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Medical
+2 Mega Test {Sample Paper}
General Instructions:The question paper contains 90 objective multiple choice questions.
There are three sections in the question paper consisting of section – I Biology
(1 to 30), Section – II Physics (31 to 60) and Section – III Chemistry (61 to 90).
Each right answer carries (4 marks) and wrong (–1marks)
The maximum marks are 360.
Solution Visits: www.pioneermathematics.com/latest_updates.com
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Section – A {Biology)
1.
Perisperm differs from endosperm in
(a) Its formation by fusion of secondary nucleus with several sperms
(b) Being a haploid tissue
(c) Having no reserve food
(d) Being a diploid tissue
2.
Megasporangium is equivalent to
(a) Ovule
3.
(b) Embryo sac
(c) Fruit
(d) Nucellus
Monoecious plant of Chara shows occurrence of
(a) Upper oogonium and lower antheridium on the same plant
(b) Antheridiophore and archegoniophore on the same plant
(c) Stamen and carpel on the same point
(d) Upper antheridium and lower oogonium on the same plant
4.
5.
Advantage of cleistogamy is
(a) Vivipary
(b) Higher genetic variability
(c) More vigorous offspring
(d) No dependence on pollinators
If two persons with ‘AB’ blood group marry and have sufficiently large number of
children, these children could be classified as ‘A’ blood group : ‘AB’ blood group : ‘B’
blood group in 1 : 2 : 1 ratio. Modern technique of protein electrophoresis reveals
presence of both ‘A’ and ‘B’ type proteins in ‘AB’ blood group individuals. This is an
example of
6.
(a) Complete dominance
(b) Codominance
(c) Incomplete dominance
(d) Partial dominance
Meiosis takes place in
(a) Megaspore
(b) Meiocyte
(c) Conidia
(d) Gemmule
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7.
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Which Mendelian idea is depicted by a cross in which the F1 generation resembles both
the parents ?
8.
(a) Co-dominance
(b) Incomplete dominance
(c) Law of dominance
(d) Inheritance of one gene
One of the legal methods of birth control is
(a) By a premature ejaculation during coitus
(b) Abortion by taking an appropriate medicine
(c) By abstaining from coitus from day 10 to 17 of the menstrual cycle
(d) By having coitus at the time of day break
9.
If both parents are carriers for thalassemia, which is an autosomal recessive disorder,
what are the chances of pregnancy resulting in an affected child?
(a) 100%
(b) No chance
(c) 50%
(d) 25%
10. Which of the following statements is not true of two genes that show 50%
recombination frequency?
(a) If the genes are present on the same chromosome, they undergo more than one
crossovers in every meiosis
(b) The genes may be on different chromosomes
(c) The genes are tightly linked
(d) The genes show independent assortment
11. Which of the following is not the function of placenta? It.
(a) Secretes oxytocin during parturition
(b) Facilitates supply of oxygen and nutrient to embryo
(c) Secretes estrogen
(d) Facilities removal of carbon,dioxide and waste material from embryo
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12. Which one of the following statement is correct?
(a) Tapetum nourishes the developing pollen
(b) Hard outer layer of pollen is called intine
(c) Sporogenous tissue is haploid
(d) Endothecium produces the microspores
13. Menstrual flow occurs due to lack of
(a) Vasopressin
(b) Progesterone
(c) FSH
(d) Oxytocin
14. The incorrect statement with regard to Haemophilia is
(a) A single protein involved in the clotting of blood is affected
(b) It is a sex-linked disease
(c) It is a recessive disease
(d) It is a dominant disease
15. Mendel worked on :
(a) Pigeon pea
(b) Garden pea
(c) Sweet pea
(d) Chick pea
16. The geometrical device that helps in visualizing all the possible combinations of male
and female gametes is known as :
(a) Bateson square (b) Morgan square
(c) Punnett square
(d) Mendel square
17. Stage of development at which implantation occurs is known as
(a) morula
(b) zygote
(c) blastocyst
(d) foetus
18. ‘Spermiogenesis’ refers to
(a) spermatogenesis
(b) metamorphosis of spermatids into sperms
(c) phase of multiplication of spermatogenesis
(d) growth phase of spermatogenesis
19. Botanical name of peat moss is
(a) Sphagnum
(b) Funaria
(c) Anthoceros
(d) Polytrichum
(c) oak tree
(d) Pinus
20. Tallest angiosperm is
(a) Eucalyptus
(b) red wood tree
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21. Which class of algae have chlorophyll-a, d, phycoerythrin and lack flagella ?
