DO NOT OPEN THIS TEST BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE ASKED TO DO SO SAMPLE PAPER FOR CIDCO-UPSC-DELHI-CET- 2016 DR. BABASAHEB AMBEDKAR RESEARCH AND TRAINING INSTITUTE, PUNE Time Allowed: 3 Hours Maximum Marks: 300 PART - I (GS) and PART - II (CSAT) INSTRUCTIONS 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. Immediately after the commencement of the examination, you should check that this test booklet does not have any unprinted or torn or missing pages, etc. If so, request for its replacement. You have to enter your seat number on the test booklet in the box provided alongside. DO NOT write anything else on the test booklet. Seat/Roll numberThis test booklet contains 135 questions divided in two parts as shown below. Part No. of Marks Negative Marks Questions 75 150 One third for each wrong answer I 60 150 One third for each wrong answer Except for Question Nos. 133 to 135. II Each question is printed both in English and Hindi. Each question comprises four responses (answers). You have to select the response which you want to mark on the answer sheet. In case you feel that there is more than one correct response, mark the response which you consider the best. In any case, choose ONLY ONE response for each question. You have to mark all your responses one by one ONLY on the separate OMR answer sheet provided. Before you proceed to mark in the answer sheet the response to various items in the test booklet, you have to fill in some particulars in the answer sheet as per instructions contained in your admit card. After you have completed the marking of all your responses (by darkening the response circle completely) on the answer sheet and the examination has concluded, you should hand over to the invigilator only the OMR answer sheet. You are permitted to take away with you the test booklet. Sheets for rough work are appended in the test booklet at the end. Penalty for wrong answers : THERE WILL BE PENALTY FOR WRONG ANSWERS MARKED BY A CANDIDATE EXCEPT FOR QUETIONS FROM 133 TO 135 WHICH DO NOT CARRY ANY PENALTY FOR WRONG ANSWER. i. There are four alternatives for the answer to every question. For each question for which a wrong answer has been given by the candidate, one-third of the marks assigned to that question will be deducted as penalty. ii. If a candidate gives more than one answer, it will be treated as a wrong answer even if one of the given answers happens to be correct and there will be same penalty, as above, to that question. iii. If a question is left blank, i.e. no answer is given by the candidate; there will be no penalty for that question. Final result of this examination will be declared on our website https://barti.maharashtra.gov.in Note: Hindi version of the instructions is printed on the back cover of this test booklet. 1 2 PART- I (GS) 1) Consider the Statements: a) Only 1 b) Only 2 1. Carbon Monoxide is not a persistent Pollutant c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 2. The greatest exposure to Carbon Monoxide comes from Cigarette Smoking 4) Which of the following is/ are true? 1. Global warming is completely a human induced phenomenon Which Statement(s) is/are not correct? (a) Both 1 and 2 (b) only 1 (c) only 2 (d) both are correct 2. Climate change is completely a human induced phenomenon a) only 1 b) only 2 2) Consider the following statements about Arsenic Poisoning: c) both 1 and 2 d) neither 1 nor 2 1. It is mainly due to Industrial Pollutants and Timber treatment. 5) Which of the following is/are true? 1. „Algal blooms‟ are sudden Spurt of algal growth, which make the water quality better. 2. It causes Skin problems Cancer of Bladder, lungs, Kidney and diseases of blood vessels in legs and feet. 2.‟ Aphytic zones‟ are under water floor areas supporting plant and animal life. 3.It is mainly found in Southern Punjab in India. a) 1 only b) 2 only 4. Digging deeper wells is one of the possible solutions. c) both 1 and 2 d) neither 1 nor 2 Which of the following statements are correct? 6) Which of the following is/are true? (a) 1,2,3 and 4 (b) 1,2 and 3 (c) 2,3 and 4 (d) 1,2 and 4 1. „Ozone Hole‟ is the phenonmenon of springtime decrease in Upper Tropospheric ozone over Earth's polar regions 2. The „Vienna Convention‟ bans the production of ODS ( Ozone depleting substance) 3) Which of the following is/are correct? 1. The incoming solar radiation is not the main cause of warming up of the planet 2. All of the Infrared radiation from the earth is absorbed and re – emitted by the GHG ( green house gases) and is one of the main cause of warming up of our planet. 3 a) 1 only b) 2 only c) both 1 and 2 d) neither 1 nor 2 (c) 1 औय 2 दोनों 1) ननम्नलरखित वाक्मों ऩय ववचाय कयें । 1. काफबन भोनॉक्साईड मह चियस्थामी प्रदष ू क नही है । 2. धूम्रऩान की वजह से फहुत ज्मादा भात्रा भें काफबन 4) इन वाक्म/ वाक्मों भें से कौनसा वाक्म सही नही है ? (b) ससपब 1 (c) (d) दोनों वाक्म सही हैं। ससपब 2 ननम्नलरखित वाक्मों भें से कौनसा/ कौनसे वाक्म सही हैं? भोनॉक्साईड फाहय ननकरता है । (a) 1 औय 2 दोनों (d) 1 औय 2 भें से एक बी नही। 1. ग्रोफर वॉसभिंग ऩयू ी तयह से भानव प्रेयीत घटना है । 2. वातावयण भें फदराव मह ऩूयी तयह से भानव प्रेयीत घटना है । (a) ससपब 1 (b) ससपब 2 (c) 1 औय 2 दोनों (d) 1 औय 2 भें से एक बी नही। 2) असेननक ववषाक्तता के सॊदबभ भें ननम्नलरखित वाक्मों ऩय ववचाय कयें । 1. मह प्रभुख रूऩ से 5) औद्मोचगक प्रदष ू क औय सही है ? रकडीऩय ककए जानेवारी इराज की वजह से होता 2. 1. "शैवार का खखरना" इसभे अिानक शैवार की है । वध् ु वत्ता को सध ु ायता ृ दी होती है , जो ऩानी की गण इसके कायण त्विा के योग, भूत्राशम, पेपडे, भूत्रपऩॊड है ! के कैन्सय तथा ऩैय औय ऩैयों की यक्त वाहहकाओॊ के 3. ननम्नलरखित वाक्मों भें से कौनसा/ कौनसे वाक्म 2. ‘अॅवकपहटक ऺेत्र’ ऩानी के तर के ननिरे ऺेत्र भें योग होते हैं। होते हैं जो वनस्ऩती औय प्राणीमों के जीवन की बायत भें मह दक्षऺण ऩॊजाफ भें प्रभुख रूऩ से ऩामा सहामता कयते हैं। जाता है । 4. ज्मादा गहयें कुएॉ की खुदाई कयना मह एक सॊबाव्म (a) ससपब 1 (b) ससपब 2 हर है । (c) 1 औय 2 दोनों (d) 1 औय 2 भें से एक बी नही। 6) इन वाक्म/ वाक्मों भें से कौन से वाक्म सही हैं? (a) 1, 2, 3 औय 4 (b) 1, 2 औय 3 (c) 2, 3 औय 4 (d) 1, 2 औय 4 3) सही है ? 1. ऋतू भें होनेवारी घट के कायण होनेवारी घटना है । ननम्नलरखित वाक्म/ वाक्मों भें से कौनसा/ कौनसे 2. अॊदय आनेवारे सौय पवककयण, ग्रह के गभी का ऩथ् ृ वी से ननकरने वारे सबी अवयक्त पवककयण जी.एि ्.जी. (ग्रीन हाऊस गॅसेस) भें शोपषत औय ऩुनब -उत्सजीत हो जाते हैं औय मही हभाये ग्रह के गभी के प्रभुख कायणों भें से एक है । (a) ससपब 1 "व्व्हएन्ना असबमान" ODS (ओझोन घट ऩदाथब) के उत्ऩादन ऩय योक रगाती है । भुख्म कायण नही है । 2. "आझोन निद्र" ऩथ् ृ वी के उऩय के ध्रुपवम ऺेत्र के उऩय होनेवारे ऊऩयी ऺेत्र भॊडरीम ओजोन भें वसॊत वाक्म सही है /हैं? 1. ननम्नलरखित वाक्मों भें से कौनसा/ कौनसे वाक्म (b) ससपब 2 4 (a) ससपब 1 (b) ससपब 2 (c) 1 औय 2 दोनों (d)1 औय 2 भें से एक बी नही। 7) Which of the following is/are true? 10) Movement of cell against concentration gradient is called 1. Freons when released in the atmosphere cause the depletion of Ozone mostly found in the lower Troposphere. 2. The free Florine radical from CFCs can associate with an Ozone molecule and destroy it. A.Osmosis B.Diffusion C. Active transport D. Passive transport 11) Arrange the following animals in the order of their average life span. 3. All the following - Free radicals of Chlorine, Bromine, Nitric Oxide radical (NO) and Hydroxyl radical(OH) are threats to the Ozone layer 1. Hippopotamus 2. elephant 3. Tortoise 4. Tiger a) 2 only b) 3 only (a) 1,2,4,3 . (b) 4, 1,2,3 c) 2 and 3 d) None (c) 3,2,1,4 (d) 4, 1,3,2 8) Which of these is/are true? 1.„Green India‟ campaign aims afforestation of 6 million hectares of land for 12) Which of the following statements are true regarding sex determining chromosomes? 2. The „National Action Plan for Climate Change‟ targets increasing land area under forest cover from 23% to 33%. 1. All children will inherit a Y chromosome from their mother regardless of whether they are boys or girls. Thus, the sex of the children will be determined by what they inherit from their father. 3. The „National Action Plan for Climate Change‟ recognises the Peninsular ecosystem as vital to preserving the ecological security of the country. a) 1and 2 b) 2 and 3 c) 1and 3 d) 1, 2 and 3 2. A child who inherits an X chromosome from her father will be a girl, and one who inherits a Y chromosome from him will be a boy. 3. Women have a perfect pair of sex chromosomes, both called X. But men have a mismatched pair in which one is a normal-sized X while the other is a short one called Y. 9) The main energy yielding substances to human body are (a) Carbohydrates and Fat (b) Carbohydrates and proteins (c) Fats and Proteins (d) Minerals and Vitamins 5 A. 1 and 2 only B. 2 and 3 only C. 2 only D. All are correct 7) d) ननम्नलरखित वाक्मों भें से कौनसा/ कौनसे वाक्म खननज औय पवटाभीन सही है ? 1. किऑन जफ वातावयण भें िोडा जाता है तो वह 10) जादातय ननिरे ऺोबभॊडर ऩामे जानेवारे ओझोन को कहते है की कभी का कायण फनता है । 2. सी.एप् .सी. से भुक्त फ्रोयीन कण ओझोन अणु के साथ सहमोग कयके उसे नष्ट कय सकते हैं। 3. ननम्न सबी :- क्रोयीन, ब्रोसभन, नामट्रीक ऑक्साईड ससपब 3 (c) 2 औय 3 (d) एक बी नहीॊ 8) ननम्नलरखित वाक्मों भें से कौनसा/ कौनसे वाक्म सही है ? 1. "हरयत बायत" असबमान का उद्दे श्म 6 राख हे क्टय प्रसयण (c) सक्रीम ऩयीवहन (d) ननव्ष्क्रम ऩयीवहन 1. दरयमाई घोडा 2. हाथी 2. किुआ 4. फाघ (a) 1, 2, 4, 3 (b) 4, 1, 2, 3 (c) 3, 2, 1, 4 (d) 4, 1, 3, 2 12) ननम्नलरखित वाक्मों भें से कौनसा वाक्म लरॊग का बूभी ऩय वनीकयण कयना मह है । 2. (b) के क्रभ भें रगाएॉ। भुक्त कण ओझोन ऩयत के सरए खतया है । (b) (a) द्रवसबसयण 11) ननम्नलरखित जानवयोंको उनकी औसत जीवन कार कण (एन.ओ.) औय है ड्रॉव्क्सर कण (ओ.एि ्.) के (a) ससपब 2 ऩता रगानेवारे गण ु सत्र ू ों के फाये भे सही है ? "हवाभान ऩरयवतबन के सरए याष्ट्रीम कामब मोजना" का रक्ष्म है वन बूसभ ऺेत्र भें 23% से 33% वध् ृ दी 1. कयना। 3. दे श की सबी फच्िे, कपय वह रडका हो मा रडकी, उनकी भाॉ से Y गुणसूत्र पवयासत भें रें गे। "हवाभान ऩरयवतबन के सरए याष्ट्रीम कामब मोजना" ऩहिान कया दे ती है की सकेंद्रण उताय-चढाव के ववरुध्द ऩेशी की गतिविधी इस प्रकाय फच्िे अऩने पऩता से पवयासत भें क्मा रेते हैं इसऩय ऩरयव्स्थतीकी उनका सरॊग ननधाबरयत ककमा जाएगा। सुयऺा के सॊयऺण के सरए प्रामद्वीऩीम ऩरयव्स्थतीकी 2. तॊत्र भहत्वऩण ू ब है । फच्िा अऩने पऩता से पवयासत भें X गुणसूत्र रेता है तो रडकी होगी, औय जो Y गुणसूत्र उनसे रेता है वह रडका होगा। (a) 1 औय 2 (b) 2 औय 3 (c) 1 औय 3 (d) 1, 2 औय 3 3. भहहराओॊ के ऩास मौन गुणसूत्रों की एक सही जोडी हैं, व्जसभें से दोनों को X कहा जाता है । ऩुरूषों के ऩास पवसबन्न जोडी है 9) आकाय का होता है व्जसे Y कहते है । है काफोहाइड्रेट औय ियफी (पैट) b) काफोहाइड्रेट औय प्रोटीन c) ियफी (पैट) औय प्रोटीन व्जसभे एक साधायण आकाय का X होता है औय दस ू या िोटे भानव शयीय के लरए मह भुख्म ऊजाभ उऩज ऩदाथभ a) ऩयॊ तु 6 (a) ससपब 1 औय 2 (b) ससपब 2 औय 3 (c) ससपब 2 (d) सबी वाक्म सही है । 