour sacks. These quilts look very different
from the more affluent art quilter’s work. Art quilters
are more publicly recognized artists who use quilts as
their artistic medium instead of paint or clay, and whose
quilts are often intended for display rather than use.
Some artists, like Faith Ringgold, combine other art
media in their quilts. Ringgold makes story quilts by
painting parts of a story on canvas and then cutting the
canvas into pieces to be used as part of a quilt. She also
uses the quilts as illustrations for children’s books that
tell the stories in another form. On first inspection,
(55)
(60)
(65)
(70)
(75)
(80)
(85)
(90)
(95)
Ringgold’s quilts don’t resemble the work of the
traditional or utilitarian quilters, but both styles of
quilts do have some things in common. They are, of
course, all quilts and so are made with the same basic
techniques. Stories, too, have been told in both
methods of working. Harriet Powers, a woman who
had once been enslaved, told stories in the images she
sewed into her quilts—often a family story or history.
The fabric of a quilt, too, can tell a story as easily as can
a painting. The old work pants and the outgrown
Sunday dress that have been cut and designed to make
part of a quilt tell the story of family and community in
much the same way Ringgold tells stories with her
painting quilts about her neighborhood in New York.
And of course, if need be, all these quilts can keep
someone warm at night as well.
Though Ringgold has been recognized for the
artistry of her work for many years, the creators of
traditional quilts have remained anonymous. In
museums like the Metropolitan Museum of Art in New
York City, displayed quilts are often attributed to
Anonymous if any attribution is noted at all. Recently,
though, the Museum of Fine Arts in Houston put
together a show of quilts from a small town in Alabama
called Gee’s Bend. The quilts were made by 45 women
over a span of 70 years. The women made the quilts for
utilitarian reasons—to keep themselves and their
families warm—but now they are being recognized by
the art world as works of great creativity.
When the quilts were hung on walls instead of
spread on beds, their bold patterns and colors,
designed by generations of Gee’s Bend’s African
American women, surprised some critics by reminding
them of Modernist paintings. It is interesting what a
change of perspective can do to the perception of an
object. The Gee’s Bend quilts were transformed from
things to be used in everyday life into things to be
gazed at as objects of art.
One effect of the exhibit may be to assure the
continuation of the tradition of utilitarian quilt
making. It is doubtful, though, that quilting in any of
its forms will disappear while there is a need for
inexpensive warmth and artistic expression. In truth
the exhibit just reintroduced the rest of the world to the
art of this living tradition. Clearly the history of
quilting is far from finished.
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05_SAT 2005 Sample Test S5
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Page 43
Section 5
20
5 5 5 5 5
24
The information in the passage supports which of the
following distinctions?
I. An art quilter is more likely to be a recognized
public figure than is a utilitarian quilter.
II. Art quilts are made to be interesting or beautiful,
while utilitarian ones are not.
III. Art quilts are not always meant to be used, while
utilitarian quilts are designed for use.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
21
22
25
I only
II only
I and III only
II and III only
I, II, and III
has never made a quilt before
doesn’t know how a quilt is made
has made many quilts in the past
would like instructions on how to make a quilt
has never encountered a quilt
contradict the artistry of the utilitarian quilters
offer another possible venue for quilting
show the public seeing quilting as fine art
show that not all quilters are anonymous
demonstrate the limitations of quilting
The phrase “reintroduced the rest of the world” (line 94)
is used to mean
(A) that the art of quilting had been forgotten by those
outside the world of quilting
(B) that the exhibit brought quilting to people who had
not seen quilting as art
(C) that the world had forgotten quilting and is now
reviving the acquaintance
(D) that quilting had become irrelevant to the rest of the
world again
(E) that the general public had lost touch with quilting for
long enough
26
The tone of the passage suggests that the author
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
23
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
The author’s explanation of a quilt in paragraph 2 assumes
that the reader
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
The discussion of Faith Ringgold and Harriet Powers
(paragraph 5) is used to
Which of the following best fits the definition of a quilt
given in the passage?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
enjoys making various quilts
thinks quilts of both types are unimportant
believes that quilting is a valuable but dying art
is glad utilitarian quilts are receiving recognition
dislikes both utilitarian and art based quilts
an outside cover of fabric sewn to an inner batting
a family heirloom that can keep people warm
an art form created mostly by American women
an artistic and useful way of telling a story
a thick piece of fabric in a pieced cover
In the last sentence of paragraph 4, the word “medium”
most closely means
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
a middle ground
a way of sharing
a material process
a degree of intensity
a method of destruction
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- 43 -
05_SAT 2005 Sample Test S5
8/26/03
10:14 AM
Page 44
Section 5
5 5 5 5 5
27
Questions 27–28 are based on the following passage.
