This booklet contains 24 printed pages PAPER – 1 : PHYSICS, CHEMISTRY & MATHEMATICS Do not open this Test Booklet until you are asked to do so. Read carefully the instructions on the Back Cover of this Test Booklet. A Important Instructions : 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10. 11. 12. Immediately fill in the particulars on this page of the Test Booklet with Blue/Black Ball Point Pen. Use of pencil is strictly prohibited. The Answer Sheet is kept inside this Test Booklet. When you are directed to open the Test Booklet, take out the Answer Sheet and fill in the particulars carefully. The test is of 3 hours duration. The Test Booklet consists of 90 questions. The maximum marks are 360. There are three parts in the question paper A, B, C consisting of Physics, Chemistry and Mathematics having 30 questions in each part of equal weightage. Each question is allotted 4 (four) marks for each correct response. Candidates will be awarded marks as stated above in instructions No.5 for correct response of each question, ¼ (one fourth) marks will be deducted for indicating incorrect response of each question. No deduction from the total score will be made if no response is indicated for an item in the answer sheet. There is only one correct response for each question. Filling up more than one response in each question will be treated as wrong response and marks for wrong response will be deducted accordingly as per instruction 6 above. Use Blue/Black Ball Point Pen only for writing particulars/marking responses on Side-1 and Side-2 of the Answer Sheet. Use of pencil is strictly prohibited. No candidate is allowed to carry any textual material, printed or written, bits of papers, pager, mobile phone, ay electronic device, etc. except the Admit Card inside the examination room/hall. On completion of the test, the candidate must hand over the Answer Sheet to the invigilator on duty in the Room/Hall. However, the candidates are allowed to take away this Test Booklet with them. The CODE for this Booklet is A. Make sure that the CODE printed on Side – 2 of the Answer Sheet and also tally the serial number of the Test Booklet and Answer Sheet are the same as that on this booklet. In case of discrepancy, the candidate should immediately report the matter to the invigilator for replacement of both the Test Booklet and the Answer Sheet. Do not fold or make any stray mark on the Answer Sheet. 1 JEE-MAIN-2015 SOLUTIONS PHYSICS 1. Two stones are thrown up simultaneously form the edge of a cliff 240 m high with initial speed of 10 m/s and 40 m/s respectively. Which of the following graph best represents the time variation of relative position of the second stone with respect to the first (Assume stones do not rebound after hitting the ground and neglect air resistance, take g = 10 m/s2) The figure are schematic and not draw to scale) (1) Ans. Sol: 2. Ans. Sol: (2) (3) (4) (3) y1 = 10t – 5t2 y2 40t 5t 2 And y2 – y1 = 30 t for t ≤ 8 s At t = 8s, first stone is on the ground and the second stone is at the edge of the diff & moving down. So at t = 8 s, y2 – y1 = 240 m 1 For t > 8 y2 – y1 = 240 – 40 t g t2 2 Hence option (3) L The period of oscillation of simple pendulum is T= 2 . Measured value of L is 20.0 g cm known to 1 mm accuracy and time for 100 oscillations of the pendulum is found to be 90 s using wrist watch of 1 s resolution. The accuracy in the determination of g is (1) 2% (2) 3% (3) 1% (4) 5% (2) 4 2 L g 2 T g L 2T g L T 2 1 21 2.72% 3% 200 90 correct option (2) = 3. Ans. Sol. Given in the figure are two blocks A and B of weight 20 N and 100 N, respectively. These are being pressed against a wall by a force F as shown. If the coefficient of friction between the blocks is 0.1 and between block B and the wall is 0.15, the frictional force applied by the wall on block B is (1) 100 N (2) 80 N (3) 120 N (4) 150 N (3) The solution is based on the assumption that the blocks are in equilibrium. 20 A f B 20 20 100 f = 120 N Correct option (3) 4. Ans. Sol. 5. A particle of mass m moving in the x direction with speed 2v is hit by another particle of mass 2m moving in the y direction with speed v. If the collision is perfectly inelastic, the percentage loss in the energy during the collision is close to : (1) 44% (2) 50% (3) 56% (4) 62% (3) From law of conversation of linear momentum 2 Centre of Mass(x-direction) m.2v = 3mvx vx = v 3 2 (y-direction) 2m.v = 3mvy vy = v 3 1 1 1 4 2 2 4 m 2v .2m v 3m . v2 v2 2 2 2 9 9 % Loss = = 56% 1 2 2 m 2m .2m v 2 2 correct option (3) Distance the centre of mass of a solid uniform cone form its vertex is Z0. If the radius of its base is R and its height is h then Z0 is equal to: 3 (1) Ans. h2 4R (2) 3h 4 (3) 5h 8 (4) 3h 2 8R (2) y r dy R M r 2 ydy Centre of mass 1 M 2 O R H 3 H 2 3 3 R 2 r 2 y.dy 2 2 y3 .dy R HO R H H H 3 H 4 correct option (2) 6. Ans. Sol. From a solid sphere of mass M and radius R cube of maximum possible volume is cut. Moment of