(a) Cyanophyceae (b) Rhodophyceae
(c) Phaeophyceae
(d) Chlorophyceae
22. The chordate features shared by the non-chordates are
(a) bilateral symmetry
(b) triploblastic condition and bilateral symmetry
(c) metamerism
(d) All of the above
23. Flame cells are present in
(a) planarians
(b) cyanobacteria
(c) Ascaris
(d) mollusca
24. Which one of the following is NOT a characteristic of phylum Annelida?
(a) Closed circulatory system
(b) Segmentation
(c) Pseudocoelom
(d) Ventral nerve cord
25. Star fish belongs to the class
(a) ophiuroidea
(b) echinoidea
(c) asteroidea
(d) holothuroidea.
(c) Wolffia
(d) Rafflesia.
26. Largest ovule is present in
(a) Cycas
(b) Pinus
27. ‘Red Sea’ is red due to:
(a) Chlamydomonas nivalis
(b) Haemotococcus nivalis
(c) Trichodesmium erythraeum
(d) Scotiella
28. In Bryophytes, the female sex organ is called :
(a) Archegonium
(b) Clostridium
(c) Ascogonium
(d) Trichogyne
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Direction.
Read the assertion and reason carefully to mark the correct option out of the options
given below:
(a) If both the assertion and reason are true and the reason is a correct explanation of
the assertion.
(b) If both the assertion and reason are true but the reason is not correct explanation of
the assertion.
(c) If the assertion is true but the reason is false.
(d) If both the assertion and reason are false.
(e) If the assertion is false but reason is true.
29. Assertion: In a DNA molecule, A–T rich portion melt before G–C rich portions.
Reason: In before A and T, there are 2 H-bonds whereas in between G –C, there are 3Hbonds.
30. Assertion: A tendency of parental combinations to remain together is called crossing
over.
Reason: Crossing over provides a proof in favour of linear arrangement of genes on
chromosomes.
Further same as above…..
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Section – B {Physics}
31. What happens when some charge is placed on a soap bubble?
(a) its radius decreases
(b) its radius increases
(c) the bubble collapses
(d) None of these
32. Two charges, Q each at a distance r from each other. A third charge q is placed on the
line joining the above two charges such that all the three charges are in equilibrium.
What is the magnitude, sign and position of the charge ?
(a) Q/4 and it is located exactly midway A and B
(b) –Q/4 and it is located exactly midway A and B
(c) Q/2 and it is located exactly midway A and B
(d) None of the above
33. In the given circuit, the AC source has
100 rad/s. Considering the inductor and capacitor
to be idea, the correct choice (s) (are)
(a) The current through the circuit, I is 0.3 A
(b) The current through the circuit, I is 0.3 2
(c) The voltage across 100
(d) The voltage across 50
resistor = 10 2 V.
resistor = 10V.
34. Three point charges q, 2q and 8q are to be placed on a 9 cm long straight line. Find the
position of the charge q such that the potential energy of this system is minimum.
(a) 1 cm from 2q
(b) 2 cm from 2q
(c) 3 cm from 2q
(d) 4 cm from 2q
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35. Find the equivalent capacitance of the system across the terminals A and B. All the
capacitors have equal capacitances.