13) How do we know how old the fossils are? D. I – 3, II – 1, III – 2, IV – 4 A. By digging earth and estimating age by layers and secondly by dating fossils and detecting the ratios of different isotopes of the same element in the fossil material. 16) Which hormone helps in the expulsion of milk during sucking B. By viewing how decayed an organism or object looks and also measuring CO2 level in fossil. (a) Prolactin (b) Thrombin (c) Oxytocin (d) Thyroxin C. By measuring various characteristics of fossil and another way is to measure oxygen level left in fossil. 17) Satellite is revolving around earth in its circular orbit at a velocity v. If the gravitational force suddenly disappears then the satellite will D. It is done by guess work and there are usually controversies about the age of a fossil. (A) Revolve in the same orbit at velocity v (B) Move to the line touching the orbit with velocity v 14) The functional unit of kidney which helps in filtering of blood and formation of urine is: (C) Fall on earth with increasing velocity (D) Start revolving in some other orbit with smaller radius A. Neuron -axon B. Nephron-bowman‟s capsule 18) What are cold-blooded animals? C. Axon-glomulous (a) Animals whose blood is cold D Kidneion-beta cells (b) Animlas who are ferocious (c) Animals whose body temperature varies according to the temperature of atmosphere. 15) Match the following diseases and the organism causing that disease: (d) Animals whose body temperature remains constant. Organism Disease I. Viruses 1. Elephantiasis II. Bacteria 2. Typhoid fever III. Protozoan microbes 3. Dengue fever (a) a protein substance found in the blood of some people IV. Worms 4. Malaria (b) a hormone carried by the blood 19) The Rh factor refers to, (c) the ratio of red corpuscles to white corpuscles in the blood A. I – 1, II – 2, III – 3, IV – 4 B. I – 4, II – 3, III – 2, IV – 1 (d) a process that speeds up the clotting of blood C. I – 3, II – 2, III – 4, IV – 1 7 16) कौनसा हाभोन चूसने के दौयान दध ू के ननष्कासन 13) जीवाश्भ ककतने ऩुयाने हैं मह हभ कैसे जानें? भें भदद कयता है ? (a) ऩथ् ृ वी की खुदाई कयके औय ऩयतों से ऊम्र का अॊदाजा रगाएॉ औय जीवाश्भों का डेटीॊग कयके उसी (a) प्रोरैक्टीन (b) थ्रोव्म्फन प्रकाय की जीवाश्भ साभग्री से फने अरग अरग (c) ऑव्क्सटोससन (d) थामयॉव्क्सन सभस्थाननकों के अनुऩातों का ऩता रगाकय। (b) जीव मा वस्तु ककतने सडे हुए हैं मा हदख यहे हैं मह 17) एक उऩग्रह एक वेग V ऩय अऩनी वत्त ृ ीम कऺा भें दे खकय मा जीवाश्भ भें व्स्थत CO2 के स्तय का ऩथ् ृ वी के चायों औय घूभ यहा है । अचानक अगय भाऩन कयके। गुरुत्वाकषभण फर गामफ हुआ तो उऩग्रह की ननम्न (c) जीवाश्भ की पवसबन्न पवशेषताओ का भाऩन कयके भें से क्मा स्थथती होगी? औय दस ू यी तयह जीवाश्भ भें फिा ऑव्क्सजन के (a) वह अऩनी उसी कऺा भें वेग v से घूभता यहे गा। स्तय का भाऩन कयके। (b) वह वेग v से अऩनी कऺा को स्ऩशब कयनेवारी (d) अनुभान ऩय आधारयत कामब से मह ककमा जाता है ऩॊक्ती भें िरा जाएगा। औय जीवाश्भ की उम्र के फाये भें आभ तौय ऩय (c) वह फढते वेग भें ऩथ् ृ वी के उऩय चगय जाएगा। पववाद ही होता है । (d) वह दस ू ये कभ त्रत्रज्ज्मा वारे ककसी अन्म कऺा भें घूभने रगेगा। 14) गद ु े की कामाभत्भक इकाई, जो िन ू की छानने औय भत्र ू तैमाय कयने भें भदद कयता है , वह है :- 18) शीतयक्तवारे प्राणी ककन्हे कहते है ? (a) न्मुयॉन अऺतॊतु (a) वह प्राणी व्जनका यक्त ठॊ डा होता है । (b) नेिॉन-फोभन कैप्सर ू (b) वह प्राणी जो बमॊकय क्रूय है । (c) एक्जॉन ग्रोभुरस (d) (c) वह प्राणी व्जनके शयीय का ताऩभान वातावयण के भूत्रपऩॊड की फीटा कोसशकाएॉ अनुसाय फदरता यहता है । (d) वह प्राणी व्जनके शयीय का ताऩभान कामभ यहता 15) ननम्नलरखित योगों औय उनके कायणों का लभरान है । कयें । जीव योग i. पवषाणू 1. हाथीऩाॉव ii. जीवाणू 2. टामपॉईड फुखाय iii. प्रोटोझोअन जीवाणू 3. डेंगू फुखाय iv. कीडे 4. भरेरयमा 19) Rh पैक्टय ननम्न भें से ककसके सॊदबभ भें है ? (a) कुि रोगों के यक्त भे ऩामा गमा एक प्रोटीन ऩदाथब। (a) i-1, ii-2, iii-3, iv-4 (b) यक्त के द्वाया प्रवाहहत एक हाभोन। (b) (c) खून भें सपेद कोशीकाओका रार कोशीका के साथ i-4, ii-3, iii-2, iv-1 होनेवारा गुणोत्तय प्रभाण। (c) i-3, ii-2, iii-4, iv-1 (d) प्रक्रीमा जो खून के (d) i-3, ii-1, iii-2, iv-4 फढाती है । 8 थक्के फनाने की गती को 20) Nuclear fusion and nuclear fission are two different types of energy-releasing reactions. Consider the following statements: 22) Which one among the following statements about “modem” is correct? i. b. Modem is a software a. Modem is an operating system Fission occurs in stars, such as the sun while fusion reaction does not normally occur in nature. c. Modem converts high level language into assembly language ii. Fission is the splitting of a large atom into two or more smaller ones while fusion is the fusing of two or more lighter atoms into a larger one. d. Modem converts analog signal into digital signal and vice versa iii. 23) High temperature is required for both fusion and fission to occur. 1. Firewall is a mechanism that isolates a network from the rest of the internet, permitting only specific traffic to pass in and out. iv. The energy released by fission is higher than the energy released by nuclear fusion. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ? a. i and ii only b. ii, iii and iv c. ii only d. ii and iv only 21) Consider the following statements related to internet 2. Browser is a set of instruction written in a computer language. 3. Spam refers to practice of blindly posting commercial messages or advertisements to a large number of unrelated and uninterested persons. Which of the following statements related to difference between Li-Fi and Wi-Fi is/are correct? 4. Cookie is a type of software that creates indexes of databases or internet sites, based on the titles of files and key words. 1.Wi-Fi works by spewing out radio waves in all directions. Li-Fi does the same thing by flickering out light from a bulb. Which of the above is/are incorrect? 2.Wi-Fi is more secure than Li-Fi. a. 2 and 4 only b. 2, 3 and 4 3. Li-Fi provides faster data transmission than Wi-Fi. c. 1, 2 and 3 d.4 only Select the answer using the code given below: a.1 and 3 only b. 1, 2 and 3 24) Which of the following disease is common in the workers of textile industry? c. 1,and 2 only d. 2 and 3 only a) Silicosis b) Asbestosis c) Pneumoconiosis d) Byssinosis 9 c) 20) ऩयभाणू एकीकयण औय ऩयभाणु वविॊडन ऊजाभ को भोडेभ उच्ि स्तय की बाषा को साभान्म बाषा भें ऩरयवनतबत कय दे ता है । फाहय ननकारनेवारी प्रनतक्रीमाओॊ के दो प्रकाय हैं। ननम्नलरिीत वाक्मोंऩय ववचाय कये ् i. d) पवखॊडन की प्रक्रीमा ससतायों भें होती है जैसे सम ू ,ब औय उसके उरट ऩरयवनतबत कय दे ता है । जफकक एकीकयण प्रनतकक्रमा साभान्म रूऩ से प्रकृती भें नहीॊ होती है । ii. 23) इॊटयनेट से जुडे ननम्नलरखित वाक्मोंऩय ववचाय कयें । एक फडे ऩयभाणु का दो मा अचधक िोटे ऩयभाणु भे पवबाजन पवखॊडन है , जफकक दो मा अचधक हल्के iii. iv. भोडेभ ऍनारॉग ससग्नर को डडजीटर ससग्नर भें 1. पामयवॉर एक ऐसा तॊत्र है जो सॊऩकब को फाकी के ऩयभाणुओॊ को एकत्र कयना एकीकयण है । इॊटयनेट से अरग कय दे ता है , व्जसभें ससपब पवसशष्ट एकीकयण औय पवखॊडन दोनों को ही उच्ि ताऩभान मातामात को अॊदय आने की मा फाहय जाने की की आवश्मकता होती है । अनुभती दी जाती है । पवखॊडन द्वाया िोडी गई ऊजाब ऩयभाणू 2. एकीकयणद्वाया िोडी गई ऊजाब से अचधक होती है । ब्राऊजय कॊप्मूटय की बाषा भें सरखे हुए ननदे श का एक सॊि है । 3. स्ऩॅभ एक ऐसा व्मवहाय दशाबता है व्जसभे अरुिी उऩयी वाक्मों भें से कौनसे सही है ? औय असॊफॊचधत व्मव्क्तमों की एक फडी सॊख्मा के a) ससपब i औय ii b) ii, iii औय iv सरए वाखणव्ज्मक सॊदेशों मा पवऻाऩनों का आॉखे फॊद c) ससपब ii d) ससपब ii औय iv कयके ऩोस्टीॊग ककमा जाता है । 4. 21) ननम्नलरखित वाक्मों भें से Li-Fi औय Wi-Fi के के शीषबक औय भुख्म शब्दे के आधाय ऩय डेटाफेस फीच के पयक से जड ु े कौनसा/से वाक्म सही है ? 1. की अनुक्रभखणका मा इॊटयनेट साईट फनाता है । Wi-Fi सबी हदशाओॊ भें ननकरे ये डडमो तयॊ गो द्वाया ऊऩयी वाक्मों भें से कौनसा/से वाक्म गरत है ? काभ कयता हैं, Li-Fi एक फल्फ से ननकरी हुई योशनीद्वाया वही काभ कयता है । 2. Wi-Fi मह Li-Fi की तुरना भें अचधक सुयक्षऺत है । 3. Li-Fi मह Wi-Fi से अचधक तेजी से डेटा प्रसायण कयता है । ससपब 1 औय 3 b) 1, 2 औय 3 c) ससपब 1 औय 2 d) ससपब 2 औय 3 b) भोडेभ एक सॉफ्टवेअय है । b) 2, 3 औय 4 c) 1, 2 औय 3 d) ससपब 4 दे ता है ? एक वाक्म सही है ? भोडेभ एक ऑऩये हटॊग ससस्टभ है । ससपब 2 औय 4 ननम्न भें से कौनसा योग साधायण रुऩ से ददिाई 22) भोडेभ के ववषम भें ननम्नलरखित वाक्मों भें कौनसा a) a) 24) कऩडों के कायिानों भें काभ कयने वारे कभभचायी भें नीिे हदए गऐ कोड का प्रमोग कय जवाफ िनु नएa) कुकी एक ऐसे सॉफ्टवेअय का प्रकाय है जो पाईर 10 a) ससरीकोससस b) ऍसफेसटॉससस c) फ्मुभोकोननऑससस d) फामससनोससस (b) Distance travelled by jeep is shorter then lorry before coming to rest 25) Isotopes have: a) Same number of neutrons but different number of protons (c) Distance travelled depends on individual velocity of both the vehicles b) Same number of electrons but different number of protons (d) Both will travel same distance before coming to rest c) Same number of protons but different number of neutrons d) Same number of protons but different number of electrons 29) When cream is separated from milk? A) The density of milk increases (B) The density of milk decreases 26) Higher level of organic pollution of water will result in (C) The density of milk remains unchanged a) Rise in Biological Oxygen Demand (D) It becomes more viscous b) Drop in Biological Oxygen Demand 30) Which of following in not a property of cathode ray. c) No change in Biological Oxygen Demand d) First drop and then rise in Biological Oxygen Demand A. Cathode rays are invisible and travel in a straight line. B. These rays can ionise gases. 27) Carbon Tax is 1. Regressive tax C. These rays can penetrate through thin metal foils. 2. Progressive tax 3. Pigovian tax D. These rays make materials cool on which they fall. Select the correct option using the codes given below. a.2 only c. 2 and 3 only 31) b. 1 and 3 only Pressure cooker cooks rice faster because (a) it always lets the steam escape d. 1 only (b) High pressure crushes the hard covering of 28) A lorry and jeep are moving on a plane road with same kinetic Energy. They are brought to rest by application of brakes which provide equal retarding forces. Which of the following statements is true. Rice grains (c) It does not let the heat energy escape easily (d) High pressure raises the boiling point of (a) Distance travelled by lorry is shorter then jeep before coming to rest Water. 