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2. medicine
3. medical research

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Medical
+1 Mega Test {Sample Paper}
General Instructions:The question paper contains 90 objective multiple choice questions.
There are three sections in the question paper consisting of section – I Biology
(1 to 30), Section – II Physics (31 to 60) and Section – III Chemistry (61 to 90).
Each right answer carries (4 marks) and wrong (–1marks)
The maximum marks are 360.
Solution Visits: www.pioneermathematics.com/latest_updates.com
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Section – I {Biology)
1.
A good producer of citric acid is
(a) Saccharomyces (b) Aspergillus
2.
(d) Clostridium
Besides paddy fields, cyanobacteria are also found inside vegetative part of
(a) Psilotum
3.
(c) Pseudomonas
(b) Pinus
(c) Cycas
(d) Equisetum
Which one of the following is not a correct statement?
(a) Key is a taxonomic aid for identification of specimens.
(b) Herbarium houses dried, pressed and preserved plant specimens
(c) Botanical gardens have collection of living plants for reference.
(d) A museum has collection of photographs of plants and animals.
4.
5.
Which one of the following is not used for ex situ plant conservation?
(a) Botanical Gardens
(b) Field gene banks
(c) Seed banks
(d) Shifting cultivation
Which of the following is not correctly matched for the organism and its cell wall
degrading enzyme ?
6.
(a) Fungi- Chitinase
(b) Bacteria – Lysozyme
(c) Plant cells – Cellulase
(d) Alage – Methylase
The bacteria which in association with some plant roots fix atmospheric nitrogen are
called :
(a) Rhizobium
7.
(c) Pseudomonas
(d) Bacillus
The nuclear material in bacterial cell is called :
(a) Cellulose
8.
(b) Salmonella
(b) Nucleoid
(c) Mucopeptide
(d) Mesosome
Plasmids are :
(a) Extra chromosomal DNA which can self replicate
(b) DNA carrying genetic sequence, without expressing it
(c) Integrate within host DNA without replication ability
(d) None of the above
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9.
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Mycorrhiza is the :
(a) Symbiotic association between fungus and the roots of seed plants
(b) Parasitic association between fungus and the roots of seed plants
(c) Saprophytic association between fungus and roots of seed plants
(d) All of the above
10. Lichens represent symbiotic relationship between :
(a) Algae and fungi
(b) Viruses and algae
(c) Algae and bacteria
(d) Viruses and bacteria
11. Name the class of the Mycota, which is commonly called ‘fungi imperfecti’ :
(a) Deuteromycota (b) Ascomycota
(c) Zygomycota
(d) Basidiomycota
12. ‘Floridean starch’ is reserve food material in :
(a) Chlorophyceae (b) Myxophyceae
(c) Phaeophyceae
(d) Rhodophyceae
13. Agar is obtained from :
(a) Gelidium
(b) Rhizopus
(c) Chlorella
(d) Batrachospermum
14. The correct sequence of taxa is
(a) Class-Order-Family -Tribe-Genus-Species
(b) Class-Order-Tribe-Family-Genus-Species
(c) Phylum-Order-Class-Tribe-Genus-Species
(d) Phylum-Tribe-Class-Order-Genus-Species
15. In Mangifera indica L., Generic epithet is
(a) Indica
(b) Mangifera
(c) Linnaeus
(d) None of these
(c) Aristotle
(d) de Candolle
(c) Archaea
(d) Monera
16. Binomial nomenclature was introduced by
(a) Linnaeus
(b) Darwin
17. Single celled eukaryotes are included in
(a) Protista
(b) Fungi
18. Fungal spores produced externally at the tip of hyphae are
(a) conidia
(b) oidia
(c) aplanospores
(d)sporangiophore
(c)s mosses
(d) ferns
19. Botanical snakes are
(a) algae
(b) fungi
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20. Which one of the following is a living fossil ?