(a) 2C
(b) 3C
(c) 4C
(d) 5C
36. A given charge situated at a certain distance from an electric dipole in the end on
position, experiences a force F. If the distance of charge is double, the force acting on the
charge will be
(a) 2F
(b) F/2
(c) F/4
(d) F/8
37. A spherical conductor with a radius of 0.20 m has an excess charge of 10.0
C. What is
the electric field at the surface of the sphere?
(a) 4.25
106 NC–1 (b) 2.25
106 NC–1
(c) 3.25
106 NC–1
(d) 5.25
106 NC–1
38. The figure shows an experimental plot discharging of a capacitor in an RC circuit. The
time constant of this circuit lies between :
(a) 150 sec. and 200 sec.
(b) 0 sec. and 50 sec.
(c) 50 sec. and 100 sec.
(d) 100 sec and 150 sec
39. Capacitance of a parallel plate capacitor becomes 4/3 times its original value if a
dielectric slab of thickness t = d/2 is inserted between the plates (d is the separation
between the plates). The dielectric constant of the slab is
(a) 8
(b) 4
(c) 6
(d) 2
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40. In the circuit shown, the cell is ideal, with emf = 10 V. Each resistance is of 2
. The
potential difference across the capacitor is
(a) 12V
(b) 10 V
(c) 8V
(d) zero
41. A piece of copper and another of germanium are cooled from room temperature to 40 K.
The resistance of
(a) each of them decreases
(b) copper increases and germanium decreases
(c) each of them increases
(d) copper decreases and germanium increases
42. Four resistances 40
, 60
, 90
and 110
and make the arms of a quadrilateral
ABCD. Across AC is the battery circuit, the emf of the battery being 4V and internal
resistance negligible. The potential difference across BD is
(a) 1V
(b) –1 V
43. A wire of resistance 5
(c) –0.2 V
(d) 0.2 V
is drawn out so that its new length is 3 times its original length.
What is the resistance of the new wire?
(a) 45
(b) 15
(c) 18
(d) 5
44. A series R– C circuit is connected to AC voltage source. Consider two cases; (a) when C is
without a dielectric medium and (b) when C is filled with dielectric of constant 4. The
current IR through the resistor and voltage VC across the capacitor are compared in
the two cases. Which of the following is/are true?
(a) IRA IRB
(b) IRA IBR
(c) VCA VCB
(d) VCA VCB
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45. In a Wheatstone’s bridge, three resistances P, Q and R connected in the three arms and
the fourth arm is formed by two resistances S1 and S2 connected in parallel. The
condition for the bridge to be balanced will be
(a)
P
Q
2R
S1 S2
(b)
P
Q
R S1 S2
S1S2
(c)
P
Q
R S1 S2
2S1S2
(d)
P
Q
R
S1 S2
46. In meter bridge or wheatstone bridge for measurement of resistance, the known and
the unknown resistances are interchanged. The error so removed is
(a) end correction
(b) index error
(c) due to temperature effect
(d) random error
47. 1 kg of copper is drawn into a wire of 1 mm diameter and a 2 mm diameter. The
resistance of two wires will be in the ratio of
(a) 2 : 1
(b) 1 : 2
(c) 16 : 1
(d) 4 : 1
48. Which of the following are true, when the cells are connected in series ?
(a) Current capacity decrease
(b) Current capacity increases
(c) The emf decreases
(d) The emf increases
49. What is a dimensional formula of thermal conductivity ?
(a) [MLT–1
–1]
(b) [MLT–3
–1]
(c) [M2LT–3
–2]
(d) [ML2T–2 ]
50. A resistor R and 2 F capacitor in series is connected though a switch to 200 V direct
supply. A cross the capacitor is a neon bulb that lights up at 120V. Calculate the value
of R to make the bulb light up 5 seconds after the switch has been closed (log 10 2.5 =
0.4)
(a) 1.7 ×105
(b) 2.7×106
(c) 3.3×107
(d) 1.3×104
51. In an LCR circuit as shown below both switches are open initially. Now switch S 1 is
closed S2 kept open. (q is charge on the capacitor and
RC is capacitive time
constant). Which of the following statement is correct?