11 25) है । आइसोटोऩ मह है : इस सॊफध भें ननम्नलरखित वाक्मों भें से कौनसा वाक्म सही है ? a) न्मूट्रॉन की सॊख्मा सभान, रेककन प्रोटॉन की सॊख्मा पवसबन्न। a) रूकने से ऩहरे रॉयी ने काटा हुआ अॊतय जीऩ ने काटे हुए अॊतय से कभ है ! b) इरेक्ट्रॉन की सॊख्मा सभान, रेककन प्रोटॉन की सॊख्मा b) रूकने से ऩहरे जीऩ ने काटा हुआ अॊतय रॉयी ने पवसबन्न। काटे हुए अॊतय से कभ है ! c) प्रोटॉन की सॊख्मा सभान, रेककन न्मूट्रॉन की सॊख्मा c) काटा हुआ अॊतय दोनों वाहनों के व्मव्क्तगत वेगऩय पवसबन्न। ननबबय कयता है । d) रूकने से ऩहरे दोनों वाहन सभान अॊतय काटें गे। d) प्रोटॉन की सॊख्मा सभान, रेककन इरेक्ट्रॉन की सॊख्मा पवसबन्न। 29) भराई जफ दध ू से अरग की जाती हैं तफ26) ऩानी भें जैववक प्रदष ू ण उच्च भात्रा भें होने का ननम्न भें से कौनसा ऩरयणाभ होगा? a) जैपवक ऑक्सीजन की भाॉग भें वद् ृ धी । b) जैपवक ऑक्सीजन की भाॉग भें चगयावट । a) दध ू की घनता फढती है । b) दध ू की घनता घटती है । c) दध ू की घनता अऩरयवनतबत यहती है । d) दध ू अचधक चिऩचिऩा हो जाता है । c) जैपवक ऑक्सीजन की भाॉग भें कोई ऩरयवतबन नहीॊ होगा 30) ननम्न भें से कौनसा कॎथोड ये का गुणधभभ नहीॊ है ? d) ऩहरे जैपवक ऑक्सीजन की भाॉग भें घट औय फाद भे a) वद् ृ धी हो जाएगी । कॅथौड ककयणें अदृष्म होते हैं औय एक सीधी ये खा भें मात्रा कयते है । 27) ननम्न भें से काफभन टै क्स क्मा है ? 1. प्रनतगाभी कय 3. ऩामगोपवमन कय b) मह ककयणें वामूओॊ को आमोनाइज कय सकती है । c) मह ककयणें ऩतरी धातु पॉइल्स के भाध्मभ से 2. प्रगनतशीर कय प्रवेश कय सकती है । d) मह ककयणें व्जस साभग्री ऩय ऩडती है उसको ठॊ डा कय दे ती है । ननम्न ऩमाबमों भें से सही ऩमाबम िुनेंa) ससपब 2 b) ससपब 1 औय 3 c) d) ससपब 1 ससपब 2 औय 3 31) प्रेशय कुकय तेजी से चावर ऩकाता है क्मोंकक, a) मह हभेशा बाऩ को िोडने की सुपवधा दे ता है । b) उच्ि दफाव िावर के दाने का हाडब कवय कुिर दे ता है । c) 28) एक रॉयी औय जीऩ एक ही गनतज ऊजाभ के साथ एक प्रेन सडक ऩय आगे फढ यहे है । वह गभी की ऊजाब को आसानी से िूटने नहीॊ दे ता है । एक ही रयटाडीं d) फर का प्रमोग कयके ब्रेक रगाकय दोनों को योका जाता 12 उच्ि दफाव ऩानी के उफरते त्रफॊद ु को फढा दे ता है । 32) Why do passengers in a moving bus fall 35) Which of the following are not correct forward when it stops suddenly? about the National Capital Territory of Delhi? (a) Because passengers continue to remain at rest as before. I. Its Legislative Assembly can legislate on any matter enumerated in the State List or in the (b) Because passengers continue to feel Concurrent List. moving as before. II. The Council of Ministers shall not consist of (c) Inertia of Rest more than 15% of the total number of MLAs. (d) Inertia of motion III. The Chief Minister and other Ministers are 33) A bomb is dropped at a point from a appointed by the Lieutenant Governor. moving aeroplane. The pilot observes that, (a) The bomb traverses a curved path and falls some distance behind that point A. I and II B. II and III C. III and I D. I, II and III (b) The bomb traverses a curved path and falls 36) Consider the following statements about proclamation of national emergency. Which of the following statements is/ are correct? some distance ahead (c) The bomb drops vertically downward 1. Proclamation of national emergency must be passed by either of the house of Parliament with simple majority. (d) The bomb remains stationary in the air for some time. 2. Resolution disapproving the continuation of a proclamation can be passed by Lok Sabha only and there is no need for both the houses of Parliament to disapprove it. 34) A cyclist taking a turn bends inwards while a car passenger taking the same turn is thrown outwards. The reason is 3. 100 members of Lok Sabha can give a written notice to the speaker or President (in case the Parliament is not in session), to call a special sitting for the purpose of disapproving the continuation of the proclamation. (a) That car has only four wheels while cycle has only two (b) That car is heavier than cycle (c) That cyclist has to counteract the A. 1 and 3 B. 1 only C. 2 only D. All of the above centrifugal force, while passenger is only thrown by it. (d) The difference in the speeds 13 32) जफ एक चरती फस फॊद हो जाती है तो फस भे फैठे मात्रत्र आगे की तयप a) I. BgH$r {dYmZg^m amÁ` gyMr VWm g_H$m{bH$ gyMr _o {XE JE {H$gr ^r {df` g§~§Yr H$mZyZ ~Zm gH$Vr h¡ & क्मों झक ु ते मा गगयते है ? क्मोंकक मात्रत्र ऩहरे की व्स्थती भें आयाभ से फैठना जायी यखते है । b) II. Hw$b Am_Xma H$r g§»`m Ho$ 15% _§ÍmrJU Zhr§ hmo gH$Vo h¡ & क्मोंकक मात्रत्र ऩहरे की तयह आगे फढने का एहसास कयना जायी यखते है । c) आयाभ की जडता की वजह से। d) गनत की जडता की वजह से। III. _w»`_§Ímr Ed§ AÝ` _§ÍmrAmo§ H$r {Z`wŠVr boâQZ§Q JdZ©a H$aVo h¡ 33) चरते हवाईजहाज से एक फभ को छोडा गमा। ऩामरट को दे िने को लभरेगा कीa) फभ एक घुभावदाय भागब से जाकय उस त्रफॊद ु के ऩीिे फभ एक घुभावदाय भागब से जाकय उस त्रफॊद ु के आगे कुि दयू ीऩय चगयता है । c) फभ नीिे अनर ु ॊफ हदशा भें नीिे चगयता है । d) फभ हवा भें कुि सभम के सरए व्स्थय यहता है । झुक जाता है , तो एक कायचारक वही भोड रेते सभम काय को िाय ऩहहए होते है तो साइककर को ससपब c) साइकिरिारक को केन्द्रप्रसायक फर को प्रनतकक्रमा दे नी ऩडती है जफिी मात्री केवर उसके कायण पेंका जाता है । d) II Am¡a III c) III Am¡a I d) I, II Am¡a III 3. gmd©O{ZH$ KmofUm H$mo Agh_Vr Xem©Zo Ho$ {bE {deof ~¡RH$ ~wbmZo Ho$ {bE, bmoH$g^m Ho$ 100 gXñ` AÜ`j VWm amîQ—mÜ`j H$mo (O~ g§gX A{YdoeZ Mmby Zhr§ h¡) {bIrV gyMZm Xo gH$Vo h¡ & दो ऩहहए होते है । काय साइककर से जादा बायी है । b) 2. gmd©O{ZH$ KmofUm H$mo Mmby aIZo H$r gh_Vr {g\© bmoH$g^m hr Zm_§Oya H$a gH$Vr h¡ Am¡a g§gX Ho$ XmoZmo gXZ Ho$ Agh_Vr H$r Amdí`H$Vm Zhr§ h¡ & फाहय की ओय झुक जाता है , इसका कायण है- b) I Am¡a II 1. amîQ—r` AmnmV pñWVr H$r gmd©O{ZH$ KmofUm Ho$ {bE XmoZmo _o go H$mB© ^r EH g§gX ^dZ Zo gm_mÝ` ~hw_V go gh_Vr XoZr Mm{hE & 34) एक साइककरचारक भोड रेते सभम अॊदय की तयप a) a) 36) amîQ—r` AmnmV pñWVr H$r gmd©O{ZH$ KmofUm Ho$ ~mao _o {ZåZ {ddaU Ho ~mao _o§ gmo{ME & {ZåZ _o go H$m¡Zgm / go {ddaU ghr§ h¡ ? कुि दयू ीऩय चगयता है । b) go Á`mXm दोनों की गती भें अॊतय होता है । 35) {ZåZ _o go H$m¡Zgm amîQ—r` amOYmZr amÁ` {Xëbr Ho$ ~mao _o ghr§ Zhr§ h¡ ? 14 a) 1 Am¡a 3 b) {g\© 1 c) {g\© 2 d) Cna Ho$ g^r 37) Consider the following statements related to Right to Education Act. 39) Consider the following statements related to Floating loans. 1) As per the Supreme Court judgment, RTE Act mandates that 25% seats in all schools be reserved for the economically disadvantaged children. It will be applicable to minority schools, whether aided or unaided. 1) RBI directed banks not to levy any penalty on individual borrowers for pre-payment of floating loans. 2) It includes housing, corporate, vehicle and personal loans. 2) It is in line with the socialistic principles mentioned in the Preamble and the directive principles of the Constitution and to ensure the progress of the weaker sections in the democratic state. Which of the following statements is/are NOT Correct? A. Only 1. B. Only 2. C. Both 1 and 2. D. None. Which of the following statements is/are Correct? A. Only 1. B. Only 2. C. Both 1 and 2. D. None. 40) Consider the following statements related to SC judgment on Third Gender for Transgenders. 1) Transgenders to get admission in educational institutions and employment on the basis that they belonged to the third gender category. 38) Consider the following statements related to Sarojini Naidu. 1) She was also known as the Nightingale of India and the second Indian woman to become the president of the Indian National Congress. 2) The Supreme Court observed that Section 377 of IPC is being misused by police and other authorities against them and their social and economic condition is far from satisfactory. NO OBC status to be given to Transgenders. 2) In India, National Women‟s Day is observed on February 13 every year, in memory of date of birth of Sarojini Naidu. Which of the following statements is/are NOT Correct? A. Only 1. B. Only 2. Which of the following statements is/are Correct? C. Both 1 and 2. D. None. A. Only 1. B. Only 2. C. Both 1 and 2. D. None. 15 1. Ama~rAmB© Zo ~¡§H$mo§ H$mo {ZXo©e {H$`m h¡ H$r ì`pŠVJV H$O©Xma AJa g_` go nhbo âbmoQr§J H$O© H$m ^wJVmZ H$aVm h¡ Vmo Cgna H$moB© X§S Zm bJmE & 37) {ejm A{YH$ma A{Y{Z`_ g§~§Yr {ZåZ {ddaU Ho$ ~mao _o gmo{ME… 1. gdmo©ÀM Ý`m`mb` Ho$ {ZU©` AZwgma, RTE A{Y{Z`_ go g^r nmRembm _o 25% OJh Am{W©H$ X¥îQr go Xw~©b ~ÀMmo§ Ho$ {bE Ama{jV hmoZr Mm{hE & `h 2. Bg_o J¥h, H$mnmo©aoQ, dmhZ Ed§ ì`pŠVJV H$O© em{_b h¡ & अल्ऩसॊख्मक {ZåZ _o go H$m¡Zgm / go {ddaU ghr Zhr§ h¡ ? nmRembmAmo§ H$mo bmJy h¡, Mmho dh AZwXmZrV hmo, {~Zm AZwXm{ZV hmo & 2. `h KQZm H$r CÔo{eH$m Ed§ _mJ©Xe©H$ {Z`_mo§ Ho$ AZwgma gm_m{OH$ VËdmo§ go g§~§Yr h¡, `h bmoH$Vm§{ÌH$ amÁ` _o§ Xw~©b KQH$mo§ H$r CÝZVr H$r gw{ZpíMVr h¡ & a) {g\© 1 b) {g\© 2 c) 1 Am¡a 2 XmoZmo d) Hw$N Zhr§ 40) {b§J n[ad{V©V Ho$ V¥Vr` n§Wr`mo Ho$ g§~§Yr gdmo©ÀM {ZåZ _o go H$m¡Zgm / go {ddaU ghr h¡ ? Ý`m`mb` Ho$ {ZU©` Ho$ ~mao _o {ZåZ {ddaU gmo{ME … a) {g\© 1 b) c) 1 Am¡a 2 XmoZmo d) 1.{b§J n[ad{V©V H$mo V¥Vr` n§Wr` loUr _o hmoZo H$r dOh go {ejm g§ñWm _o n«doe Am¡a Zm¡H$ar {_bZr Mm{hE & {g\© 2 Hw$N Zhr§ 2. gdmo©ÀM Ý`m`mb` H$mo Eogm ZOa Am`m h¡ H$r X§S g§{hVm H$r Ymam 377 H$m ny{bg Am¡a AÝ` A{YH$mar Ûmam CZHo$ {Ibm\$ Xyén`moJ {H$`m Om ahm h¡ Am¡a CZH$r gm_m{OH$ Am¡a Am{W©H$ {ñWVr g§VmofOZH$ Zhr§ h¡ & 38)gamo{OZr Zm`Sy Ho$ ~mao _o {ZåZ {ddaU gmo{ME… 1. CÝho§ ^maV H$r ~wb~wb ^r _mZm OmVm Wm Am¡a dh ^maVr` amîQ—r` H$m±J«og H$r Xwgar ^maVr` _{hbm AÜ`j Wr & {b§J namd{V©V H$mo OBC XOm© Zhr§ {X`m OmEJm & {ZåZ _o go H$m¡Zgm / go {ddaU ghr h¡ ? 2. ^maV _o amîQ—r` _{hbm {XZ 13 \ adar H$mo _Zm`m OmVm h¡, Omo gamoOZr Zm`SyOr Hoo$ OÝ_{XZ Ho$ `mX _o _Zm`m OmVm h¡& {ZåZ _o go H$m¡Zgm / go {ddaU ghr Zhr§ h¡ ? a) {g\© 1 b) {g\© 2 c) 1 Am¡a 2 XmoZmo d) Hw$N Zhr 39) âbmoQr§J H$O© Ho$ ~mao _o {ZåZ {ddaU gmo{ME … 16 a) {g\© 1 b) {g\© 2 c) 1 Am¡a 2 XmoZmo d) Hw$N Zhr§ 41) Consider the following related to BOKO HARAM. (b) Percentage in demand for the goods divided statements by percentage change in its price. 1)It is a militant Islamist group active in Libya and is responsible for wreaking mayhem in the country through a series of bombings and kidnappings. (c) Change in expenditure due to change in 2)It promotes a version of Islam which makes it forbidden for Muslims to participate in any political or social activity associated with Western society. 44) Which of the following statement(s) price of the goods. (d) None of the above. is/are incorrect? 1. Indian Federation is not the result of any agreement among states. Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct? 2. In India, States have right to be separated as different states have been formed on that A. Only 1. B. Only 2. C. Both 1 and 2. D. None basis. 3. Exclusive Economic Zones are the parts of states and Union Territories of India unless these are listed separately in 42) A Bill regarding formation of new states and alteration of areas, boundaries or names of existing states: schedule 1 and 4 of the Constitution. 4. Legislative, Executive and Judiciary powers between Centre and States have been 1) Can be introduced only in the Council of States clearly divided in the Indian Constitution. Code: 2) Requires recommendation of the President 3) Referred by the President to the Legislature of State for expressing its views within six months B. 2 only C. 1, 2 and 3 D.1 and 2 only (b) Only 2 and 4 (c) Only 1 and 4 (d) Only 2 and 3 45) Which of the following statement is Which of the statements given above is/are correct? A.1 only (a) Only 1 and 3 correct? (a) Being member of Commonwealth is against India's sovereignty. (b) In India Right to religious independency is limited to citizens only. (c) Sovereignty conferred by the Constitution is 43) 'Price Elasticity of Demand' for a goods vested in Indian Parliament. can be defined as:– (d) In Keshwanand Bharati vs Kerala state (a) Change in demand due to change in its price (1973) case it was said that Preamble is per unit. the part of the Constitution. 17 41) ~moH$mo ham_ g§~§Yr {ZåZ {ddaU Ho$ ~mao _o gmo{ME … 1. `h CJ«dmXr Bñbm_r g_yh h¡, Omo {b{~Am _o H$m`©erb h¡, dh ~__mar Ed§ AnhaUÛmam Xoe _o {h§gmMma`wŠV AamOH$ Ho$ {bE {Oå_oXma h¡ & d) 2. `h _wñbr_ {ddaU H$m n«gma H$aVm h¡ {Oggo _wñbr_mo§ H$mo npíM_r g_mO Ho$ gmW amOH$r` Ed§ gm_m{OH$ H¥$Vr H$mo n«{V~§Y H$aVm h¡ & Cna _o go H$m¡Zgm / go {ddaU ghr h¡ ? a) c) {g\© 1 1 Am¡a 2 XmoZmo b) {g\© 2 d) Hw$N Zhr§ 42) ZE amÁ` H$r ñWmnZm Ed§ _m¡OwXm amÁ`mo§ Ho$ joÌ, {g_m `m Zm_ _o ~Xbmd g§~Y § r ~rb … 1. {g\© amÁ` n[afX _o hr n«ñVwV {H$`m Om gH$Vm h¡& 2. Bgo amîQ—nVr {g\ mare H$r OéaV h¡ & 3. amîQ—nVr Zo amÁ` {dYmZ _§Sb H$mo CZH$r am` Nh _{hZo _o XoZo Ho$ {bE ^oOm h¡ & Cna _o go H$m¡Zgm / go {ddaU ghr h¡ ? a) {g\© 1 b) {g\© 2 c) 1, 2 Am¡a 3 d) {g\© 1 Am¡a 2 (a ) (b) c) d a b a) c) b) d c) 18 (c) Central Ministry of Law 46) Which of the following statement is correct? (d) None of these (a) In Presidential form of government, President is the actual head of the Executive. 49) Which of the following features are present in the Indian Constitution? (b) In Parliamentary form of government, President does not represent the country. 1. Absolute Federalism (c) All provisions mentioned in the Indian Constitution can be enforced through the court. 2. Supremacy of Constitution (d) Indian Constitution is a written Constitution and it is rigid like America‟s in the context of amendment. 4. Welfare State 3. Sovereign State Code: (a) Only 1, 2 and 3 (b) Only 2, 3 and 4 47) Consider the following statements: (c) Only 1 and 4 1. Preamble of Indian Constitution is the integrated organ of the Constitution. (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 2. Preamble of Indian Constitution is not justiciable and on it‟s basis judicial interpretation can not be done. 50) Which of the following statement is correct? 3. Preamble of the Constitution can't be amended. (a) Indian Constituent Assembly was set up on the basis of recommendations by Government of India Act 1935. Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct? (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 and 3 (c) Only 1 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3 (b) H.C. Mukherjee was appointed as the Vice Chairman of Constituent Assembly. (c) Jawaharlal Nehru was appointed as the Chairman of Rules Committee, Steering Committee and Adhoc Committee. 48) Which of the following constitutional organ in India has right to invalidate those laws and orders which are against the basic theme of the Constitution? (d) All of the above. (a) Council of Ministers led by Prime Minister (b) Parliament of India 19 46) b a c d b c d a b c d a b c d a b c d a 20 (d) None of the above. 51) The full name of newly constituted NITI Aayog is: 55) Churning poor are those: (a) National Institution for Transforming India. (a) Who regularly move in and out of poverty. (b) National Institution for Technological Innovation. (b) Who are always poor. (c) National Intelligence Training Institute. (c) Who are rich most of the time but at sometimes they have to face bad luck. (d) None of these. (d) All of the above. 52) Disguised Unemployment means: (a) Unemployment technology. due to change 56) Who were deputed to establish peace between government and Congress during Civil Disobedience Movement? in (b) Low productivity of labour. 1. Tej Bahadur Sapru (c) Large number of unemployed people. 2. Madan Mohan Malviya (d) Marginal productivity of labour is zero. 3. M.R. Jaikar Code: 53) “Each buyer and seller in the market is a price-taker”. It is a feature of which of the following? (a) Only 1 and 3 (b) Only 1 (c) Only 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3 (a) Monopolistic Competition 57) What were the objections of Congress in the context of Cripps Mission? (b) Perfect Competition (c) Oligopoly 1. Dominion status (d) Duopololy 2. Right of separation from federation given to the provinces 54) The consumer's surplus can be defined as: 3. Provision to maintain the supremacy of Governor General. (a) Surplus utility derived from an extra unit of consumption. 4. Process Assembly. (b) The difference between actual price and potential price. Code: (c) Total utility from consumption. 21 of formation of Constituent (a) Only 1 and 2 (b) Only 3 and 4 (c) Only 1, 2, and 3 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 51) (a ) ( a) (b ) ( b) ( c) ( c) (d ) ( d) 52. (a ) (b ) ( c) (d ) 53) ( a) ( b) c d ( a) ( b) c d (a) (b ) ( c) (d ) (a ) (b ) ( c) d 22 58) Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct in the context of „Quit India Movement‟? 61) Who started the system of depicting his own image and the name of taksal on coins? (a) Shershah (b) Akbar 1. Dr. Bhimrao Ambedkar did not support this movement. 2. Muslim League participated actively in the movement even after ideological difference with Congress. 3. In this Movement the Communists played a neutral role. Code: (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 and 3 (c) Only 1 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3 (c) Jahangir (d) Adilshah 62) Which medieval period ruler issued 'Rupiya'? (a) Alauddin Khilji (b)Muhammad Bin Tuglaq (c) Shershah Suri (d) Balban 63) Swami Ramanand Tirth was related to : 59) What were the reasons behind Religious Reform Movements that occurred in India during sixth century B.C.? 1. Development of critical approach among new vaisya class towards vedic religion. 2. Support to Vedic rituals in Upanishad thoughts. 3. Rising of new cities and spread of monetary system. 4. Development of iron technology. Code: (a) Only 1, 3 and 4 (c) Only 2 and 4 (a) Punnapra Vayalar Satyagrah (b) The movement launched in Hyderabad state (c) Leadership of revolt of 1857 in Bareilly (d) Revolt of Poligars in Andhra Pradesh 64) (a) Sir John Simon (b) Subhash Chandra Bose (c) Manavendra Nath Roy (d) Lord Wellington (b) Only 1, 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2 , 3 and 4 65) Which of the following leaders had blamed Mahatma Gandhi in early 1930‟s that “Mahatmaji has failed as a political leader” ? 60) Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct in the context of Jainism? 1. It says that World is real and indestructible. 2. It was based on theory of social equality in which women too were considered eligible for moksha. Code: (a) Only 1 (c) 1 and 2 both Under whose leadership Indian Statutory Commission was formed? 1. Subhash Chandra Bose 2. Bhagat Singh 3. Md. Ali Jinnah 4. Vithal Bhai Patel (b) Only 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Code: (a) Only 1 and 2 (c) Only 2 and 3 23 (b) Only 1 and 4 (d) Only 3 and 4 (a ) (b ) c d a b c d a b c d a b c d a b c d a b c d a b a b c d c d 24 1. The source of origin of Ghaghra River is Chemayungdung glacier. 2. The source of origin of Brahmaputra river is Mapchachungo glacier in Tibet. Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct? 66) Which of the following statement is correct? (a) Immersed part of continents in oceans are called continental slopes. (b) Kosi river is called Sorrow of Bengal. (c) Schist, Gneiss, Marble are examples of igneous rock. (d) Narrow valley of river in mountainous parts is called Gorge. Its both edges have sharp slopes. 67) Consider the following statements: (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 (c) 1 and 2 both (d) Neither 1 nor 2 70) Which type of cloud is seen in the sky before tropical cyclone? 1. Mountain soil are acidic and have less humous. 2. Soil erosion occurs only by human factors. 3. Crystallized igneous rock is appropriate for growth of Red soil (a) Cirrus Clouds (b) Black Cumulus Nimbus Clouds (c) Nimbo Stratus Clouds (d) Sky remains clear, there is absence of clouds. Which of the above statements are correct? (a) Only 1 and 2 (b) Only 1 and 3 (c) Only 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3 71) Consider the following statements in the context of water vapour: 1. Quantity of water vapour decreases from equator to pole. 2. Water vapour contributes in volatility and involatility of wind. 3. It works as blanket by absorbing some parts of heat emitting from Sun and heat emitting from the earth. 68) Which of the following statement(s) is/are incorrect in the context of Lakes in India ? 1. Chilka is the biggest lagoon lake of the country. 2. Ashtamudi, the biggest salt water lake of India is in Kerala. 3. Vembanad lake is the longest lake of India. Code: (a) Only 1 (c) Only 2 Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct? (a) Only 1 (b) Only 1 and 3 (c) Only 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3 (b) Only 1 and 2 (d) Only 3 69) Consider the following statements: 25 (a ) (b ) ( c) a c b d d a b c d a b c d a b c d 26 a b c d 72) Which of the following factors are responsible for rainfall in India ? 3. Cloudless long nights and calm wind in winters are the ideal conditions for inversion. 