inertia of cube about an axis passing through its centre and perpendicular to one of its faces is: MR 2 MR 2 4MR 2 4MR 2 (1) (2) (3) (4) 23 2 16 2 9 3 3 3 (3) For maximum volume of cube, body diagonal of cube = Diameter of sphere a 3 2R a = side of cube 2R Volume of cube = V = 3 3 2M 2R 4 3 3 3 R 3 m 4 MR 2 2 Moment of Inertia = side 6 9 3 correct option (3) Mass of cube m M 3 4 7. R is removed, 2 as shown in the figure. Taking gravitational potential V = 0 at r = , the potential at the centre of the cavity thus formed is: (G = gravitational constant) From a solid sphere of mass M and radius R, a spherical portion of radius (1) Ans. Sol: GM 2R (2) GM R (3) 2GM 3R (4) 2GM R (2) Mass of complete sphere = M M “–ve” mass of cavity M1 = 8 Potential due to complete sphere V1 r R 2 v1 GM 3R 2 r 2 2R 3 11GM 8R M 3G 3GM 8 Potential due to cavity V2 = 1 2R R 3GM V2 8R Now net potential at the given point 11GM 3GM V V1 V2 8R 8R GM V R Correct option (2) A pendulum made of a uniform wire of cross sectional area A has time period T. When an additional mass M is added to its bob, the time period changes to TM. If the Young’s 1 modulus of the material of the wire is Y then is equal to : Y (g = gravitational acceleration) TM 2 A TM 2 Mg (1) (2) 1 Mg 1 A T T 1 8. Ans. TM 2 A (3) 1 T Mg (1) T 2 A (4) 1 TM Mg 5 Sol. T 2 g Mg A. mg A.y Y T2 l Tm2 1 1 T2 Tm2 Mg 1 2 T AY 2 Tm Mg 2 1 T AY A 1 Tm2 2 1 Y T Mg 9. Ans. Sol: Consider a spherical shell of radius R at temperature T. The black body radiation inside it can be considered as an ideal gas of photons with internal energy per unit volume 1 U U u T 4 and pressure. p . If the shell now undergoes an adiabatic expansion 3 V V the relation between T and R is : 1 1 (1) T e R (2) T e3R (3) T (4) T 3 R R (3) U T4V dU T 4 dV 4T 3V.dT U T4 dW P.dV dV dV 3V 3 dQ dW dU 0 T4 .dV T 4 .dV 4T3 V.dT 0 3 4 dV dT 4 0 3 V T 1 ln V ln T Constant 3 TV1/3 Constant T V 1/3 T R 1 10. A solid body of constant heat capacity 1 J/oC is being heated by keeping it in contact with reservoirs in two ways: 6 Ans. Sol. (i) Sequentially keeping in contact with 2 reservoirs such that each reservoir supplies same amount of heat. (ii) Sequentially keeping in contact with 8 reservoirs such that each reservoir supplies same amount of heat. In both the cases body is brought form initial temperature 100oC to final temperature 200oC. Entropy change of the body in the two cases respectively is (1) ln2, 4ln2 (2) ln2, ln2 (3) ln2, 2ln2 (4) 2ln2, 8ln2 (No Answer) T T S C ln 1 c ln f Ti T1 T 473 s1 C ln f ln ln1.27 Ti 373 T T T s 2 c ln 1 C ln 2 ....c ln f Ti T1 T7 T 473 c ln f ln ln1.27 Ti 373 None of the given options is correct. 11. Consider an ideal gas confined in an isolated closed chamber. As the gas undergoes an adiabatic expansion, the average time of collision between molecules increases as Vq, Cp where V is the volume of the gas. The value of q is: Cv 3 5 3 5 1 1 (1) (2) (3) (4) 6 6 2 2 Ans. (3) mean free path Sol: t v T and v T P T t P 1/ 2 T V V 12. 1 2 For a simple pendulum, a graph is plotted between its kinetic energy (KE) and potential energy (PE) against its displacement d. Which one of the following represents these correctly? (graphs are schematic and not drawn to scale) 7 E (1) PE E (3) KE E PE (2) KE d d E KE (4) d PE KE PE Ans. (2) Sol: In SHM 1 1 KE = mv 2 m2 (A 2 d 2 ); 2 2 1 1 PE = Kd 2 m2 d 2 ; 2 2 'KE' Vs 'd' is a parabola opening downward 'PE' Vs 'd' is a parabola opening upward option (2) is correct. A train is moving on a straight track with speed 20 ms-1. It is blowing its whistle at the frequency of 1000 Hz. The percentage change in the frequency heard by a person standing near the track as the train passes him is (speed of sound = 320 ms-1) close to: (1) 6 % (2) 12 % (3) 18 % (4) 24 % Ans. (2) V Sol: When the train is approaching f a f 0 V Vs 13. When the train crosses the person f a' % change in frequency = = 1 1 f0 V V Vs V Vs f0 V V Vs f0 V V Vs f f' f 100 a a 100 fa fa 100 2Vs 2 20 100 12% (approx.) 100 = 340 V Vs A long cylindrical shell carries positive surface charge in the upper half and negative surface charge in the lower half. The electric field lines around the cylinder will look like figure given in : (figure are schematic and not drawn to scale) = 14. 8 (1) (2) (3) (4) Ans. (1) Sol: The shell can be considered as a dipole as shown + P E E - So, at equatorial points figure 1. 15. the electric lines has to opposite to P . This satisfied only in A uniformly charged solid sphere of radius R has potential V0 (measured with respect to ) on its surface. For this sphere the equipotential surfaces with potentials 3V0 5V0 3V0 V , , and 0 have radius R1 , R 2 , R 3 and R 4 respectively. Then 2 4 4 4 (1) R1 0 and R 2 (R 4 R 3 ) (2) R1 0 and (R 2 R1 ) (R 4 R 3 ) (3) R1 0 and R 2 (R 4 R 3 ) (4) 2R R 4 Ans. (3), (4) Sol: For uniformly charged solid sphere at internal points the potential is greater than that on KQ the surface Vsurface = V0 R KQ 3R 2 r 2 Vint (r R) = 3 2R 3 KQ 3 At center (r = 0); V V0 2 R 2 3V R1 0 , V1 0 at 2 At R2; KQ 5 5 KQ 3R 2 R 22 V0 3 2R 4 4 R 9 3R 2 R 22 5 2 R 2 R2 R R 22 R 2 2 2 3 At R3; V V0 (which is less then V0) So R3 should be outside the sphere. 