(a) Cycas
(b) Moss
(c) Saccharomyces
(d) Spirogyra
21. Which one of the following have the highest number of species in nature ?
(a) Insects
(b) Birds
(c) Angiosperms
(d) Fungi
22. The animal with bilateral symmetry in young stage and radial pentamerous symmetry
in the adult stage belongs to the phylum
(a) Annelida
(b) Mollusca
(c) Cnidaria
(d) Echinodermata
23. Heart to pump blood evolved for the first time in
(a) annelids
(b) arthropods
(c) roundworms
(d) flatworms
(b) Equisetum
(c) Adiantum
(d) Pteris
24. Maiden hair fern is
(a) Selaginella
25. Which class of algae have chlorophyll-a, d, phycoerythrin and lack flagella ?
(a) Cyanophyceae (b) Rhodophyceae
(c) Phaeophyceae
(d) Chlorophyceae
26. Spore dissemination in some liverworts is aided by
(a) elaters
(b) indusium
(c) calyptra
(d) peristome teeth
(c) ds-DNA
(d) ss-DNA
27. Cauliflower mosaic virus contains :
(a) ss-RNA
(b) ds-RNA
28. Bacteriophage is the name given to :
(a) A bacterium that infect a virus
(b) A virus which infects a bacterium
(c) A bacterium which infects the animal cell (d) An organelle of the bacterium
Direction.
Read the assertion and reason carefully to mark the correct option out of the options
given below:
(a) If both the assertion and reason are true and the reason is a correct explanation of
the assertion.
(b) If both the assertion and reason are true but the reason is not correct explanation of
the assertion.
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(c) If the assertion is true but the reason is false.
(d) If both the assertion and reason are false.
(e) If the assertion is false but reason is true.
29. Assertion: The first meiotic divisions are known as heterotypic division.
Reason: The first division of meiosis results in reduced number of chromosomes.
30. Assertion: The evolution of molecular oxygen of concerned with photosysten-I.
Reason: Photosystem-II has no role in evolution of oxygen.
Further many more………………..
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Section – II {Physics}
31. Dimensions of potential energy are
(a) [MLT 1 ]
(b) [ML2T 2 ]
(c) [ML 1T 2 ]
(b) 4
(c) 102 gauss
(d) [ML 1T 1 ]
32. 1 Wbm–2 is equal to
(a) 104 gauss
10–3 gauss
(d) 10–4 gauss
33. A thin horizontal circular disc is rotating about a vertical axis passing through its
centre. An insect is at rest at a point near the rim of the disc. The insect now moves
along a diameter of the disc to reach its other end. During the journey of the insect, the
angular speed of the disc
(a) continuously decreases
(b) continuously increases
(c) first decreases and then decreases
(d) remains unchanged
34. What is the dimensional formula of thermal conductivity?
(a) [MLT–1
–1]
(b) [MLT–3
–1]
(c) [M2LT–3
–2]
(d) [ML2T–2 ]
35. Which of the following units denotes the dimensions [ML2/Q2], where Q denotes the
electric charge?
(a) henry
(b) Hm–2
(c) weber (Wb)
(d) Wbm–2
36. The full turns of the circular scale of a screw gauge cover a distance of 1 mm on its
main scale. The total number of divisions on the circular scale is 50. Further, it is found
that the screw gauge has a zero error of –0.03 mm. While measuring the diameter of a
thin wire, a student notes the main scale reading of 3mm and the number of circular
scale divisions in line with the main scale as 35. The diameter of the wire is
(a) 3.32 mm
(b) 3.37 mm
(c) 3.67 mm
(d) 3.38 mm
37. A thin uniform rod of length l and mass m is swinging feely about a horizontal axis
passing through its end. Its maximum angular speed is
. Its centre of mass rises to a
maximum height of
(a)
1 l2 2
3 g
(b)
1l
6 g
(c)
1 l2 2
2 g
(d)
1 l2 2
6 g
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38. Given that 2l
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m
, where l is the length of a string of linear density m, under tension T
T
has the same dimensional formula as that of
(a) mass
(b) time
(c) length
(d) mole
39. A car starting from rest, accelerates at the rate of ‘ f ’ through a distance S, then
continues at constant speed for time t and then decelerates at the rate
f
to come to
2
rest. If the total distance traversed is 15 S, then
(a) S
1 2
ft
4
(b) S
1 2
ft
72
(c) S
1 2
ft
6
(d) S = ft
40. A bomb is dropped from an aeroplane flying horizontally with a velocity of 720 kmh–1
at an altitude 980 m. When will bomb hit the ground?
(a) 7.2 s
(b) 1s
(c) 0.15 s
(d) 14.14 s
41. The graph of displacement-time for a body travelling in a straight line is given. We can
conclude that
(a) the velocity is constant
(b) the velocity increases uniformly.
(c) the body is subjected to acceleration from O to A.
(d) the velocity of the body at A is zero.