1. Western Disturbance Code : 2. Tropical Cyclone (a) Only 1 and 2 (b) Only 1 and 3 3. Jet Stream (c) Only 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3 4. Mountain Code : (a) Only 2 and 4 (b) Only 1, 2 and 3 (c) Only 1, 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 75) Which statement is incorrect in the context of direction and velocity of winds? (a) Wind blows due atmospheric pressure. to difference of 73) Consider the following statements in the context of humidity: (b) Friction generates due to surface inequalities on land which affects velocity of winds. 1. There is no unit of absolute humidity. It is expressed in percentage. (c) Coriolis force does not affect direction of winds. 2. Relative humidity is expressed in gram per cubic metre. (d) Prevailing winds blow in the form of trade, westerlies and polar winds. 3. Increase in the temperature of air does not affect the potency of humidity. Which of the above statements is/are in correct? (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 (c) Only 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3 74) Which of the following statements are correct in the context of inversion of temperature? 1. In polar regions, inversion of temperature in whole year is common. 2. Due to inversion of temperature, smoke, dust and pollutants cannot go upward in atmosphere so during inversion frost, fog and mist are formed more in winters. 27 (a) (b) c d a b c d a b c a b c d d 28 PART- II (CSAT) (b) Because he can overcome the anxiety and dangers of diplomatic conduct. Directions for (Q 76- Q 80 ): Read the passages and answer the question that follow. Your answers should be based on the passages only. (c) Because he knows how to be obsequious to superior. Superficially he appears to be an endangered species. But the diplomat will survive. No survivor is more adept at the art of survival than he, whether it is the strains and perils of diplomatic conduct or the whim and caprice of the pompous, garrulous politician, the ignorant foreign minister, at home. The first book should be read by students of diplomacy, Right to Information activists, babus who resist transfer of files to the National Archives of India and, not least, those who disparage diplomats. The second book should be read by those diplomats who win note for arrogance and boorishness unredressed by worth or talent and aggravated by the time honoured traits of survivors-obsequious to superiors,devious with equals,and overbearing to subordinates. Over the centuries, the British Diplomatic Service had the practice of the Valedictory Despatch, written by the Ambassador as he prepares to leave the post, whether on transfer or retirement. It was ended in 2006 by an inept and vengeful upstart, foreign secretary Margaret Beckett. She professed to be shocked at remarks in a despatch about the "bullshit bingo" of the new management consultancy culture in Whitehall, which were leaked to the press. Her own language was no better. These dispatches, circulated in confidence in the Foreign Office. (F.O.) and to some posts abroad, were avidly read for elegance of language, with and depth of insight, and for remarks which verged on the scandalous. Readers did not spare the writer if his missive was dull, boring or reeked of self pity or selfimportance. (d) Because he knows how to be obsequious to the foreign minister, at home. 77) It appears that the author has given a book review in the passage. What can be made/inferred about the first book from his review? (a) It is going to be more popular among students of diplomacy, RTI activists, honest babus and even those who disparage diplomats. (b) It deals with diplomacy and how it ought to lie. (c) It imparts the art of survival for a diplomat. (d) It is more unconventional in nature and spirit of a book on diplomacy 78) On the basis of the passage, what can be made/inferred about the second book? (a) It has a pragmatic description of what diplomacy and diplomats have reduced to, today. (b) It covers the story of diplomats known for their arrogance and boorishness (c) It imparts time tested art of survival for the diplomats, the more conventional ones. (d) It is a sequel to the first book, with the description of the other side of the coin 76) Why is the Diplomat called an adept survivor in the passage? (a) Because he is able to meet the expectations of diplomacy abroad and the whims of his boss, at home. 29 (b) (Q 76- Q 80 ) (c) (d) 77) (a) (b) (c) (d) 78) (a) (b) 76) (c) (a) (d) 30 79) Valedictory Despatch- Directions for (Q 81- Q 84 ): Read the passages and answer the question that follow. Your answers should be based on the passages only. (i) is practiced in Britain (ii) Written by a new joinee (iii) Written by the incubment in an inept way about the malaises of being an Ambassador. (iv) Was not written in 2006, by the then Foreign Secretary of Britain. The global climate has been changing since time immemorial, and the inhabitants of the Earth have hadto either adapt to these changes, or disappear. Some changes have been slowly evolving over millenniums; others have been faster, evolving over centuries, or even decades. Whilst in the past climatic change has been due to natural causes, the past century has seen such rapid changes, and indications of more changes to come, that only a combination of natural and man-induced causes can explain it. So, while climate change is not new, the present pace and scale of it is worrying, to the extent that it now dominates the global political discourse.The debate has two dimensions: mitigation and adaptation. The mitigation dimension is concerned with looking at how to reduce the human impact on the main drivers of climate change by limiting emissions of greenhouse gases, primarily by reducing our energy consumption or changing the energy mix. The adaptation dimension is concerned with how to deal with the impacts of climate change: those already observed, those predicted to happen with a high degree of certainty, and those more uncertain, but also more frightening impacts that may happen. For good reasons the political debate has centered on the first aspect, the root cause of the problem. This needs to be the subject of binding global agreements and treaties. The second dimension, the adaptation challenge, has so far taken second place in the debate, including at COP15. The political debate on adaptation has focused almost entirely on “how much”, i.e. on the level of financial support from rich to poor countries; the “what”and “how” discussion has largely remained in the technical spheres and are not likely to enter into a new treaty. Select the correct answer from the codes given below(a) Only (i), (ii) and (iii) (b) Only (iii) and (iv) (c) Only (i) and (iv) (d) None of these 80) With reference to the passage, consider the following statements(i) The valedictory Despatch practiced in Britain mainly contained written criticism of management consultancy culture in Whitehall. (ii) The valedictory Despatch used to be a classified letter sent to the Foreign Office (F.O.) and to some posts abroad. (iii) The valedictory Despatch was famous for its elegance of language, wit and depth of insight and for remarks which verged on the scandalous. (iv) The valedictory speech attracted criticism if it smelt of self pity or self importance Which of the statements above are correct? (a) Only (i), (ii) and (iii) (b) Only (iii) and (iv) (c) Only (ii), (iii) and (iv) (d) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv) 31 79) (Q 81- Q 84 ) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) (a) (b) (c) (d) (i), (ii) (iii) (iii) (iv) (i) (iv) 80) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) (a) (i), (ii) (b) (iii) (c) (ii), (iii) (d) (i), (ii), (iii) (iii) (iv) (iv) (iv) 32 81) Which of the following is correct regarding mitigation and adaptation dimensions of climate change? 84) Suggest the suitable title for the passage? (a) Unfortunate debate on mitigation and adaptation dimension of climate change. (b) Natural and Man-Made reasons of climate change. (c) Evolving nature of climate change for the past many centuries. (d) Climate Change and its political discourse. (1) One is more political in its character than the other one. (2) One is focussed towards the root cause and the other one towards the repercussion of climate change. (3) Both regard climate change as man-made problem. Directions for (Q 85- Q 88): Read the passages and answer the question that follow. Your answers should be based on the passages only. Select the correct answer from the codes given below: (a) (1) and (3) (b) (2) and (3) (c) (2) Only (d) (1), (2) and (3) The social contract theory can be defined loosely as a sort of hypothetical or actual agreement between society and its state. This agreement has been said to be responsible for the bases of our moral decisions and stances. In other words, we merely abide by the government‟s rules and regulations in the hope that others will do the same, subsequently leading to a more secure and comfortable life. This theory draws on several philosophers, who include Hobbes, Locke, Hume and Rousseau, to explore whether it is true that our moral obligations can be explained by a social contract. Each Philosopher has a different take on this argument. Hobbes, for example, gives a vivid and bleak account of what life would be like without a social contract; otherwise known as the „state of nature‟, denoting that the social contract plays a big part in our moral actions. Whereas, Locke is a lot more optimistic and painted a more attractive picture of the „state of nature‟, suggesting that our moral duties would still stand even without enforced rules and regulations. Hume passes judgement on both these philosophers and feels that there is no need for a social contract to shape our moral obligations because common sense would tell us that respect for each other would be a necessity to ensure a manageable society. 82) Why climate change is now a matter of grave concern in a global political discourse? (a) Unlike past, climate change is now a problem inflicted upon by human beings. (b) It is now a more serious threat globally because of rapid change. (c) Unlike past, climate change impact is now more visible. (d) All (a), (b) and (c). 