4 KQ 3 KQ 4R R3 R3 4 R 3 KQ 1 KQ Similarly at R4; R 4 4R R4 4 R 4R 8R Now, R 4 R 3 4R 3 3 So, R 2 R 4 R 3 So, option (3) is correct. 2R < R4 hence option (4) is also correct. 16. In the given circuit, charge Q2 on the 2F capacitor changes as C is varied from 1F to 3F . Q2 as a function of 'C' is given properly by : (figures are drawn schematically and are not to scale) 11FF C 2F E (1) (2) Charge Q2 Q2 1F (3) 3F C 1F (4) Charge 3F C Charge Q2 Q2 1F Ans. Charge 3F C 1F 3F C (2) 10 Sol: 1 F C C 3 F 2 F E Ceq E 3C C3 3CE C3 Q 2 2CE Q2 3 C3 dQ 2 C 3 2E 2CE 6E 2 2 dC C 3 C 3 dQ 2 Since is decreasing with increase in value of C dC option (2) is correct. Q Ceq .E 17. Ans. Sol: When 5V potential difference is applied across a wire of length 0.1 m, the drift speed of electrons is 2.5 104 ms 1 . If the electron density in the wire is 8 1028 m 3 , the resistivity of the material is closed to: (1) 1.6 108 m (2) 1.6 107 m (3)1.6 106 m (4) 1.6 105 m (4) j = E I V (1) where I = neAVd, A l I Now, neVd A 1V V From (1), neVd neVd l l V 5 28 19 neVd l 8 10 1.6 10 2.5 104 0.1 = 1.6 10-5 m . 11 18. 6V P 2 E 1 E 9V Q 3 3 In theEcircuit shown,Ethe current in the 1 resistor is: (1) 1.3 A, from P to Q (3) 0.13 A, from Q to P Ans. (3) Sol: (2) 0 A (4) 0.13 A, from P to Q 9V i 3 P 5 x i1 3 9V 1 (–6V) i2 6V Q i1 i2 i3 9x x6 x 5 3 1 27 3x 5x 30 15x 3 x 23 Current is (3/23) Amp from Q to P. 19. Ans. Sol: Two coaxial solenoids of different radii carry current I in the same direction. Let F1 be the magnetic force on the inner solenoid due to the outer one and F2 be the magnetic force on the outer solenoid due to the inner one. Then : (1) F1 F2 0 (2) F1 is radially inwards and F2 is radially outwards (3) F1 is radially inwards and F2 = 0 (4) F1 is radially outwards and F2 = 0 (1) Magnetic field due to the inner coil at external points will be zero. So magnetic force (iLB) on the outer coil will be zero. The magnetic field at any current element of inner coil due to outer coil is perpendicular to it. As per Fleming’s Left Hand rule (or dF I dl B the force will be radially. 12 So net force on inner coil is also zero. (Every loop of inner coil is a uniform magnetic field) So. F = 0 20. Two long current carrying thin wires, both with current I, are held by insulating threads of length L and are in equilibrium as shown in the figure, with threads making an angle ' ' with the vertical. If wires have mass per unit length then the value of I is: (g = gravitational acceleration) L E I I (1) sin (3) 2 Ans. Sol: gL 0 cos gL tan 0 (2) 2sin (4) gL 0 cos gL tan 0 (2) Assume length of the wire is 1 m Since the wire is in equilibrium , o I2 T sin = (1) 4L sin T cos = g (2) On dividing (1) and (2), oI2 tan = 4L sin . g T T cos L T sin 2 oI /2(2Lsin) I L sin L L sin I g Hence, I = 4Lg sin tan 4Lg sin 2 o o cos Lg o cos A rectangular loop of sides 10 cm and 5cm carrying a current I of 12 A is placed in different orientations as shown in the figures below: Hence, I = 2sin 21. 13 z z I B B I I (a) (b) y I x z B (d) y I I I I 22. y I x Key: Sol. z B I (c) y I I x I I I x I If there is a uniform magnetic field of 0.3 T in the positive z direction, in which orientations the loop would be in (i) stable equilibrium and (ii) unstable equilibrium? (1) (a) and (b), respectively (2) (a) and (c), respectively (3) (b) and (d), respectively (4) (b) and (c), respectively (3) MB sin U MB cos In (a) = 90 (b) = 00 (c) = 90 (d) 180 So, (b) is stable equilibrium & (d) is unstable An inductor (L = 0.03H) and a resistor (R = 0.15 k) are connected in series to a battery of 15V EMF in a circuit shown below. The key K1 has been kept closed for a long time. Then at t = 0, K1 is opened and key K2 is closed simultaneously. At t = 1ms, is closed in the circuit will be e5 150 0.03H 0.15k K2 K1 15V Key: Sol. (1) 100 mA (2) 67 mA (4) At t= when K1 is closed 15 1 I0 A. 150 10 When K1 is opened & K2 is closed. (3) 6.7 mA (4) 0.67 mA 14 I I 0 e t / & L 0.03 2 104 3 R 0.15 10 103 1 4 I e 210 10 1 5 e 10 1 e 5 0.67mA 10 23. Key: Sol. 24. A red LED emits light at 0.1 watt uniformly around it. The amplitude of the electric field of the light at a distance of 1m from the diode is: (1) 1.73 V/m (2) 2.45 V/m (3) 5.48 V/m (4) 7.75 V/m (2) 1 P 0 E02 A C 2 1 P 0 E02 A C 2 2 0.1 12 8.85 10 4 12 3 108 2.45 V / m Monochromatic light is incident on a glass prism of angle A. If the refractive index of the material of the prism is , a ray, incident at an angle , on the face AB would get transmitted through the face AC of the prism provided: A B Key: Sol. 1 (1) sin 1 sin A sin 1 1 (3) cos 1 sin A sin 1 (1) C 1 (2) sin 1 sin A sin 1 1 (4) cos 1 sin A sin 1 15 A r1 c B A r1 C r1 A C Using snell’s law on first face sin sin r1 sin A C 1 sin A sin 1 1 sin 1 sin A sin 1 For