The following paragraph is a consideration of the complexities of dance history.
Line
(5)
(10)
It has often been said that dance is the original art
form. The difficulty is in proving that assertion to be true.
We have evidence as old as ancient Egyptian tomb
paintings. In other parts of Africa, dancing is thought to
predate recorded history. The ancient form of No– theatre
in Japan has always involved elaborate dances. Visual arts
such as vase painting also provide evidence, but piecing
this scattered history together is a challenge. Despite or
perhaps even because of its antiquity, dance, unlike other
art forms such as literature and sculpture, has left us a
meager record from which to construct its history.
The author’s main purpose in mentioning Egyptian tomb
paintings is to
(A) reinforce the idea that dance is an ancient art form
(B) turn the discussion to traditional Egyptian dance
(C) illustrate the significance of tomb paintings on dance
history
(D) compare the history of Egyptian dance to that of
Japanese dance
(E) bridge the gap between art and drama
28
According to the author, vase painting
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
can offer clues about the history of dance
is the only surviving record of dance history
reveals just how ancient the art of dance is
is usually found shattered and must be pieced
together
(E) is not a visual art under the conventional definition
IF YOU FINISH BEFORE TIME IS CALLED, YOU MAY CHECK YOUR WORK ON
THIS SECTION ONLY. DO NOT TURN TO ANY OTHER SECTION IN THE TEST.
- 44 -
STOP
05_SAT 2005 Sample Test S5
8/26/03
10:14 AM
Page 45
NO TEST MATERIAL ON THIS PAGE
06_SAT 2005 Sample Test S6
8/26/03
10:14 AM
Page 46
Section 6
6 6 6 6 6 6
Directions: In this section solve each problem, using any available space on the page for
scratchwork. Then decide which is the best of the choices given and fill in the corresponding
oval on the answer sheet.
Time—20 Minutes
13 Questions
Notes:
1. The use of a calculator is permitted. All numbers used are real numbers.
Information
2. Figures that accompany problems in this test are intended to provide information useful in solving the problems. They are
drawn as accurately as possible EXCEPT when it is stated in a specific problem that the figure is not drawn to scale. All figures lie in a plane unless otherwise indicated.
1
h
b
1
A = ᎏ bh
2
a
c
b
c2 = a2 + b2
2x
60˚
x
r
苶s
s 45˚ 兹2
30˚
45˚
s
兹3
苶x
Special Right Triangles
A = πr2
C = 2πr
r
h
w
V = wh
h
w
A = w
V = πr2h
The sum of the degree measures of the angles of a triangle is 180.
The number of degrees of arc in a circle is 360.
A straight angle has a degree measure of 180.
If 7.708 < x < 7.8, which of the following could be the
value of x?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
50°
80°
7.808
7.907
7.75
7.07
7.88
a°
75°
b°
2
If P, Q, R, and S are four points on a line such that Q is
between P and R, and S is between Q and R, then it
must also be true that
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
3
Q is between P and S
R is between Q and S
S is between P and Q
P is between S and R
P is between Q and R
60°
4
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
If 7n + 4 = 10n – 8, then 4n =
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
In the hexagon above, three diagonals intersect at a
point. What is the value of a + b?
1
4
6
12
16
90
95
100
105
110
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06_SAT 2005 Sample Test S6
8/26/03
10:14 AM
Page 47
Section 6
5
If 1 – x ≥ 1, then x could be any of the following
EXCEPT:
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
6
7
If 175 percent of x is 140, what is x percent of 40?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
–2
–1
0
1
2
If a bowl contains r red marbles and b blue marbles and
no other marbles, what is the ratio of the number of red
marbles to the total number of marbles in the bowl?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
6 6 6 6 6 6
8
r to b
b to r
r to rb
b to (r + b)
r to (r + b)
30
32
42
98
100
If X is the set of positive integers with exactly one prime
factor and Y is the set of integers from 1 to 50 inclusive,
then the intersection of X and Y contains how many
elements?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
15
16
21
23
24
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06_SAT 2005 Sample Test S6
8/26/03
10:14 AM
Page 48
Section 6
9
On a map, 1 inch represents 32 feet. If a certain trail is
2
256 feet long, what is its length, in inches, on the map?