42. A body freely falling from rest has a velocity v after it falls through distance h. The
distance it has to fall down further for its velocity to become double is
(a) h
(b) 2h
(c) 3h
(d) 4h
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43. At time t =0s particle starts moving along the x-axis. If its kinetic energy increases
uniformly with time t, the net force acting on it must be proportional to
(a) √t
(b) constant
(d) 1 / t
(c) t
44. Two cars of masses m1 and m2 are moving in circles of radii r1 and r2, respectively
Their speeds are such that they make complete circles in the same time t. The ratio of
their centripetal acceleration is
(a) m1r1 : m2r2
(b) m1 : m2
(c) r1 : r2
(d) 1 : 1
45. A body of mass m is accelerated uniformly from rest to a speed v in a time T. The
instantaneous power delivered to the body as a function of time is given by
1 mv2 2
(a)
t
2 T2
1 mv 2
(b)
t
2 T2
mv 2 2
(c) 2 t
T
mv 2
(d) 2 t
T
46. The velocity of a particle is v = v0 + gt + ft2. If Its position is x = 0 at t = 0, then its
displacement after unit time (t = 1) is
(a) v0 – g/2 + f
(b) v0 + g/2 + 3f
(c) v0 + g/2 + f/3
(d) v0 + g + f
47. A bullet fired into a fixed target loses half of its velocity after penetrating 3 cm. How
much further it will penetrate before coming to rest assuming that it faces constant
resistance to motion ?
(a) 1.0 cm
(b) 1.5 cm
(c) 2.0 cm
(d) 3.0 cm
48. Rain drops fall vertically at a speed of 20 ms–1. At what angle do they fall on the wind
screen of a car moving with a velocity 15 ms–1, if the wind screen velocity inclined at an
angle of 230 to the vertical? cot
(a) 600
1
4
3
(b) 300
360
(c) 450
(d) 900
49. A ball is thrown vertically upwards from the top of a tower of height h with velocity v.
The ball strikes the ground after
v
1
(a)
g
2gh
v
1
1
(b)
v2
g
2gh
1
v2
v
2gh
(c)
1
g
v2
1/2
v
2gh
(d)
1
g
v2
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50. An elevator is going up. The variation in the velocity of the elevator is as given in the
graph. What is the height to which the elevator takes the passengers?
(a) 3.6 m
(b) 28.8 m
(c) 36.0 m
(d) 72.0 m
51. Two forces, each of magnitude F, have a resultant of the same magnitude F. The angle
between the two forces is
(a) 450
(b) 1200
(c) 1500
(d) 1800
52. Two equal forces (F each) act a point inclined to each other at an angle of 1200. The
magnitude of their resultant is
(a) F/2
(b) F/4
(c) F
(d) 2F
53. A particle has an initial velocity of 3i 4j and acceleration of 0.4i 0.3j . Its speed after
10 s is
(a) 7 2 units
(b) 7 units
(c) 8.5 units
(d) 10 units
54. A body is projected up a smooth inclined plane with a velocity v0 from the point A as
shown in figure. The angle of inclination is 450 and top B of the plane is connected to a
well of diameter 40 m. If the body just manages to cross the well, what is the value of
v0 ? Length of the inclined plane is 20 2 m, and g = 10 ms–2.
(a) 20 ms–1
(b) 20 2 ms–1
(c) 40 ms–1
(d) 40 2 ms–1
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55. A car of mass m moves in a horizontal circular path of radius r metre. At an instant its
speed is v ms–1 and is increasing at a rate of a ms–2. Then, the acceleration of the car is
v2
(a)
r
(b) a
(c) a
2
v2
r
2
v2
(d) u
r
56. A thin rod of length L is lying along the x-axis with its ends at x = 0 and x = L. Its linear
x
density (mass/length) varies with x as k
L
n
, where n can be zero or any positive
number. If the position xCM of the centre of mass of the rod is plotted against n, which of
the following graphs best approximates the dependence of xCM on n ?
57. When a projectile at a certain angle with the horizontal, its horizontal range is R and
time of flight is T1. When the same projectile is throwing with the same speed at some
order angle with the horizontal, its horizontal range is R and time of flight is T2. The
product of T1 and T2 is
(a)
R
g
(b)
2R
g
(c)
3R
g
(d)
4R
g
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58. A pulley of radius 2 m is rotated about its axis by a force F = 20t 5t 2 N (where t is
measured in seconds) applied tangentially. It the moment of inertia of the pulley about
its axis of rotation is 10 kg-m2 the number of rotations made by the pulley before its
direction of motion if reserved, is
(a) more than 3 but less than 6
(b) more than 6 but less than 9
(c) less than 9
(d) less than 3
Assertion and Reason
Read the following question and answer as per the direction given below:
(a) Statement I is true ; Statement II is true ; Statement II is the correct explanation of
statement I.