83) With which of the following, author is most likely to agree as far as climate change control initiative are concerned? (1) Globally accepted norms to control climate change. (2) By being specific on climate change control targets. (3) By categorically saying how we will control climate change. (4) By properly funding those countries who cannot afford technology to fight climate change. Select the correct answer from the codes given below: (a) (1), (3) and (4) Only (b) (2), (3) and (4) Only (c) (2) and (3) Only (d) (1), (2) and (3) Only 33 81) (a) (b) (1) (c) (2) (d) (3) (Q 85- Q 88 ) (a) (1) (c) (3) (b) (2) (2) (d) (1), (2) (3) (3) 82) (a) (b) (c) (d) (a), (b) (c) 83) (1) (2) (3) (4) (a) (1), (3) (c) (2) (4) (3) (b) (2), (3) (4) (d) (1), (2) (3) 84) 34 The last philosopher, named Rousseau, felt that the social contract was an agreement between individuals that is held together by common interests. Rousseau gives a different perceptive on the social contract, explaining that it doesn‟t have to mean sacrificing our freedom to a government in the hope for security, simply because so much can be gained by co-operating as part of a society. By examining each of these philosophers‟ views regarding the social contract theory, we can begin not only to question the nature of our morality but also our relationship with authority. 87) Through out the passage, the author is trying to search the answer of which of the following questions? (a) Social contract whether required or not in modern times? (b) Individual‟s freedom and government‟s rules and regulations. (c) Whether relation between individuals can be moved by any enforced rules or not? (d) How can an individual respect each other through moral obligations? 88) Which of the following issue can be considered as the biggest differentiator between those who approved social contract and those who do not? 85) Which of the following can be a logical explanation of social contract theory? (1) It is a pathway for individual morality. (1) Some believe social contract derives individual‟s morality, while others believe morality stands on its own. (2) It talks about the authority of the state over the individual in a society. (2) Some believe social contract is not required to improvise one‟s moral duties, while others believe that social contract can upheld individual freedom in the society. Select the correct answer from the codes given below: (3) It searches for the answer of an individual‟s moral obligations and role play of state‟s rules and regulations. Select the correct answer from the codes given below: (a) (1) and (2) (b) (2) and (3) Only (c) (1) and (3) (d) All (1), (2) and (3) (a) (1) Only (b) (2) Only (c) Both (1) and (2) (d) Neither (1) nor (2) Directions for (Q 89- Q 92 ): Read the passages and answer the question that follow. Your answers should be based on the passages only. 86) Hobbes, Locke, Hume and Rousseau would all agree upon– (a) Interference of state on individual freedom. The environment is often viewed as the archetypal example of a global issue. This is because environmental processes are no respecters of national borders; they have an intrinsically transnational character. As countries are peculiarly environmentally vulnerable to the activities that take place in other countries, meaningful progress on environmental issues can often only be made at the international or even global level. (b) Agreement between state and society for social contract. (c) They were not in an agreement as each had a different take on social contract. (d) Questioning requirement of a social contract for an individual‟s moral obligations. 35 87) (a) (b) (c) (d) 88) 85) (1) (1) (2) (2) (3) (a) (1) (2) (b) (2) (c) (1) (3) (d) (1), (2) (a) (3) (1) (c) (1) (3) (2) (Q 89- Q 92 ) 86) (a) (b) (c) (d) 36 (b) (d) (2) (1) (2) Nevertheless, international cooperation on such matters has sometimes been very difficult to bring about. This has occurred for a number of reasons. In the first place, the environment has been an arena of particular ideological and political debate. Disagreements have emerged about both the seriousness and nature of environmental problems and about how they can best be tackled, not least because environmental priorities tend to conflict with economic ones. Can environmental problems be dealt with within the existing socioeconomic system, or is this system the source of those problems? Such debates have been especially passionate over what is clearly the central issue on the global environmental agenda, climate change. Despite sometimes catastrophic predictions about what will happen if the challenge of climate change is not addressed, concerted international action on the issue has been frustratingly slow to emerge. What have been the obstacles to international cooperation over climate change, and what would concerted international action on the issue involve? Finally, climate change is not the only issue on the global environmental agenda. Another issue of major concern is energy security, with some talking in terms of a new international energy order in which a country's ranking in the hierarchy of states is being increasingly determined by the vastness of its oil and natural gas reserves, or its ability to acquire them. To what extent, has the energy security reshaped global order, and are natural resources always a blessing? (d) Socio-economic system of one country differs from the other, as a result environment. Problems do not take centre stage. 89) Why is it getting more difficult to reach a mutual international consensus on environmental issues? Select the correct answer from the codes given below: 90) As per the information given in the passage, why climate change though an environmental problem has not taken the centre stage internationally? (1) Disasterous impact of climate change is still not prevalent. (2) Countries are not sure about the kind of cooperation required to handle climate change. (3) political perception about the environmental problem varies from one country to another. Select the correct answer from the codes given below: (a) (1) and (2) Only (b) (1) and (3) Only (c) (1) Only (d) (2) and (3) Only 91) according to the passage, how energy security is going to create a new global order? (1) It may prompt a nation to acquire a top rank through any means in the hierarchy of energy security. (2) Countries rich in natural resources and oil will reap maximum benefit out of energy security. (a) Different countries held each other responsible of environmental degradation. (b) There are many ambiguities as far as environmental issues and their solutions are concerned. (c) Environmental priorities of one country do not match economic aspirations of another. 37 (a) (1) Only (b) (2) Only (c) Both (1) and (2) (d) Neither (1) nor (2) (c) (d) 90) (1) (2) (3) (a) (1) (2) (b) (1) (3) (c) (1) (d) (2) (3) 91) (1) (2) 89) (a) (a) (c) (1) (b) 38 (1) (2) (b) (d) (2) (1) (2) (b) How international co-operation on environmental issues is still elusive? The contemporary Indian architecture was also beset with problems like population explosion, lack of vision among the planners, lack of support from the government and a less than satisfactory standard of architecture education. The result was that during the initial years after Independence, foreign architects continued to play a leading role in Indian architecture. (c) Why countries are not doing enough to save environment from climate change? 93) Why Indian architecture was in poor state after Independence? (d) Different obstacles involved in handling environmental problems globally. (a) Indian architects were not in a position to realize their true potential. Directions for (Q 93- Q 96 ): Read the passages and answer the question that follow. Your answers should be based on the passages only. (b) Indian architects were not able to transform from past legacy to the new changes. 92) What author wants to convey in this passage? (a) Why climate change is still an abstract environmental issue among nations? (c) Indian architects were embroiled in the revivalist and the modernist debate. After the British left India in 1947, Indian architecture dropped into an abyss. Indian architects, who were relegated to the role of being assistants to the British architects under the British Raj, took their own time to express their ingenuity. Perhaps, there was an identity crisis, a dilemma whether to bask in the glory of the past or move forward with times using new ideas, images and techniques. While in other fields like art, music and culture, the distinct Indian imprint was more enhanced in the post-Independence period, no such thing was discernible in the case of architecture. It is no doubt that the Indian architects were unable to achieve a transformative architecture despite the existence of great potential at the time of Independence. The post-Independence period saw the emergence of two schools of thought in architecture - the Revivalist and the Modernist. The Revivalists, who advocated "continuity with the past," could not break the shackles of colonial legacy and left no significant impact on the neo-Indian architecture. The Modernists too depended heavily on the European and American models and tried to adopt them in India without taking into consideration regional aspirations, diversities and requirements of the country. (d) Indian architect do not get any support from government or they do not have proper education. 94) Which of the following can act as the distinguishing factor between the revivalist and the modernist? (a) The revivalists were occupied with their Colonial past where as modernists were in awe with European and American culture. (b) The revivalists reject neo-Indian architecture and the modernists accept European and American architecture. (c) The revivalist were finding it difficult to come out of rich legacy of past whereas the modernists were excited with European and American architecture. (d) None of the above. 39 92) (a) (b) (c) 93) (d) (a) (b) (Q 93- Q 96 ) (c) (d) 94) (a) (b) (c) (d) 40 To understand the concept of nation-state it is important to know the difference between two related, but normatively different terms, „nation‟ and „state‟. The term 'nation', although often used interchangeably with 'state' is a term that has cultural implications. 