transmission through face AC 1 sin 1 sin A sin 1 25. Key: Sol. 26. Key: Sol. On a hot summer night, the refractive index of air smallest near the ground and increases with height from the ground. When a light beam is directed horizontally, the Huygen’s principle leads us to conclude that as it travels, the light beam: (1) becomes narrower (2) goes horizontally without any deflection (3) bends downwards (4) bends upwards (4) As R.I increases ray bend towards normal, hence it will bend upward. Assuming human pupil to have a radius of 0.25 cm and a comfortable viewing distance of 25 cm, the minimum separation between two objects that human eye can resolve at 500 nm wavelength is: (1) 1 m (2) 30 m (3) 100 m (4) 300 m (2) 1.22 y d D 1.22 500 109 y 2 0.50 10 25 102 y 30.50 106 m 30 m 16 27. Key: Sol. 28. Key: 29. Key: Sol. 30. As an electron makes a transition from an excited state to the ground state of a hydrogenlike atom/ion: (1) its kinetic energy increases but potential energy and total energy decrease (2) kinetic energy, potential energy and total energy decrease (3) kinetic energy decreases, potential energy increases but total energy remains same (4) kinetic energy and total energy decrease but potential energy increase (1) kZe2 KE 2r kZe 2 PE r kZe 2 TE 2r Match List-I (Fundamental Experiment) with List-II (its conclusion) and select the correct option from the choices given below the list: List-I List-II (A) Franck-Herts Experiment. (i) Particle nature (B) Photo-electric experiment (ii) Discrete energy levels of atom (C) Davision-Germer Experiment. (iii) Wave nature of electron (iv) Structure of atom (1) (A) – (i) (B) – (iv) (C)-(iii) (2) (A) – (ii) (B) – (iv) (C) – (iii) (3) (A) – (ii) (B) – (i) (C) – (iii) (4) (A) – (iv) (B) – (iii) (C) – (ii) (3) A signal of 5kHz frequency is amplitude modulated on a carrier wave of frequency 2 MHz. The frequency of the resultant signal is/are: (1) 2 KHz only (2) 2005 kHz, and 1995 kHz (3) 2005 kHz, 2000 kHz and 1995 kHz (4) 2000 kHz and 1995 kHz (3) Resultant frequency of signal if given by fC f M , f R , f C f M Then possible frequencies are 2005 kHz , 2000 kGz ,1995 kHz An LCR circuit is equivalent to a damped pendulum. In an LCR circuit the capacitor is charged to Q0 and then connected the L and R as shown below: 17 R L C 2 If a student plots graphs of the square of maximum charge QMax on the capacitor with time (t) for two different values L1 and L2(L1 > L2) of L then which of the following represents this graph correctly? (plots are schematic and not drawn to scale) 2 2 QMax QMax L1 (1) L2 (2) L2 L1 t t 2 Max Q Q L1 (3) Q0 (For both L 1 and L 2) (4) L2 t Key. Sol: 2 Max t (1) q dI IR L 0 C dt q dq dI R L C dt dt Comparing with equation of damped oscillation R Fdamp bv L R Hence, b L 1 b L As A A0 e Q Q0 e 2 2 0 b t 2m b t 2m Q Q e b t m Topic & Level 18 Q.No. 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7 8. 9. 10. 11. 12. 13. 14. 15. 16. 17. 18. 19. 20. 21. 22. 23. 24. 25. 26. 27. 28. 29. 30. S.No. 1 2 3 4 5 6 Topic Kinematics Experimental Physics Friction Collision Centre of Mass Rotational Motion Gravitation Elasticity Heat & Thermodynamics Heat & Thermodynamics Heat & Thermodynamics Simple Harmonic Motion Waves Electrostatics Electrostatics Electrostatics Current Electricity Current Electricity Magnetism Magnetism Magnetism E.M.I. Electro magnetic waves Optics Optics Optics Modern Physics Modern Physics Modern Physics E.M.I. Major Topic Mechanics Heat & Thermodynamics S.H.M. & Waves Electricity & Magnetism E.M.Waves & Optics Modern Physics Total Level Medium Easy Medium Easy Medium Difficult Difficult Difficult Difficult Medium Difficult Easy Easy Medium Difficult Difficult Easy Easy Easy Medium Easy Easy Easy Medium Easy Difficult Easy Easy Easy Difficult No. of Question 8 3 2 9 4 4 30 19 CHEMISTRY 31. Key. Sol. The molecular formula of a commercial resin used for exchanging ions in water softening is C8H7SO3Na (Mol.wt.206). What would be the maximum uptake of Ca2+ ions by the resin when expressed in mole per gram resin? 1 1 2 1 (1) (2) (3) (4) 103 206 309 412 (4) Na+ ion of resin will be exchanged with Ca2+ ion 2C8 H 7SO3 Na Ca 2 C8 H 7SO3 2 Ca 2Na So maximum uptake of Ca2+ ion by the resin 1 1 molg 1 of resin. 