(b) Statement I is true ; Statement II is true; statement II is not the correct explanation
of statement I.
(c) Statement I is true ; Statement II is false.
(d) Statement I is false; Statement II is true.
59. Statement – I: A point particle of mass m moving with speed v collides with stationary
point particle of mass M. If the maximum energy loss possible is given as f
1
mv 2 then f
2
m
M m .
Statement – II: Maximum energy loss occurs when the particles get stuck together as a
result of the collision.
60. Statement I: A thin wire length l and mass m is bent into a circular loop of radius r as
shown in figure. The moment of inertia of the loop about the XX’ is 3mL2/8
2
.
Statement I: According to the parallel axes theorem, the moment of inertia of the loop
about XX’ =moment of inertia about YY’+mr2.
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Section – III {Chemistry}
61. 100 g CaCO3 in treated with 1 L of 1 N HCl. What would be the weight of CO2 liberated
after the completion of the reaction?
(a) 55g
(b) 11g
(c) 22g
(d) 33g
62. How many moles of Al2(SO4)3 would be in 50 g of the substance ?
(a) 0.083 mol
(b) 0.952 mol
(c) 0.481 mol
(d) 0.140 mol
63. The density (in g mL–1) of a 3.60 M sulphuric acid solution that is 29% H2SO4 (molar
mass = 98 g mol–1) by mass will be
(a) 1.64
(b) 1.88
(c) 1.22
(d) 1.45
64. Consider a titration of potassium dichromate solution with acidified Mohr’s salt
solution using diphenylamine as indicator. The number of moles of Mohr’s salt
required per mole of dichromate is
(a) 3
(b) 4
(c) 5
(d) 6
65. Which of the following contains greatest number of oxygen atoms ?
(a) 1 g of O
(b) 1 g of O2
(c) 1 g of O3
(d) All have the same number of atoms
66. What is the total number of moles of H2SO4 needed to prepare 5.0 L of 2.0 M solution of
H2SO4 ?
(a) 2.5
(b) 5.0
(c) 10
(d) 20
67. The reversible expansion of an ideal gas under adiabatic and isothermal conditions is
show in the figure. Which of the following statement (s) is (are) correct?
(a) T1 = T2
(c) Wisothermal
(b) T3 > T1
Wadiabatic
(d) Uisothermal
Uadiabatic
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68. The standard enthalpies of formation of CO2(g), H2O(l) and glucose (s) at 250C are –
400 kJ/mol, -300 kJ/mol and –1300 kJ/mol, respectively. The standard enthalpy of
combustion per gram of glucose at 250C is
(a) +2900 kJ
(b) –2900 kJ
(c) –16.11 kJ
(d) +16.11 kJ
69. Two oxides of a metal contain 50% and 40% metal (M) respectively. If the formula of
first oxide is MO2, the formula of second oxide will be
(a) MO2
(b) MO3
(c) M2O
(d) M2O5
70. The law of definite proportions is not applicable to nitrogen oxide because
(a) nitrogen atomic weight is not constant
(b) nitrogen molecular weight is variable
(c) nitrogen equivalent weight is variable
(d) oxygen atomic weight is variable
71. Choose the wrong statement.
(a) 1 mole means 6.023 × 1023 particles
(b) Molar mass is mass of one molecule
(c) Molar mass is mass of one mole of a substance
(d) Molar mass is molecular mass expressed in grams
72. Calculate the wavelength (in nanometer) associated with proton moving at 1.0
ms–1. (Mass of proton = 1.67
(a) 0.032 nm
10–27 kg and h = 6.63
(b) 0.40 nm
103
10–34 Js.)