95) After British rule, what can we logically infer about art, music and culture situation in India? (1) These categories maintain the typical Indian identity. (2) There was no such dilemma in these categories as prevalent in Indian Architecture. It refers to a body of people united by a sense of identity and shared values which Benedict Anderson termed as an „imagined community‟. This unity is based on such cultural factors as shared history, common language, common religion, ethnic homogeneity, and common customs. The term 'state', on the other hand, refers to both a political idea and a legal entity. However, taken together, the term 'nation-state' refers to a cultural unit, a 'nation', whose boundaries are the same as the politico-legal boundaries of a 'state'. Niccolo Machiavelli was probably the first political theorist to describe the political essence of the modern state in his The Prince. In fact, The Prince is primarily an advice to the then Italian rulers as to how to establish and maintain a state. The state became both the organising vehicle for survival in a hostile world and the instrument for aggrandizement vis-a-vis other , states. Select the correct answer from the codes given below: (a) (1) Only (b) (2) Only (c) (1) and (2) (d) Neither (1) nor (2) 96) What all the problems Indian architecture was facing during the initial years after Independence? (1) identity crisis (2) lack of direction (3) foreign architects (4) good architectural education Select the correct answer from the codes given below: (a) (1), (3) and (4) Only (b) (2), (3) and (4) Only (c) (1), (2) and (3) Only (d) All except (3). 97) What can be adjudged as the core value adopted in this passage? (a) Relevance of „Nation‟ and „State‟ in world Politics. Directions for (Q 97- Q 99 ): Read the passages and answer the question that follow. Your answers should be based on the passages only. (b) How Nationalism evolved over a period of time. Despite spectacular shifts as well as routine adjustments in the general landscape of the world politics in recent years, the basic unit in International Relations still remains the nationstate. Its designation as the most fundamental entity in contemporary world politics does not imply that it is the only basic unit. The state, more particularly, nation-state is the central entity simply because it is at this stage of human history the power is centered. (c) Niccolo Machiavelli as the founding father of world political thought. (d) Importance of Machiavelli‟s and Anderson‟s thoughts on world politics. 41 95) (1) (2) (a) (1) (c) (1) (2) (b) (d) जैसे (2) (1) (2). 96) (1) (2) (3) (4) (a) (1), (3) (4) (b) (2), (3) (4) (c) (1), (2) (3) 97) (d) (3) (Q 97- Q 99 ) (a) (b) (c) (d) 42 (i) Ram noticed that all the people present in the room had scored a distinct number of points (depends upon kind of play) whereas Balram scored the same number of points as he did. 98) According to the theme given in the passage, which of the following statement/s is/are true for the term „Nation‟ and „State‟? (1) Nation is a religious concept. (2) State is a politico-legal concept. (3) Nation is a cultural concept. (4) When cultural identity synchronizes with politico-legal concept it becomes the „NationState.‟ (ii) Each of two younger ones present in the room scored exactly 2 points more than their elder ones. (iii) Nobody scored more than five or less than one point Balram won by a prime number of points. Select the correct answer from the codes given below: 100) Who scored Minimum number of points? (a) (1), (2) and (3) Only (b) (2), (3) and (4) Only (c) (1), (3) and (4) Only (d) All are correct. 99) Which of the following can be inferred about Niccolo Machiavelli‟s The Prince? (a) Raj (b) Shyam (c) Ram (d) Cannot be determined. 101) What is the total number of points scored by Shyam-Ghanshyam? (1) It‟s a political philosophy which talks about how to rule the state. (2) It‟s a theoretical book on how to overcome other states power. (3) It‟s political book that first differentiates between the „Nation‟ and the „State‟. (a) 4 (b) 6 (c) 8 (d) 9 102) Who scored maximum number of points? Select the correct answer from the codes given below: (a) Raj (b) Shyam (a) (1) Only (b) (1) and (2) Only (c) Ram (d) Cannot be determined. (c) (2) and (3) (d) (1), (2) and (3). 103) What is the difference between the points of Raj and Ram? Directions (Qs. 100- 103): (a) 1 (b) 2 Three pair of siblings Ram- Balram, ShyamGhanshyam and Raj-Gajraj in the order of elder brother-younger brother are playing carom tournament one on one. Ram plays against Gajraj, Shyam plays against balram and rest two plays the third game. When all matches were finished, Balram left the room (c) 3 (d) 4 104) A man buys oranges at the rate of Rs 2 for 6 and sells the whole lot at the rate of Rs. 3 for 7. In this process he gained Rs. 20. How many oranges did he purchase? (a) 210 (b) 105 (c) 250 (d) None of these. Further information is also given below. 43 98) (i) (1) (ii) (2) (3) (4) (iii) (a) (1), (2) (3) 100) (b) (2), (3) (4) (a) (b) (c) (1), (3) (4) (d) (c) (d) 99) 101) (1) (a) 4 (b) 6 (c) 8 (d) 9 (2) 102) (3) (a) (b) (c) (d) 103) (a) (1) (c) (2) (b) (3) (1) (d) (1), (2) (2) (3) (a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4 104) : 44 (a) 210 (b) 105 (c) 250 (d) Directions (Qs. 105- 106): Ramu, Rajat and Rohit have 32, 56 and 72 coins respectively which they want to distribute among some poors such that any poor gets coins from at most one person. Find: Directions (Qs. 110-111): 105) Maximum number of poors that can be served such that every poor gets equal number of coins. (a) If statement (1) alone is sufficient to solve the question, but statement (2) alone is not. (a) 8 (c) 20 Each of the following questions is followed by two statements (1) and (2). Mark your answer as: (b) If statement (2) alone is sufficient to solve the question, but statement (1) alone is not. (b) 11 (d) 160 (c) If neither statement (1) nor statement (2) is individually sufficient to solve the question, but a combination of both is sufficient to solve the question. 106) Maximum number of poors that can be served such that every poor gets maximum equal number of coins. (a) 8 (c) 20 (b) 11 (d) 160 (d) If both the statements taken together are not sufficient and more information is required to solve the question 107) find the value of 110) If P and Q are two perfect squares, what is the value of P + Q? (𝟎. 𝟎𝟏𝟑)𝟑 − (𝟎. 𝟎𝟎𝟕)𝟑 (𝟎. 𝟎𝟏𝟑)𝟐 + 𝟎. 𝟎𝟏𝟑 𝐗 𝟎. 𝟎𝟎𝟕 + (𝟎. 𝟎𝟎𝟕)𝟐 (a) 0.004 (c) 0.56 Statement 1. P and Q are both 2-digit number and P + Q is a perfect square. (b) 0.102 (d) 0.006 2. P + Q is an even number. 108) If p, q and r are real numbers and 𝒑 + 𝒒 + 𝒓 𝟑 = 343 and pq + qr + pr = 10, then what will be the greatest value of p? (a) 2 (c) 29 111) The probability of selection of white ball is 7/11.Find the number of permutations possible among all the balls. If all the balls, in the box from which they are drawn of same colour, are identical. (b) 7 (d) 5 Statement 109) In a certain game, two balls are selected at random from a container with 100 balls, numbered from 1 to 100, both inclusive. If the winner of a game, is awarded a cash prize in the amount of 1,000 times the product of the numbers on the two selected balls, which of the following is a possible amount of the cash prize given to the winner? (a) 9.85 × 106 (c) 9.9 × 107 1. Balls were of a maximum of 2 colours. 2. Balls were a maximum of 3 colours with 3 red balls. (b) 9.9 × 106 (d) 1.00 × 108 45 : : (1) (2) (a) 105) (b) (a) 8 (c) 20 (b) 11 (d) 160 (c) 106) (a) 8 (c) 20 (d) (b) 11 (d) 160 107) 110) P Q P + Q (𝟎. 𝟎𝟏𝟑)𝟑 − (𝟎. 𝟎𝟎𝟕)𝟑 (𝟎. 𝟎𝟏𝟑)𝟐 + 𝟎. 𝟎𝟏𝟑 𝐗 𝟎. 𝟎𝟎𝟕 + (𝟎. 𝟎𝟎𝟕)𝟐 (a) 0.004 (c) 0.56 (b) 0.102 (d) 0.006 1. P 108) p, q r 𝟑 𝒑 + 𝒒 + 𝒓 = 343 pq + qr + pr = 10, P+Q 2. P + Q p 111) (a) 2 (c) 29 (b) 7 (d) 5 109) 1. 2. (a) 9.85 × 106 (c) 9.9 × 107 Q (b) 9.9 × 106 (d) 1.00 × 108 46 7/11 Directions (Qs. 112-113): Study the following information to answer the given questions: them is replaced by 0. What can be said about p? (a) p is less than 5. (b) p is greater than 5. (c) p is equal to 5. (d) None of these. M, N, O, P, Q and R seated in a circle facing the centre. M and O are seated adjacent to each other and Q and N are also adjacent to each other. N is the immediate left of R. There are two persons between P and Q. M is not seated adjacent to Q. 117) Mohan is hired for 30 days on follwing conditions: (i) For each day he works, gets Rs 60. (ii) For each day he doesn‟t work, he pays back Rs 90. 112) Who is the immediate left of Q? (a) O (b) N (c) R (d) None of these. At the end of the month he gets nothing then for how many days did he work? 113) How many persons are seated between R and Q if we go anticlockwise from R to Q? (a) 12 (b) 18 (a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 20 (d) 15 (c) 3 (d) None of these. 118) In a group of Six men, there are 4 cricketers, 4 footballers, 1 actor and 3 musicians. A and B are among the musicians while C and D are not musicians. D and E are among the cricketers. B, C, D and E are all footballers and two of them are also musicians. If F is an actor, who among the following is both a cricketer and musician? 114) Three of the following four are alike in a certain way based on their seating positions in the above arrangement and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to the group? (a) OR (b) PQ (c) NM (d) NP (a) C (b) D (c) E (d) F 115) One-third, one-fourth, one-fifth and one-seventh of the human population of Wasseypur, which has fewer than five hundred human inhabitants, are all whole numbers, and their sum is exactly the human population of Jhumritaliyaa. What is the human population of Jhumritaliyaa? 