(A) 1
16
(B) 1
4
(C) 3
8
(D) 4
(E) 16
10 If p and q are integers greater than 1, then p12 must be
greater than q48 when p is equal to which of the
following?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
q5
q4
5q
4q
q + 37
6 6 6 6 6 6
11 A set consists of all the positive three-digit integers with
the property that each digit is either a 1 or a 2. For how
many of these three-digit elements of the set is the
average of the units, tens, and the hundreds digit an
integer?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
4
3
2
1
0
12 A certain population of bacteria triples every 3 minutes.
If the number of bacteria in the population initially was
310, what was the number in the population one halfhour later?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
311
10(310)
(103)(310)
320
3100
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06_SAT 2005 Sample Test S6
8/26/03
10:14 AM
Page 49
Section 6
6 6 6 6 6 6
13 An integer n is to be chosen at random from a set of 12
consecutive positive integers. Which of the following
must be less than 1 ?
2
I. The probability that n is the median of the set
II. The probability that n is odd
III. The probability that n is a multiple of 3
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
I only
II only
III only
I and III only
I, II, and III
IF YOU FINISH BEFORE TIME IS CALLED, YOU MAY CHECK YOUR WORK ON
THIS SECTION ONLY. DO NOT TURN TO ANY OTHER SECTION IN THE TEST.
- 49 -
STOP
07_SAT 2005 Sample Test S7
8/26/03
10:14 AM
Page 50
Section 7
Time—20 Minutes
17 Questions
7 7 7 7 7 7 7
Directions: For each question in this section, select the best answer from among the choices
given and fill in the corresponding oval on the answer sheet.
Each passage below is followed by questions based on its content. Answer the questions on the basis of what is stated or
implied in the passage and in any introductory material that may be provided.
Questions 1–2 are based on the following passage.
1
The following selection is from the autobiography of an
Asian American writer.
Line
(5)
(10)
In fifth grade I discovered my fondness for reading.
When I went to the library, I would literally tremble as
I found entire shelves of novels and monographs I
hadn’t read yet. Thus, I read and read and read. But my
mother, who was not educated, would ask, “What do
you see in your books?” She wondered whether reading
was a hobby, a sign of “brains,” or just a convenient
excuse for not helping her with cleaning the house.
Why did I love reading? I got the idea that it was vital
to my academic success, which I coveted.
The author uses the phrase “literally tremble” (line 2)
to emphasize which of the following?
(A) The recurrence of a childhood disease that causes
tremors
(B) His transient affection for reading novels
(C) His intense dislike of reading monographs
(D) The extent of his love of reading books
(E) His view of reading as merely a hobby
2
The mother’s attitude toward the author’s love of
reading (lines 5–6) can best be described as
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
veneration
antipathy
exasperation
fascination
indignation
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07_SAT 2005 Sample Test S7
8/26/03
10:14 AM
Page 51
Section 7
7 7 7 7 7 7 7
Questions 3–15 are based on the following passages.
The following adaptations from late-twentieth century
reviews of Ernest Hemingway’s writing offer perspectives on
the legacy of the American author’s work.
Line
(5)
(10)
(15)
(20)
(25)
(30)
(35)
(40)
(45)
Passage 1
The majority of Ernest Hemingway’s early works are
teeming with numerous references to the disillusionment
of a generation of Americans after the massive death and
destruction of World War I. Hemingway’s “lost
generation” of writers began to question traditional
moral, ethical, and religious standards and values. In
both Hemingway’s Torrents of Spring and A Farewell to
Arms, the protagonists are depicted as men drastically
changed by the violence of the war. In A Farewell to
Arms, Hemingway portrays the effects of the Great War
first-hand, as the reader explores the war-time saga of a
young ambulance driver. Upon the death of Catherine
Barkley (the protagonist’s war-time nurse), the once
idealistic, religious Frederick Henry realizes that bidding
farewell to his dead lover was “like saying good-bye to a
statue.” Death had transformed his once lively wife into a
“statue,” a lifeless object; now, it was clear to him that
death was final. Since Hemingway’s heroes do not believe
in life or judgment after death, they are free from the
restrictions of traditional Christian ethics and values. As
a consequence, Hemingway’s heroes pursued physical,
earthly pleasures because they believed that these
pleasures were the true rewards of life.