206 2 412 o 32. Sodium metal crystallizes in a body centered cubic lattice with a unit cell edge of 4.29 A . The radius of sodium atom is approximately : o Key. Sol. (1) 1.86 A (1) For B.c.c. unit cell 4r 3a o (2) 3.22 A o (3) 5.72 A o (4) 0.93 A o 3 4.29 1.86 A 4 Which of the following is the energy of a possible excited state of hydrogen? (1) 13.6 eV (2) 6.8 eV (3) 3.4 eV (4) 6.8 eV (3) 13.6 12 Energy of second shell of hydrogen 3.4eV / atom 22 r 33. Key. Sol. 34. Key. Sol. 35. The intermolecular interaction that is dependent on the inverse cube of distance between the molecules is (1) ion – ion interaction (2) ion – dipole interaction (3) London force (4) hydrogen bond (4) Dipole –dipole interaction energy between stationary polar molecules (as in solids) is 1 proportional to 3 . r Hydrogen bond is a special case of dipole-dipole interactions. The following reaction is performed at 298 K. 2NO2 g 2NO g O2 g The standard free energy of formation of NO(g) is 86.6 kJ/mol at 298 K. What is the standard free energy of formation of NO2(g) at 298 K? K p 1.6 1012 (1) R 298 ln 1.6 1012 (2) 86600 R 298 ln 1.6 1012 20 (3) 86600 Key. Sol. 36. Key. Sol. 37. Key. Sol. ln 1.6 1012 R 298 (4) 0.5 2 86600 R 298 ln 1.6 1012 (4) G R RT ln K p G R 2 f G NO 2 f G NO G NO G f NO 2 G R f 2 R 298 ln1.6 1012 3 = 86.6 10 2 The vapour pressure of acetone at 20oC is 185 torr. When 1.2 g of a non-volatile substance was dissolved in 100 g of acetone at 20oC, its vapour pressure was 183 torr. The molar mass (g mol-1) of the substance is (1) 32 (2) 64 (3) 128 (4) 488 (2) Po P5 X solute P0 1.2 185 183 M o 1.2 100 P M 58 2 1.2 58 1.2 100 Assume 185 M 100 M 58 1.2 M 64.38 2 100 B C is 2494.2 J. The standard Gibbs energy change at 300 K for the reaction 2A 1 1 At a given time, the composition of the reaction mixture is A , B 2 and C . 2 2 The reaction proceeds in the : [ R = 8.314 J/K/mol, e = 2.718] (1) forward direction because Q > KC (2) reverse direction because Q > Kc (3) forward direction because Q < Kc (4) reverse direction because Q < Kc (2) G o RT ln K c 2494.2 8.314 300ln Kc ln Kc 1 1 1 e 2.718 B C K c e 1 = Qc A2 21 1 2 4 2 1 2 Reverse direction as Qc > Kc Two Faraday of electricity is passed through a solution of CuSO4. The mass of copper deposited at the cathode is : (at.mass of Cu = 63.5 amu) (1) 0 g (2) 63.5 g (3) 2 g (4) 127 g (2) 1 Faraday of electricity deposits 1 equivalent Cu 2 Faraday of electricity deposits 2 equivalents of Cu 1 mol of Cu = 63.5 g Higher order (>3) reactions are rare due to (1) low probability of simultaneous collision of all the reacting species (2) increase in entropy and activation energy as more molecules are involved (3) shifting of equilibrium towards reactants due to elastic collisions (4) loss of active species on collision (1) Higher order (>3) reactions are rare due to low probability of simultaneous collision of all the reacting species. 3 g of activated charcoal was added to 50 ml. of acetic acid solution (0.06 N) in a flask. After an hour it was filtered and the strength of the filtrate was found to be 0.042 N. The amount of acetic acid adsorbed (per gram of charcoal) is (1) 18 mg (2) 36 mg (3) 42 mg (4) 54 mg (1) No. of millimols of acetic acid before adsorption = 50 0.06 3 No. of millimols of acetic acid after adsorption = 50 0.042 2.1 No. of millimols of acetic acid adsorbed = 3 2.1 0.9 0.9 60 Weight of acetic acid adsorbed g 54 mg 103 54 Amount of acetic acid adsorbed per gm of charcoal = mg = 18 mg 3 2 38. Key. Sol. 39. Key. Sol. 40. Key. Sol. 41. Key: Sol: 42. The ionic radii (in Å) of N3, O2 and F are respectively (1) 1.36, 1.40 and 1.71 (2) 1.36, 1.71 and 1.40 (3) 1.71, 1.40 and 1.36 (4) 1.71, 1.36 and 1.40 (3) N 3 O 2 F As the charge increase on anion its size increases due to decrease in Zeff. In the context of the Hall – Heroult process for the extraction of Al, which of the following statements is false? (1) CO and CO2 are produced in this process (2) Al2O3 is mixed with CaF2 which lowers the melting point of the mixture and brings conductivity 22 Key: Sol: 43. Key: Sol: 44. Key: Sol: 45. Key: Sol: 46. Key: Sol: 47. Key: Sol: 48. (3) Al3+ is reduced at the cathode to form Al (4) Na3AlF6 serves as the electrolyte (4) CaF2 or Na3AlF6 reduce melting point and increase the conductivity. From the following statements regarding H2O2, choose the incorrect statement: (1) It can act only as an oxidizing agent (2) It decomposes an exposure to light (3) It has to be stored in plastic or wax lined glass bottle in dark (4) It has to be kept away from dust (1) It act as both OA/RA due to intermediate OS of oxygen. Which one of the following alkaline earth metal sulphates has its hydration enthalpy greater than its lattice enthalpy? (1) CaSO4 (2) BeSO4 (3) BaSO4 (4) SrSO4 (2) BeSO4 soluble in water, the hydration energy greater than its lattice energy. Which among the following is the most reactive? (1) Cl2 (2) Br2 (3) I2 (4) ICl (4) Inter Halogen compounds are more reactive due to improper overlapping than halogen. Match the catalysts to the correct process: Catalyst Process (A) TiCl3 (i) Wacker process (B) PdCl2 (ii) Ziegler – Natta Polymerizatio n (C) CuCl2 (iii) Contact process (D) V2O5 (iv) Deacon’s process (1) (A) – (iii), (B) – (ii), (C) – (iv), (D) – (i) (2) (A) – (ii), (B) – (i), (C) – (iv), (D) – (iii) (3) (A) – (ii), (B) – (iii), (C) – (iv), (D) – (i) (4) (A) – (iii), (B) – (i), (C) – (ii), (D) – (iv) (2) TiCl3 + (C2H5)3Al Ziegler Natta Catalyst PdCl2 used in Wacker process. CuCl 2 HCl + O2 H2O + Cl2 Decan process V2 O5 SO2 + O2 SO3 Contact process. Which one has the highest boiling point? (1) He (2) Ne (3) Kr (4) Xe (4) Boiling point of inert gas increases