(c) 2.5 nm
(d) 14.0 nm
73. Which of the following sets of quantum number is correct?
(a) n = 5, l = 4, m = 0, s = +
1
2
(c) n = 6, l = 0, m = + 1, s = –
(b) n = 3, l = 3, m = + 3, s = +
1
2
1
2
(d) n = 4, l = 2, m = + 2, s = 0
74. Benzene and naphthalene form an ideal solution at room temperature. For his process,
the true statement (s) is (are)
(a) G is positive
(b) Ssystem is positive
(c) Ssurroundings 0
(d) H 0
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75. The compressibility factor for a real gas at high pressure is :
(a)1+RT/Pb
(b)1
(c)1+Pb/RT
(d)1-Pb/RT
76. Bohr’s model could explain successfully
(a) the spectrum of species containing only one electron
(b) the spectrum of helium
(c) the spectrum of hydrogen molecule
(d) the spectrum of multi-electron atoms
77. The ionisation enthalpy of hydrogen atom is 1.312 106 J mol–1. The energy required to
excite the electron in the atom from n = 1 to n = 2 is
(a) 8.51
105 J mol–1
(b) 6.56
105 J mol–1
(c) 7.56
105 J mol–1
(d) 9.84
105 J mol–1
78. For a gaseous state if most probable speed is denoted by C*,average speed by C and
mean square speed by C. then for a large number of molecules the ratios of these
speed are:
(a) C* :C:C 1.128:1.225:1
(b) C* :C:C 1:1.128:1.225
(c) C* :C:C 1:1.125:1.228
(d) C* :C:C 1.125:1.128:1
79. The pH of a 0.1 molar solution of the Acid HQ is 3, the value of the ionization constant ,
Ka of this acid is :
(a) 3×10–1
(b) 1×10–3
(c) 1×10–5
(d) 1×10–7
80. The Ksp of Ag2CrO4 is 1.1× 10–12 at 298K. the solubility (in mol /L) of Agt2CrO4 in a 0.1M
AgNO3 solution is :
(a) 1.1×10–11
(b) 1.1×10–10
(c) 1.1×10–12
(d) 1.1×10–9
81. The orbital angular momentum of an electron in a d-orbital is
(a) 6
h
2
(b) 2
h
2
(c)
h
2
(d)
2h
2
82. Which of the following make up an isotonic triad?
(a)
78
32
Ge,
77
33
As,
74
31
Ga
(b)
40
18
40
Ar, 18
K,
40
20
Ca
(c)
233
92
U,
232
90
Th,
239
90
Pu
(d)
14
6
C,
16
8
O,
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83. Uncertainty in the position of an electron (mass = 9.1 10–31kg) moving with a velocity
300 ms–1, accurate up to 0.001% will be (h = 6. 63
(a) 19.2
10–2 m
(b) 5.76
10–2 m
(c) 1.92
10–34 Js)
10–2 m
(d) 3.84
10–2 m
84. The orbital angular momentum of an electron in 3s orbital is
(a)
1 h
.
2 2
(b)
h
2
(c)
1 h
.
3 2
(d) zero
85. Which of the following statements does not form a part of Bohr’s model of hydrogen
atom?
(a) Energy of the electrons in the orbit is quantised
(b) The electron in the orbit nearest the nucleus has the lowest energy
(c) Electrons revolve in different orbits around the nucleus
(d) The position and velocity of the electrons in the orbit cannot be determined
simultaneously
86. The set representing the correct order of ionic radius is
(a)Li + > Be2+ > Na+ > Mg2+
(c) Li+ > Na+ > Mg2+ > Be2+
(b) Na+ > Li+ > Mg2+ > Be2+
(d) Mg2+ > Be2+ > Li+ > Na+
87. The first ionisation energy of oxygen is less than that of nitrogen. Which of the
following is the correct reason for this observation?
(a) Lesser effective nuclear charge of oxygen than nitrogen
(b) Lesser atomic size of oxygen than nitrogen
(c) Greater interelectron repulsion between two electrons in the same p-orbital
counter balances the increase in effective nuclear charge on moving from nitrogen to
oxygen
(d) Greater effective nuclear charge of oxygen than nitrogen
88. Which is likely to show inert pair effect?
(a) K
(b) Mg
(c) Al
(d) Pb
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Assertion and Reason
Read the following question and answer as per the direction given below:
(a) Statement I is true ; Statement II is true ; Statement II is the correct explanation of
statement I.
(b) Statement I is true ; Statement II is true; statement II is not the correct explanation of
statement I.
(c) Statement I is true ; Statement II is false.
(d) Statement I is false; Statement II is true.
89. Statement I: The pressure of fixed amount of an ideal gas is proportional to its
temperature.
Statement II: Frequency of collisions and their impact both increase in proportional to
the square root of temperature.
90. Statement I: For n = 3, l may be 0, 1 and 2 and may be 0,
1 and 0, 1 and
2.
Statement I: For each value of n, there are 0 to (n –1) possible values of l; for each value of
l, there are 0 to
l values of m.
ALL THE BEST
PIONEER EDUCATION (THE BEST WAY TO SUCCESS): S.C.O. 320, SECTOR 40–D, CHANDIGARH
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