These same secular, hedonistic, anti-religious
undertones were apparent in The Torrents of Spring, but
in this novel, Hemingway explored the post-war
repercussions of the gore of World War I. Hemingway
depicted the post-war erosion of traditional American
values, especially within the sphere of the family unit.
Satirically, Hemingway demonstrated the new ease with
which men and women left their spouses and children to
start again elsewhere. Through the tale of Scripps O’Neil,
he portrayed the post-war generation as a people with
great mobility and a lack of solid ties to their families or
communities. This erosion of family values was
complemented by a portrayal of the similar
disillusionment and depression of the artistic and literary
community of the western world in The Sun Also Rises.
In this novel, Hemingway depicts the restlessness and
hedonistic, aimless travels of his generation of
post–World War I writers. These expatriates were
compelled by the needless bloodshed of the Great War to
forsake their traditional values for earthly indulgences
and an arduous search for new beliefs and values. Thus,
Hemingway’s great legacy in American literature is clear.
The totality of his works captures the mood of an
important era in American history and the unorthodox
views and feelings of an important generation of postwar writers.
(50)
(55)
(60)
(65)
(70)
(75)
(80)
(85)
(90)
(95)
Passage 2
Many literary critics have praised Ernest Hemingway
for capturing the mood of the post–Great War
generation of young Americans. There is no doubt that
many supporters of the American novelist are justified in
admiring how poignantly Hemingway conveyed the
despair and disillusionment of the United States during
the 1920s. The personal tragedy faced by Hemingway’s
characters, such as the Red Cross ambulance driver
Frederick Henry in A Farewell to Arms and Scripps
O’Neil in The Torrents of Spring, gives readers a real sense
of the horrors and repercussions of World War I.
Through his timely, well-developed characters and
narratives Hemingway preserved the negative American
wartime and post-war experience for future generations
of Americans. Although Hemingway’s anti-war message
was temporarily forgotten during the Great Depression
and the Second World War, his timeless narratives were
passionately revived during the nation’s Vietnam War era
of rebellion and disillusionment.
Regardless of the importance of Hemingway’s cultural
preservation of a pivotal period in American history,
however, the greatest legacy that Hemingway left
America is his innovative literary style. The literary
movements before Hemingway’s era were marked by
varying degrees of adherence to Victorian formalism.
However, Hemingway’s terse, realistic style was critical in
changing the way that American writers composed their
works. Hemingway’s realism and unornamented prose
ushered in a great shift in American literary history.
Hemingway was once quoted as saying that he edited and
reedited his work until he eliminated all unnecessary
paragraphs, phrases, words, and formalism. Innumerable
young American authors have declared that Hemingway
is the most influential writer in their lives. These modern
authors often cite Hemingway as a major source of their
own style.
Some literary critics have criticized my analysis of
Hemingway’s literary legacy, claiming that Hemingway
was not a literary innovator in his own right. Harold
Smith, for example, argues that Hemingway was merely
an author whose style reflected the general stylistic trends
of his era. He cites the similarities among the writing
styles of Hemingway and his contemporaries, such as
Gertrude Stein and F. Scott Fitzgerald. However, such
criticisms are easily dismissed. After all, some of
Hemingway’s most illustrious contemporaries often cited
his style as highly influential on their own writing.
Hemingway’s legacy as one of the greatest stylistic
pioneers in American literary history appears
unassailable.