down the group due to Vander Waal force increases with molar mass. The number of geometric isomers that can exist for square planar [Pt(Cl)(py)(NH3)(NH2OH)]+ is (py – pyridine) 23 Key: Sol: (1) 1 (2) 3 (2) planar [Pt(Cl)(py)(NH3)(NH2OH)] Cl NH3 Cl Pt Key: Sol: Py (4) 6 Cl Pt HONH2 49. (3) 4 Py HONH2 Py Pt NH3 NH3 NH2OH The color of KMnO4 is due to (1) M L charge transfer transition (2) d – d transition (3) L M charge transfer transition (4) - * transition (3) MnO 4 O O Mn O O Color is due to charge transfer from oxide ion to empty ‘d’ orbital of Mn. 50. Key: Sol: 51. Key Sol. 52. Assertion : Nitrogen and Oxygen are the main components in the atmosphere but these do not react to form oxides of nitrogen. Reason: The reaction between nitrogen and oxygen requires high temperature. (1) Both assertion and reason are correct, and the reason is the correct explanation for the assertion (2) Both assertion and reason are correct, but the reason is not the correct explanation for the assertion. (3) The assertion is incorrect, but the reason is correct. (4) Both the assertion and reason are incorrect (1) The bond enthalpy of N2 is much higher hence the process is endothermic. N2 + O2 2NO - Heat In Carius method of estimation of halogen, 250 mg of an organic compound gave 141 mg of AgBr. The percentage of bromine in the compound is: (at. Mass Ag = 108, Br = 80) (1) 24 (2) 36 (3) 48 (4) 60 (1) Mass of AgBr precipitated 0.141 g 80 0.141 % of Br = 100 24 188 0.250 Which of the following compounds will exhibit geometrical isomerism? 24 Key Sol. (1) 1 – Phenyl – 2 – butene (3) 2 – Phenyl – 1 – butene (1) CH3 PhCH2 H PhCH2 C=C H (2) 3 – Phenyl – 1 – butene (4) 1, 1, - Diphenyl – 1 – propene C=C H H CH3 Geometrical Isomers 53. Which compound would give 5 – keto – 2 – methyl hexanal upon ozonolysis? CH3 CH3 CH3 CH3 CH3 H3C (1) (2) (3) CH3 CH3 Key (4) (2) CH3 O ozonolysis H3 C – C– CH2CH2 – CH –CHO Sol. CH3 CH3 5 - keto - 2 methyl - hexanal 54. Key Sol. 55. The synthesis of alkyl fluorides is best accomplished by : (1) Free radical fluorination (2) Sandmeyer’s reaction (3) Finkelstein reaction (4) Swarts reaction (4) Swart H3C Br AgF CH 3 F AgBr reaction In the following sequence of reaction : KMnO4 SOCl2 H 2 / Pd Toluene A B C BaSO 4 Key The product C is (1) C6H5COOH (4) (2) C6H5CH3 (3) C6H5CH2OH (4) C6H5CHO O CH3 COOH KMnO4 C – Cl SOCl2 H2/Pd Sol. BaSO4 (A) 56. CHO (B) In the reaction 25 NH2 NaNO2 / HCl Cu / KCN D E N2 0 5 o C CH3 The product E is COOH (1) (2) H3 C CH3 CH3 CN CH3 (3) (4) CH3 Key (3) NH2 Sol. CH3 57. Key Sol. 58. Key Sol. 59. Key Sol. 60. N2 Cl CN NaNO2/HCl CuCN/ K CN 0-5°C CH3 (D) N2 + CH3 (E) Which polymer is used in the manufacture of paints and lacquers? (1) Bakelite (2) Glyptal (3) Polypropene (4) Poly vinyl chloride (2) Glyptal is used as paints and lacquers Which of the vitamins given below is water soluble (1) Vitamin C (2) Vitamin D (3) Vitamin E (4) Vitamin K (1) Vitamin A, D, E and K are fat Soluble. Vitamin C is water soluble. Which of the following compounds is not an antacid? (1) Aluminium hydroxide (2) Cimetidine (3) Phenelzine (4) Ranitidine (3) Phenelzine is antidepressant, so not an antacid. All others are antacid Which of the following compounds is not colored yellow? 26 Key Sol. (1) Zn2[Fe(CN)6] (3) (NH4)3[As(Mo3O10)4] (1) Zn2[Fe(CN)6] is bluish white. (2) K3[Co(NO2)6] (4) BaCrO4 Q. NO. TOPIC 31 Physical Chemistry 32 Physical Chemistry 33 Physical Chemistry 34 Physical Chemistry 35 Physical Chemistry 36 Physical Chemistry 37 Physical Chemistry 38 Physical Chemistry 39 Physical Chemistry 40 Physical Chemistry 41 Inorganic Chemistry – Periodic table 42 Inorganic Chemistry – Metallurgy of Al 43 Inorganic Chemistry – Hydrogen and its compounds 44 Inorganic Chemistry (Alkaline earth Metals) 45 Inorganic Chemistry – Halogens 46 Inorganic Chemistry – Transition elements 47 Inorganic Chemistry – 18th group 48 Inorganic Chemistry – Coordination compounds 49 Inorganic Chemistry – d-block elements 50 Inorganic Chemistry – p block elements 51 Organic Chemistry 52 Organic Chemistry 53 Organic Chemistry 54 Organic Chemistry 55 Organic Chemistry 56 Organic Chemistry 57 Organic Chemistry 58 Organic Chemistry 59 Organic Chemistry 60 Organic Chemistry Organic Chemistry – 9 questions Physical chemistry – 10 questions Inorganic chemistry – 11 questions LEVEL Simple Medium Simple Simple Medium Medium Difficult Simple Simple Medium Simple Medium Simple Medium Simple Medium Simple Medium Medium Simple Medium Simple Simple Simple Simple Medium Simple Simple Medium Medium 27 MATHEMATICS 61. Key. Sol. 62. Let A and B be two sets containing four and two elements respectively. Then the number of subsets of the set A B , each having at least three elements is : (1) 219 (2) 256 (3) 275 (4) 510 (1) No. of elements in A B will be 4 2 8 Now no. of subsets of A B having at least 3 elements is 8 C3 8C4 8C5 .... 