(a) At t = , q = CV/2
(b) At t = 2 , q = CV (1–e–2)
(c) At t = /2, q = CV (1–e–1)
(d) Work done by the battery is half of the energy dissipated in the resistor
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52. A fully charged capacitor C with initial charge q 0 is connected to a coil of self
inductance L at t = 0. The time at which the energy is stored equally between the
electric and magnetic field is :
(a)
4
LC
(b) 2
LC
(c)
LC
(d)
LC
53. A student measures the focal length of a convex lens by putting an object pin at a distance
u from the lens and measuring the distance v of the image pin. The graph between u and v
plotted by the student should look like
54. A mixture of light, consisting of wavelength 590 nm and an unknown wavelength,
illuminates Young’s double slit and gives rise to two overlapping interference patterns
on the screen. The central maximum of both lights coincide. Further, it is observed that
the third bright fringe of known light coincides with the 4th bright fringe of the unknown
light. From this data, the wavelength of the unknown light is
(a) 393.4 nm
(b) 885.0 nm
(c) 442.5 nm
(d) 776.8 nm
55. In Young’s double slit experiment, one of the slit is wider than other, so that amplitude
of the light from one slit is double of that from other slit. If Im be the maximum intensity,
the resultant intensity I when they interfere at phase difference
(a)
Im
4 5 cos
9
(b)
Im
1 2 cos2
3
2
(c)
Im
1 4cos2
5
2
is given by
(d)
Im
1 8 cos2
9
2
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56. An object 2.4 m in front of a lens forms a sharp image on a film 12 cm behind the lens. A
glass plate 1cm thick, of refractive index 1.50 is interposed between lens and film with its
plane faces parallel to film. At what distance (from lens) should object shifted to be in sharp
focus on film ?
(a) 7.2 m
(b) 2.4 m
(c) 3.2 m
(d) 5.6 m
57. Two coherent point sources S1 and S2 are separated by a small distance d as shown. The
fringes obtained on the screen will be
(a) points
(b) straight lines
(c) semi-circle
(d)concentric circles
58. The graph between angle of deviation δ and angle of incidence (i) for a triangular
prism is represented by
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Assertion and Reason
Read the following question and answer as per the direction given below:
(a) Statement I is true ; Statement II is true ; Statement II is the correct explanation of
statement I.
(b) Statement I is true ; Statement II is true; statement II is not the correct explanation
of statement I.
(c) Statement I is true ; Statement II is false.
(d) Statement I is false; Statement II is true.
59. Statement-I : No current is induced in a metal loop if it is rotated in an electric field.
Statement-II : The electric flux through the loop does not change with time.
60. Statement-I : A parallel beam of light falls on a convex lens. The path of the rays is
shown in Fig. It follows that
1
2.
Statement -II When a ray of light travels from a rarer into a denser medium, it bends
towards the normal and vice-versa.
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Section – C {Chemistry}
61. Total volume of atoms present in a face-centred cubic unit cell of a metal is (r is atomic
radius)
(a)
20 3
r
3
(b)
24 3
r
3
(c)
12 3
r
3
(d)
16 3
r
3
62. How many unit cells are present in a cube shaped ideal crystal of NaCl of mass 1.00 g ?
[Atomic masses : Na = 23, Cl = 35.5]
(a) 2.57
1021
(b) 5.14
1021
(c) 1.28
1021
(d) 1.71 1021
63. The radius ratio in CsCl is 0.93. The expected lattice structure is
(a) tetrahedral
(b) square planar
(c) octahedral
(d)body-centred cubic
64. In a compound, atoms of element Y from ccp lattice and those of element X occupy 2/3rd
of tetrahedral voids. The formula of the compound will be
(a) X4Y3
(b) X2Y3
(c) X2Y
(d) X3Y4
65. Analysis shows that an oxide one of nickel has formula Ni0.98O1.00 . The percentage of
nickel as Ni3+ ions is nearly
(a) 2
66. If
(b) 96
(c) 4
(d) 98
is the degree of dissociation of Na2SO4, the van’t Hoff factor (i) used for calculating