119) What quantity of pure milk should be added to 100 litre of 88% milk solution to make it 95% milk solution? (a) 100 lit. (b) 120 lit. (a) 420 (b) 840 (c) 130 lit. (d) 140 lit (c) 389 (d) 287 116) The average of five different positive numbers is 25. p is the decrease in the average when the smallest number among 47 : p p (a) p, 5 M, N, O, P, Q R (b) p, 5 M O Q (c) p, 5 N (d) N, R P Q 117) M, Q (i) 112) Q (a) O (b) N (c) R (d) 113) R Rs 60 (ii) Rs 90 Q R (a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) Q (a) 12 (b) 18 (c) 20 (d) 15 118) A 114) C B, C, D D D E F (a) OR (b) PQ (c) NM (d) NP (a) C (b) D (c) E (d) F 115) 119) (a) 420 (c) 389 (b) 840 (d) 287 116) 0 48 (a) 100 (b) 120 (c) 130 (d) 140 B E 120) Two trains travel in opposite directions at 30 kmph and 42 kmph respectively. A man sitting in the slower train passes the faster train in 8 sec. The length of the faster train is: 1960. The lawmakers decision was directly based on which of following assumption? (a) 200 m (b) 150 m (b) Women were superior to men in the ability to make political decisions. (c) 175 m (d) 160 m (a) Women would vote in ways that would make the state a better place to live. (c) Women would want to live in place where they could vote. 121) After rolling two dices, what is the probability of getting 3 on first dice and 4 on second dice? (a) (c) 1 9 1 27 (b) (d) (d) Women who were willing to endure frontier conditions deserved the right to vote. 1 18 125) Rajesh has just seen two regions: therefore the next bird Rajesh sees, will be a Pigeons. Which of the following, if true, most strengthens the argument above? 1 36 122) M is C‟s Son, C and S are sisters, D is S‟s mother. T is the son of D. Which of the following statement is true? (a) Pigeons tend to move in flocks. (b) Pigeons do not move in scattered way and are considerable close to each other always. (a) T and M are cousins. (b) T is the paternal uncle of M. (c) Rajesh is in city A and pigeons are generally seen in city A. (c) S is M‟s grandmother. (d) Rajesh has never seen Pigeons in other places than the place where he is now. (d) C and T are siblings. 123) Three friends Sachin, Saurav, and Sehwag are talking to each other about the fours hit by Gawaskar in a match. Sachin says it is at least 10. Saurav says it is less than 10. Sehwag says it is at least 1. If you know that only one of the three friends is right, how many fours did Gawaskar hit? (a) 10 (b) 5 (c) 0 (d) 12 126) The daily work of 2 men is equal to 3 women or that of 4 youngsters. By employing 14 men, 12 women, and 12 youngsters a certain work can be finished in 24 days. If it requires to finish it in 14 days and as an additional labour, only men are available, how many of them will be required? 124) Because they were anxious to balance the population of 8,000 men and 2,000 women in the state, the state‟s lawmakers extended voting rights to women in the year 49 (a) 20 b) 18 (c) 48 (d) 28 120) (a) (a) 200 (b) 150 (c) 175 (d) 160 (b) 121) (a) (c) (c) 1 (b) 9 1 (d) 27 122) M, C (d) 1 18 1 125) 36 C S D, S T, D (a) T (a) M (b) T, M (b) (c) S, M (d) C T (c) 123) A A (d) 126) (a) 10 (b) 5 (c) 0 (d) 12 124) 50 (a) 20 (b) 18 (c) 48 (d) 28 127) What is the number of digits in the product (100 –1) (100 – 2) (100 – 3) ........ (100 – 199) (100 – 200)? 130) In which year, least number of children died? (a) 2010 (c) 2012 (a) 1 (b) 400 (c) 0 (d) Cannot be determined. (b) 2011 (d) 2013 Directions for (Q 131- Q 132 ): Production of cars by A, B, C and D in three different years is shown below (in thousands). Directions for (Q 128- Q 130 ): The graph given below shows information related to children who took birth and their survival during 2009 to 2013. 131) How many companies are there in which the production is not increased in any given years over previous year? (a) 0 (b) 1 (c) 2 (d) 3 128) In how many year the number of children that survived were more than the average number of children that survived during the given period? (a) 0 (c) 2 132) Find the percentage increment in the average production in 2013 over 2011. (b) 1 (d) 3 (a) 57% (b) 58.5% (c) 59.5% (d) 60% 129) In which year, the percentage increase in the number of children that survived over previous year is maximum? (a) 2010 (c) 2012 (b) 2011 (d) 2013 51 (100 – 1) (100 – 2) (100 – 3) 127) 130) ...................... (100 – 199) (100 – 200) (a) (b) (c) (d) (a) 1 (b) 400 (c) 0 (d) (Q 131- Q 132 ) A, B, C (Q 128- Q 130 ) रेने 131) (a) 0 (b) 1 (c) 2 (d) 3 128) (a) (b) (c) (d) 132) (a) 57% (b) 58.5% (c) 59.5% (d) 60% 129) (a) (b) (c) (d) 52 D Directions for (Q 133- 135) : Decision making question, so there is no negative marking for these 3 questions. Temple authorities have not requested for any arrangements as such. Now, the district administration which is responsible to take care of any arrangement should be doing what? 133) In an Annual General Meeting, the chairman of the company was addressing his employees. Suddenly, a group of few employees were raising slogans against the company policies, shouting for just work condition. Now, at this juncture what should be the chairman's response? (a) Consulting temple authority whether they need any arrangement or not. (b) Asking newspaper team what type of arrangement should be these. (a) He should order those employees to leave the premise as this is indiscipline at its best. (c) Sending a team to micro-inspect the situation and suggesting if anything can be done. (b) He should immediately take cognizance of their grievances and should address the meeting later on. (d) It would be improper to interfere in these religious matters. (c) He should request those employees to meet him personally immediately after the meeting is over. (d) He should order his personal assistant to learn their grievances. 134) You have been recently appointed as the superintendent of police in a district where so many youth's are indulged in drugs consumption. Many social law and order problems have also emerged because of it. Now, as the police authority, what would be your top most priority? (a) Giving severe punishment to those who are consuming drugs and are eventually becoming menace for the society. (b) Improving police intelligence to control the supply of drugs and organizing drug renouncement camp on the regular basis. (c) Identifying those people who are habitually consuming drugs and put them under some Medical observation. (d) Cracking down on drug peddlers and posing severe punishment for Anti social activities. 135) Because of religious festival, one temple is overcrowded from devotees and the local newspaper is reportedly saying that their are no arrangements to handle any mishaps. 53 Directions for (Q 133-135) : Decision making question, so there is no negative marking for these 3 questions. (d) 133) (a) (a) (b) (b) (c) (c) (d) (d) (a) (b) (c) 54 SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK 55 जफ िक आऩको मह ऩयीऺण ऩुस्तिका खोरने को न कहा जाए िफ िक न खोरें SAMPLE PAPER FOR CIDCO-UPSC-DELHI-CET- 2016 Sm°. ~m~mgmho~ Am§~oSH$a g§emoYZ Ed§ n«{ejU g§ñWm, ऩुणे AZw_V g_` - 3 K§Qo 1. 2. 3. 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AmnH$mo AbJ go {XE JE Amo E_ Ama Odm~ nÌH$ na hr AnZ o g^r ऊत्तय EH$ Ho$ ~mX EH$ अॊककि H$aZo h¡ प्रश्न nw{ñVH$m Ho$ Odm~ nÌH$ Ho$ {d{^Þ _wÔmo Ho$ Odm~ H$mo अॊककि H$aZo Ho$ {bE AmJo ~TZo go nhbo, AmnH$mo AmnHo$ प्रिेशऩि _o§ {XE JE gyMZm Ho$ AZwgma ऊत्तय nÌH$ _o§ Hw$N {ddaU ^aZo hmo§Jo & ऊत्तय nÌH$ na AmnHo$ g^r ऊत्तय (प्रतिकिमा चि H$mo nyar Vah go JmTm H$aHo$) को अॊककि H$aZo Ho$ ~mX Am¡a ऩयीऺा g_má hmoZo Ho$ ~mX Amo E_ Ama ऊत्तय nÌH$ {ZarjH$ H$mo XoZm h¡ & प्रश्न nw{ñVH$m bo OmZo H$r AmnH$mo AZw_Vr h¡ & प्रश्न nw{ñVH$m Ho$ A§V _o§ a\$ dH©$ Ho$ {bE Hw$N n¥ð g§b½Z h¡ & JbV ऊत्तय Ho$ {bE िॊ ड : ऩयीऺार्थी© Ho$ gdmb 133 go 135 VH$ Ho$ प्रश्न NmoSH$a JbV ऊत्तय H$mo अॊककि H$aZo na िॊ ड होगा, Am¡a gdmb 133 go 135 Ho$ JbV ऊत्तय Ho$ {bE H$moB© िॊ ड Zhr§ होगा & i. ha gdmb Ho$ {bE Mma {dH$ën {XE JE h¡ & ऩयीऺार्थी Zo {XE ha प्रश्न Ho$ JbV ऊत्तय XoZo na, Cg प्रश्न Ho$ A§H$ go EH$ {VhmB© A§H$ िॊ ड Ho$ én _o§ KQmE± OmE§Jo & ii. ऩयीऺार्थी ने AJa EH$ go Á`mXm ऊत्तय {XE Vmo, Cg_o go EH$ Odm~ ghr hmoZo Ho$ ~mdOyX Cgo JbV ऊत्तय g_Pm OmEJm Am¡a Cna {XE JE AZwgma Cgo िॊ ड hmoJr & iii. AJa H$moB© gdmb Imbr NmoS {X`m J`m, _Vb~ ऩयीऺार्थी ने ऊत्तय Zhr§ {X`m, Vmo CgHo$ {bE Cg प्रश्न H$mo H$moB© िॊ ड Zhr§ होगा & Bg ऩयीऺा Ho$ A§{V_ ZVrOo h_mao do~gmB©Q https://barti.maharashtra.gov.in na Kmo{fV {H$E OmE§Jo§ & ध्मान िें : gyMZm H$m अॊग्रेजी énm§Va Bg प्रश्न nw{ñVH$m Ho$ ऩह्रे n¥ð na छऩा h¡ & 56 DO NOT OPEN THIS TEST BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE ASKED TO DO SO SAMPLE PAPER FOR CIDCO-UPSC-DELHI-CET- 2016 DR. BABASAHEB AMBEDKAR RESEARCH AND TRAINING INSTITUTE, PUNE Time Allowed: 2 Hour Maximum Marks: 200 PART – III (Essay writing) INSTRUCTIONS 1. 2. Immediately after the commencement of the examination, you should check that this test booklet does not have any unprinted or torn or missing pages etc. If so, request for its replacement. You have to write the following detail as per the information provided to you in Admit card. Name (As in Admit card) Seat/ Roll Number Application Id. Gender (Male/ Female) Physically Disabled (Yes/ No) Mobile Number Examination Centre (Name & Address) Candidate Signature Invigilator Signature 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. This test booklet contains Five questions, out of this students have to attempt any Two question. You have to write essay only in English language. You have to write essay in Maximum 1000 Words for each Essay. After you have completed writing essay and the examination has concluded, you should hand over to the invigilator this test booklet. Final result of this examination will be declared on our website https://barti.maharashtra.gov.in 1 2 Write Essay on any TWO of the following topics, in not more than 1000 words each. (2 X 100 = 200 marks) 1. Managing work and home-is the Indian working women getting a fair deal? कामकाज और घर की संभाल - क्या भारतीय कामकाजी महिला एक न्यायोचित बरताव प्राप्त कर रिी िै ? 2. Sciene and mysticism : Are they compatible ? ववज्ञान और रिस्यवाद : क्या वे संगत िैं ? 3. Does Indian cinema shape our popular culture or merely reflect it? क्या भारतीय ससनेमा िमारी लोक - संस्कृती को रूप प्रदान करता िै या कक वि केवल उसको प्रततबबम्बबत करता िै ? 4. Credit based higher education system- status, opportunities and challenges ऋण- आधाररत उच्ि सिक्षा प्रणाली- म्स्ितत, अवसर एवं िन ु ौततयां 5. Geography may remain the same; history need not. भूगोल यिावत ् बना रिा सकता िै ; इततिास के सलए यि आवश्यक निीं िै | __________________________________________________________________________ Q. No. 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 Q. No. 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 Space for Rough Work 23 Space for Rough Work 24
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