8C8 28 1 8 28 256 37 219 A complex number z is said to be unimodular if z 1 . Suppose z1 and z2 are complex numbers such that Key. Sol. z1 2z 2 is unimodular and z2 is not unimodular. Then the point of z1 2 z1 z2 lies on a (1) straight line parallel to x-axis (3) circle of radius 2 (3) z1 2z 2 1 2 z1 z2 2 z1 2z 2 2 z1 z2 (2) straight line parallel to y-axis (4) circle of radius 2 2 z1 2z 2 z1 2z2 2 z1 z2 2 z1z 2 z1 z1 2z1 z2 2z1z2 4z2 z2 = 4 2z1z 2 2z1 z2 z1 z1z2 z2 2 2 2 z1 4 z 2 4 z1 z 2 2 2 2 2 2 z1 z 2 z1 4 z 2 4 0 z 1 2 4 z z1 2 or 2 2 1 0 z2 1 But z 2 1 z1 2 z1 lie on a circle of radius 2 28 63. Key. Sol. Let and be the roots of equation x 2 6x 2 0 . If a n n n , for n 1 , then a 2a 8 the value of 10 is equal to 2a 9 (1) 6 (2) –6 (3) 3 (4) –3 (3) a n n n n 1 n 1 n 1 n 1 n 1 n 1 n 1 n 1 n 1 n 1 n 2 n 2 n 1 n 1 n 2 n 2 a n 6a n 1 2a n 2 a n 2a n 2 3 2a n 1 Put n = 10 a 2a 8 10 3 2a 9 64. Key. Sol. 1 2 2 If A 2 1 2 is a matrix satisfying the equation AA T 9I , where I is 3 3 identity a 2 b matrix, then the ordered pair (a,b) is equal to (1) (2, –1) (2) (–2, 1) (3) (2, 1) (4) (–2, –1) (4) 1 2 2 A 2 1 2 a 2 b 1 2 a A 2 1 2 2 2 b 1 2 2 1 2 a T A.A 2 1 2 2 1 2 a 2 b 2 2 b 9 0 a 4 2b 0 9 2a 2 2b 9I a 4 2b 2a 2 2b a 2 4 b2 a 4 2b 0 … (1) and 2a 2 2b 0 … (2) Solving (1) and (2) a 2, b 1 The set of all values of for which the system of linear equations 2x1 2x 2 x 3 x1 T 65. 2x1 3x 2 2x3 x 2 29 Key. Sol. x1 2x 2 x3 has a non-trivial solution, (1) is an empty set (2) is a singleton (3) contains two elements (4) contains more than two elements (3) Rewrite the equation 2 x1 2x 2 x 3 0 2x1 3 x 2 2x 3 0 x1 2x 2 x3 0 For non trivial solution 2 2 1 2 3 2 0 1 2 1 2 2 3 0 66. Key. Sol. 67. 1 3 1 0 1, 3 The number of integers greater than 6,000 that can be formed, using the digits 3, 5, 6 7 and 8, without repetition, is : (1) 216 (2) 192 (3) 120 (4) 72 (2) Case (i) number of ‘4’ digit numbers will be 3 4 3 2 72 Case (ii) number of ‘5’ digit numbers will be 5! 120 So total number 120 72 192 The sum of coefficients of integral powers of x in the binomial expansion of 1 2 x 50 is (1) Key. Sol. (1) Let 1 50 3 1 2 (2) 1 50 3 2 (3) 1 50 3 1 2 (4) 1 50 2 1 2 x y 50 1 2y a 0 a1 y a 2 y2 a 3 y3 a 4 y 4 .... Put y = 1 1 a 0 a1 a 2 a 3 a 4 .... Put y = –1 350 a 0 a1 a 2 a 3 a 4 .... … (1) … (2) Adding (1) and (2) 30 68. Key. Sol. 350 1 a 0 a 2 a 4 .... 2 If m is the A.M. of two distinct real numbers and n ( , n > 1) and G1,G2 and G3 are three geometric means between and n, then G14 2G 24 G 34 equals. (1) 4 2 mm (2) 4m 2 n (2) n m n 2m 2 ,G1 ,G 2 ,G 3 , n are in G.P Let common difference be r (3) 4 mn2 (4) 4 2m2 n2 1/4 n n .r r 4 1/ 4 n G1 . 3/ 4 .n1/ 4 1/ 2 1/ 2 G2 n G 3 1/ 4 .n 3/ 4 Then G14 2G 24 G 34 3n 2 2 n 2 n 3 n 2 2 n n 2 2 n n 4m 2 n 69. Key. 13 13 23 13 23 33 The sum of first 9 terms of the series .... is 1 1 3 1 3 5 (1) 71 (2) 96 (3) 142 (4) 192 (2) n Sol. Tn 3 n 2 n 1 4.n 2 2 n2 2 n 1 4 n 2 1 2n Tn 4 1 n 2 2n 1 4 1 Sn Tn n 2 2 n n 4 n n 1 1 n n 1 2n 1 2 n 4 6 2 31 S9 1 9 10 19 9 10 2 9 4 6 2 1 15 19 9 10 9 96 4 1 cos 2x 3 cos x is equal to lim x 0 x tan 4x 70. (1) 4 Key. (3) 2 (4) 1 2 (3) lim Sol. (2) 3 1 cos 2x 3 cos x x 0 x tan 4x 2 2 sin x 3 cos x x 0 tan 4x x2 .4 4x 2 4 2 4 Lt 71. Key: Sol: k x 1, 0 x 3 If the function : g x , is differentiable, then the value of k + m is mx 2, 3 x 5 16 10 (1) 2 (2) (3) (4) 4 5 3 (1) g(x) is continuous at x = 3 k 3 1 = 3m + 2 2k = 3m + 2 (1) for g(x) to be differentiable, g ' 3 g ' 3 k m k = 4m 4 From (1) and (2), 8m = 3m + 2 m = 2/5 Option (1) is correct. 72. Key: Sol: (2) and k = 4 (2/5) = 8/5 k + m = 10/5 = 2 The normal to the curve, x2 + 2xy – 3y2 = 0, at (1, 1) : (1) does not meet the curve again (2) meets the curve again in the second quadrant (3) meets the curve again in the third quadrant (4) meets the curve again in the fourth quadrant (4) dy dy 2x + 2y + 2x 6y 0 dx dx 32 dy =1 dx 1,1 Hence, equation of normal, y – 1 = 1(x – 1) y – 1 = x + 1 y+x=2 (1) x2 + 2x(2 – x) – 3(2 – x)2 = 0 x2 + 4x – 2x2 – 3(4 + x2 – 4x) = 0 4x2 + 16x – 12 = 0 x = 1, 3 and y = 1, 1 meets the curved again in fourth quadrant. option (4) is correct. 73. Key: Sol: 74. Let f(x) be a polynomial of degree four having extreme values at x = 1 and x = 2. If f x lim 1 2 3, then f(2) is equal to x 0 x (1) 8 (2) 4 (3) Let f(x) = ax4 + bx3 + cx2 f(1) = 0 4a + 3b + 2c = 0 f(2) = 0 32a + 12b + 4c = 0 f x lim 1 2 = 3 x 0 x (3) 0 c=2 By using (1), (2) and (3), a = 1/2, b = 2 and c = 2. x4 Hence, f(x) = 2x 3 2x 2 2 f(2) = 0 (3) x The integral dx 2 x 4 3/4 1 (4) 4 (1) (2) equals 1/4 x4 1 (1) 4 x 1/4 (2) x 4 1 C C 1/4 1/ 4 (3) x 1 4 Key: (4) Sol: x dx 2 x 2 1 3/ 4 x4 1 (4) 4 x C C dx 1 x 5 1 4 x 3/ 4 33 1 =t , x4 Put, 1 + 4x 5 dx dt , 1/4 75. Key: 1/4 x 4 1 1 C I = 1 4 x x (4) is correct. 