the molecular mass is
(a) 1–2
(b) 1+2
(c) 1
(d) 1 +
67. Which of the following is not a colligative property?
(a) Optical activity
(b) Osmotic pressure
(c) Depression of freezing point
(d) Elevation of boiling point
68. Two liquids X and Y from an ideal solution at 300 K, vapour pressure of the solution
containing 1 mole of X and 3 moles of Y is 500 mm Hg. At the same temperature, if 1
mole of Y is further added to this solution, vapour pressure of the solution increases by
10 mm Hg. Vapour pressure (in mm Hg) of X and Y in their pure strates will be
respectively
(a) 200 and 300
(b) 300 and 400
(c) 400 and 600
(d) 500 and 600
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69. A binary liquid solution is prepared by mixing n-heptane and ethanol. Which one of the
following statements is correct regarding the behaviour of the solution ?
(a) The solution formed is an ideal solution.
(b) The solution is non ideal, showing positive deviation from Raoult’s law.
(c) The solution is non-ideal, showing negative deviation from Raoult’s law.
(d) n-heptane shows positive deviation while ethanol show negative deviation from
Raoult’s law .
70. The carbon-based reduction method is NOT used for the extraction of
(a) tin from SnO2
(b) iron from Fe2O3
(c) aluminium from Al2O3
(d) magnesium from MgCO3. CaCO3
71. Sulfide ores are common for the metals
(a) Ag, Cu and Pb
(b) Ag, Cu and Sn
(c) Ag, Mg and Pb
(d) Al, Cu and Pb
(c)[Fe(CN)6]3–
(d)[Co(F6)]3–
72. Which of the following is diamagnetic?
(a)[FeF6]3–
(b)[Co(OX)]3–
73. Which of the statement is wrong?
(a) The stability of hydrides increases from NH3 to BiH3 in group 15 of the periodic
table.
(b) Nitrogen cannot from d
p bond.
(c) Single N–N bond is weaker then the single P–P bond.
(d) N2O4 has two resonance structure
74. The standard reduction potentials at 298 K for the following half-cell reactions are given
below
Zn2 aq

2e 
 Zn s
Eo = – 0.762
Cr3 aq

3e 
 Cl s
Eo = – 0.74
2H aq

2e 
 H2 g
Eo = + 0.00
Fe3 aq
3

e 
 Fe aq
Eo = + 0.77
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Which one of the following is the strongest reducing agent?
(a) Zn(s)
(b) Cr(s)
(c) H2(s)
(d) Fe2+(aq)
75. Which of the following liberates hydrogen on reaction with dilute H2SO4?
(a) Al
(b) Fe
(c) Cu
(d) Hg
76. Which of the following is not a redox reaction ?
(a) 2Na + Cl2
2NaCl
(c) AgNO3+ NaCl
(b) C + O2
AgCl + NaNO3
(d) Zn + H2SO4
CO2
ZnSO4 + H2S
77. Which quantities are conserved in all oxidation-reduction reactions ?
(a) Charge only
(b) Mass only
(c) Both charge and mass
(d) Neither charge nor mass
78. The activation energies of two reactions are E1 and E2 (E1 > E2). If the temperature of the
system is increased from T1 to T2, the rate constant of the reactions changes from k1 to
k’1 in the first reaction and k2 to k’2 in the second reaction. Predict which of the
following expression is correct ?