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07_SAT 2005 Sample Test S7
8/26/03
10:14 AM
Page 52
Section 7
3
7 7 7 7 7 7 7
The attitude of the author of Passage 1 toward
Hemingway’s legacy is one of
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
8
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
nostalgia
ambivalence
hatred
bafflement
appreciation
9
4
The discussion of Catherine Barkley’s death (lines 12–18)
functions primarily to
As used in line 29 of the first passage, “sphere” most
closely means
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
6
7
10
ground
topic
orb
domain
home
pleasure-seeking
immoral
sensual
idealistic
lacking
11
The author of Passage 2 implies that Hemingway’s
“cultural preservation of a pivotal period in American
history” (lines 69–70) was
The author of Passage 2 characterizes Hemingway’s
“literary style” (line 72) as
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
The author of Passage 1 argues that Hemingway’s literary
legacy is
(A) the legions of later writers that he influenced
(B) his preservation of the sentiments of an important
generation
(C) his innovative and influential literary style
(D) the development of the modern form of satire
(E) his original manuscripts, which reveal much more
than his published novels
The primary purpose of the first paragraph of Passage 2
is to
(A) more important than his innovative literary style
(B) as important as his development of Victorian
literature
(C) pivotal to ending the Vietnam War
(D) not as important as his stylistic innovations
(E) influential in most nations, not just the United States
In the first passage, the word “hedonistic” as used in line
40 most nearly means
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
drama
misfortune
seriousness
downfall
bliss
(A) introduce an argument that the author later bolsters
with more supporting evidence
(B) advocate an alternative view about Hemingway’s
greatest literary legacy
(C) introduce a view of Hemingway’s greatest legacy that
the author later denounces as completely
unfounded
(D) cite evidence in support of the author’s main
conclusion
(E) offer potential reasons for supporting a position on
Hemingway’s greatest legacy that the author
disagrees with
(A) convey the remorse that Hemingway felt after his
wife’s death
(B) demonstrate the hedonistic tendencies of
Hemingway’s characters
(C) contrast Hemingway’s real life with the life of his
fictional characters
(D) give an example of how Hemingway depicts changing
values in his novels
(E) celebrate the legacy of Hemingway’s innovative
literary style
5
In line 56, “tragedy” most nearly means
12
unoriginal
longwinded
simplistic
realistic
satirical
The approaches of the two passages to the subject of
Hemingway’s legacy differ in that only Passage 2 uses
(A) references to other authors who have written about
Hemingway
(B) second-person address to the reader
(C) an anecdote from the author’s personal experience
(D) a comparative analysis of Hemingway’s early and late
novels
(E) mentions of specific characters from Hemingway
novels
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07_SAT 2005 Sample Test S7
8/26/03
10:14 AM
Page 53
Section 7
7 7 7 7 7 7 7
13 Which one of the following techniques is used in each
of the two passages?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
comparison and contrast
personal anecdote
personal attack
summary of opposing argument
citation of example
14 Both passages mention which of the following aspects
of Hemingway’s legacy?
(A) his pioneering contributions to the modern
American literary style
(B) his generous philanthropic work in Italy
(C) his preservation of the mood of an important
historical period
(D) his bold anti-war protests during the Vietnam era
(E) his animosity toward the popularity of Victorian
literature
Questions 16–17 are based on the following passage.
The following paragraph discusses the origins of baseball
and the Civil War.
Line
(5)
(10)
(15)
15 Which of the following would serve as the most fitting
title for the two passages taken together as a whole?
(A) Hemingway and the Preservation of Culture
(B) Hemingway: Emblem of His Day
(C) Twentieth Century Literature: Hedonistic or
Formal?
(D) The Lost Generation of Scripps O’Neill
(E) Hemingway: Great, But Why?
The origins of modern baseball stem from the midnineteenth century and the Civil War. Baseball was
popular in much of America before the Civil War, but
each region or town had its own rules for and ways of
playing the game. It was actually the Civil War that
helped to reconcile these differences. Baseball was a
popular game for prisoners of war and soldiers on
breaks because it required little equipment to play and
provided much enjoyment to players and spectators
alike. These men were from different parts of the
country and they brought their local rules with them.
In order to be able to play an orderly and commonly
understood game, the rules had to be reconciled. Often
New York rules were used because they were the ones
used by organized teams which had recently begun in
New York under the direction of Alexander J.
Cartwright Jr. As the men returned home, the more
unified game went with them and a new unity was born
from great division.
16 According to the passage, New York rules were often
used in baseball games during the Civil War because
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
everyone thought they were fair
they were already used by organized teams
they were familiar to all the players
most regions of the county used them already
they originated in New York City
17 In the last sentence, “great” most nearly means
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
massive
wonderful
important
minimal
remarkable
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THIS SECTION ONLY. DO NOT TURN TO ANY OTHER SECTION IN THE TEST.
- 53 -
STOP
07_SAT 2005 Sample Test S7
8/26/03
10:14 AM
Page 54
SAT Sample Test Cover
8/26/03
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