4 log x 2 The integral dx is equal to 2 2 2 log x log 36 12x x (1) 2 (3) (2) 4 log x 2 4 Sol: I 2 4 I 2 (3) 1 (1) log x 2 log 36 12x x 2 log 6 x 2 2 (4) 6 (2) log 6 x log x 2 4 Adding (1) and (2), 2I = dx 2 2I = 2 I = 1 Option (3) is correct 76. Key: Sol: The area (in sq. units) of the region described by {(x, y): y2 2x and y 4x – 1} is 7 5 15 (1) (2) (3) 32 64 64 (4) y2 = 2x, y = 4x – 1 2y2 = y + 1 2y2 – y – 1 = 0 y = 1, y = 1/2 x = ½, x = 1/8 (4) 9 32 1 1 y 1 y2 y 2 y y3 dy = Area = 4 2 8 4 6 1/2 1/2 9 32 77. Let y(x) be the solution of the differential equation x log x Key: then y(e) is equal to (1) e (3) (2) 0 (3) 2 dy y 2x log x, x 1 . dx (4) 2e 34 Sol: dy 1 y2 dx x log x 1 I. F. = e x log x dx e log log x log x Solving, y log x 2.log x.dx 2 log x x x C 78. Key: y. log x = 2(log x – 1)x + C, since C = 2 y (e) = 2 The number of points, having both co-ordinates as integers, that lie in the interior of the triangle with vertices (0, 0), (0, 41) and (41, 0) is (1) 901 (2) 861 (3) 820 (4) 780 (4) Number of points = 39 + 38 + (0, 41) 37 + ….+ 1 (1, 40) 39 40 = 780 2 (1, 39) (1, 1) (0, 0) 79. Key: Sol: 80. Key: Sol: (1, 0) (40, 1) (40, 0) (41, 0) Locus of the image of the point (2, 3) in the line (2x – 3y + 4) + k(x – 2y + 3) = 0, k R , is a (1) straight line parallel to x-axis (2) straight line parallel to y-axis (3) circle of radius 2 (4) circle of radius 3 (3) The point of concurrency of the given family of lines is (1, 2) So, therefore the locus of the image of the point (2, 3) in the line (2x – 3y + 4) + k(x – 2y + 3) = 0 will be a circle; whose centre is (1, 2) and radius is distance between (1, 2) and (2, 3). Hence the equation of the required locus will be (x – 1)2 + (y – 2)2 = 2. The number of common tangents to the circles x2 + y2 – 4x – 6y – 12 = 0 and x2 + y2 + 6x + 18y + 26 = 0, is (1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4 (3) Given circles are x2 + y2 – 4x – 6y – 12 = 0 (1) 2 2 and x + y + 6x + 18y + 26 = 0 (2) C1 = (2, 3); r1 = 4 9 12 5 9 81 26 64 8 C1C2 = 25 144 13 C1C2 = r1 + r2 Circles touch externally each other, hence number of common tangent are three. C2 = (3, 9); r2 = 35 81. Key Sol. The area (in sq. units ) of the quadrilateral formed by the tangents at the end points of the x 2 y2 latera recta to the ellipse 1 , is: 9 5 27 27 (1) (2)18 (3) (4)27 4 2 (4) 2x y Eq. of tangent at (2, 5/3) is 1 9 3 (0,3) (2, 5/3) (9/2, 0) 1 9 Area 4 3 27 sq.units 2 2 82. Key Sol. Let O be the vertex and Q be any point on the parabola, x 2 8y . If the point P divides the line segment OQ internally in the ratio 1:3, then the locus of P is: (1) x 2 y (2) y2 x (3) y2 2x (4) x 2 2y (4) Let P h, k .t 3 0 h t = 4h …(1) 4 t2 . 3 0 k 8 t2 = 32k …(2) 4 Eliminating t, we get x 2 2y 83. Key 2 x =8y 1:3 P Q(t, t2 /8) O The distance of the point (1,0,2) from the point of intersection of the line x 2 y 1 z 2 and the plane x-y+z=16, is: 3 4 12 (1) 2 14 (2)8 (3) 3 21 (4) 13 (4) 36 Sol. Let point of intersection 3t 2, 4t 1,12t 2 3t 2 4t 1 12t 2 16 t=1 Point of intersection (5,3,14) distance 84. Key Sol. 85. Sol. 2 2 3 0 14 2 86. 2 =13 The equation of the plane containing the line 2x-5y+z=3; x+y+4z=5, and parallel to the plane, x+3y+6z=1, is : (1) 2x 6y 12z 13 (2) x 3y 6z 7 (3) x 3y 6z 7 (4) 2x 6y 12z 13 (3) Required plane is 2x 5y z 3 x y 4z 5 0 Or x 2 y 5 z 4 1 3 5 0 ……..(i) x 3y 6z 1 0 ………..(ii) As (i)and (ii) are parallel 2 5 4 1 1 3 6 11 2 Required plane is x+3y+6z=7 Let a , b and c be three non-zero vectors such that no two of them are collinear and 1 a b c b c a. If is the angle between vectors b and c , then a value of sin is: 3 2 2 2 2 3 2 (1) (2) (3) (4) 3 3 3 3 (1) 1 c.b a c.a b b c a 3 1 c.b b c and c.b 0 3 1 cos 3 2 2 sin 3 If 12 identical balls are to be placed in 3 identical boxes, then the probability that one of the boxes contains exactly 3 balls is : Key 5 1 37 11 (1) Key Sol. 87. Key 10 55 2 3 3 2 (2) 55 3 12 1 (3) 220 3 11 1 (4) 22 3 (1) Required probability 12C3 29 312 11 12 11 10 29 55 2 3 3 6 312 The mean of the data set comprising of 16 observations is 16.if one of the observation valued 16 is deleted and three new observations valued 3, 4 and 5 are added to the data, then the mean of the resultant data, is: (1) 16.8 (2)16.0 (3)15.8 (4)14.0 (4) 16 xi Sol. i 1 16 16 16 xi 256 i 1 16 252 =14 18 i 1 If the angles of elevation of the top of a tower from three collinear points A,B and C, on a line leading to the foot of the tower, are 30 0 , 450 and 60 0 respectively, then the ratio is, AB:BC, is : (1) 3 :1 (2) 3 : 2 (3) 1: 3 (4) 2 : 3 (1) x tan 60o x y 3 …(1) y x tan 45o x BC y …(2) BC y x tan 30o x 3 AC y y AC x i 16 3 4 5 252 88. Key Sol. 3x y AB BC ….(3) y 3 BC y BC y 3 1 …(4) 3 y 3 y AB BC 38 N x 30° A 45° AB BC 2y 60° y C B M …(5) AB 2y y 3 y 2y 3y y AB 2 3 1 3 1 2 3 2 3 3 3 1 3 BC 3 1 3 1 89. Key Sol. 1 2x Let tan 1 y tan 1 x tan 1 ,where x .Then a value of y is : 2 3 1 x 3x x 3 3x x 3 3x x 3 3x x 3 (1) (2) (3) (4) 1 3x 2 1 3x 2 1 3x 2 1 3x 2 (1) Let x tan , where / 6, / 6 tan 1 y 2 3 3x x 3 , where 3 2 1 3x 2 2 The negation of ~s (~r s) is equivalent to (1) s ~r (2)s (r ~s) (4) y tan 3 90. Key Sol. r T T F F (3)s (r ~s) (4) s r s ~s ~r ~r s ~s ~r s ~ [~ s ~ r s sr T F T F F T F T F F T T F F T F F T T T T F F F T `F F F 39
© Copyright 2024