(a)
k'1
k1
k'2
k2
(b)
k'1
k1
k'2
k2
(c)
k '1
k1
k '2
k2
(d)
k'1
k1
k'2
k2
1
79. For the decomposition of a compound AB of 600 K, the following data were obtained
[AB] mol dm–3
Rate of decomposition of
AB in mol dm–3 s–1
0.20
2.76
10–8
0.40
11.0
10–8
0.60
24.75
10–8
The order for the decomposition of AB is
(a) 1.5
(b) 0
(c) 1
(d) 2
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80. For the reaction, 2NO(g) + O2(g)
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2NO2(g)
volume is suddenly reduced to half its value by increasing the pressure on it. If the
reaction is of first order with respect to O2 and second order with respect to NO; the
rate of reaction will
(a) diminish to one-fourth of its initial value
(b) diminish to one-eight of its initial value
(c) increase to eight times of its initial value
(d) increase to four times of its initial value
81. The rate of gaseous reaction is equal to k[A][B]. The volume of the reaction vessel
containing these gases is reduced by one-fourth of the initial volume. The rate of the
reaction would be
(a)
1
16
(b)
16
1
(c)
1
8
(d)
8
1
82. A large increase in the rate of reaction for a rise in temperature is due to
(a) lowering of activation energy
(b) increase in the number of collisions
(c) shortening of means free path
(d) increase in the number of activated molecules
83. Bleaching powder contains a salt of an oxoacid as one of its components. The
anhydride of That oxoacid is
(a) Cl 2 O
(b) Cl2O7
(c) ClO2
(d) Cl 2 O 6
84. In nucleophilic substitution reaction, order of halogens as incoming (attacking)
nucleophile is : I–> Br– >Cl–
The order of halogens as departing nucleophile should be :
(a) Cl– > Br– > I–
(b) Cl– > I–> Br–
(c) Br–>I–>Cl–
(d) I–> Br– >Cl–
85. The coagulating power of electrolyte having ions Na+,Al3+,Ba2+ for arsenic sulphide sol
increases in the order :
(a) Na+< Ba2+< Al3+ (b) Ba2+< Na+< Al3+
(c) Al3+< Na+< Ba2+
(d) Al3+< Ba2+<Na+
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86. Methylene blue, from its aqueous solution, is adsorbed on activated charcoal at 250C.
For this process, the correct statement is
(a) The adsorption requires activation at 250C.
(b) The adsorption is accompanied by a decrease in enthalpy.
(c) The adsorption increases with increase of temperature.
(d) The adsorption is irreversible.
87. In which of the following octahedral complex species the magnitude of A will be
maximum?
(a) [C0 (C2 O4) 6]3– (b) [C0 (H2O) 6]2+
(c) [C0 (NH3) 6]3+
(d)[C0 (CN) 6]3–
88. Given the standard reduction potentials Zn2+/Zn=– 0.74 V, Cl2/Cl– =1.36V, H+/2H2 = 0V
and Fe3+/Fe2+ = 0.77 V. The order of increasing strength as reducing agent is
(a) Cl–, Zn, H2, Fe2+ (b) H2, Zn, Fe3+, Cl
(c) Cl–, Fe2+, Zn, H2
(d) Cl–, Fe3+, H2, Zn
Assertion and Reason
Read the following question and answer as per the direction given below:
(a) Statement I is true ; Statement II is true ; Statement II is the correct explanation of
statement I.
(b) Statement I is true ; Statement II is true; statement II is not the correct explanation
of statement I.
(c) Statement I is true ; Statement II is false.
(d) Statement I is false; Statement II is true.
89. Statement I: Bromobenzene upon reaction with Br2/Fe gives 1, 4-dibromobenzene as
the major product.
Statement II: In bromobenzene, the inductive effect of the bromo group is more
dominant than the mesomeric effect in directing the incoming electriphile.
90. Statement I: H2-O2 fuel cell gives a constant voltage throughout its life.
Statement II: In this fuel cell, H2 reacts with OH– ions, yet the overall concentration of
OH– ions does not change.
ALL THE BEST
PIONEER EDUCATION (THE BEST WAY TO SUCCESS): S.C.O. 320, SECTOR 40–D, CHANDIGARH
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